Saturday, December 4, 2010

INDIAN ECONOMY QUESTIONS

1. Deficit financing increases—
(A) Rate of money inflation
(B) Rate of money deflation
(C) Rate of devaluation
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

2. Which is not a monetary measure to control inflation ?
(A) Soft loan policy
(B) Hard credit policy
(C) Tight the regulation of money issue
(D) To reduce the quantity of money
Ans : (A)

3. Which is the monetary measure to control inflation ?
(A) Increase in taxation
(B) Decrease in taxation
(C) Soft credit policy
(D) Hard credit policy
Ans : (D)

4. Selling of securities in the open market by the central bank creates—
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Both of above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

5. To control inflation the central bank should do—
(A) To sell government securities and to decrease bank rate
(B) To sell government securities and to increase bank rate
(C) To purchase government securities and to increase bank rate
(D) To purchase government securities and to decrease bank rate
Ans : (B)


6. To buy a book, from the market by giving money is called—
(A) Direct Exchange
(B) Indirect Exchange
(C) Direct and Indirect exchange
(D) This is not any type of exchange
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following is not a direct tax ?
(A) Income tax
(B) Property tax
(C) Sales tax
(D) House tax
Ans : (C)

8. Ultimate burden of tax is known as—
(A) Impact
(B) Incidence
(C) Shifting of tax
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

9. When elasticity of demand and elasticity of supply are equal, the burden of tax ?
(A) Lies more on buyer
(B) Lies more on seller
(C) Lies equally on buyer and seller
(D) All of the above are false
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following economists suggested tax on expenditure ?
(A) Dalton
(B) Musgrave
(C) Kaldor
(D) Van Philips
Ans : (A)

11. If interest payment is deducted from the fiscal deficit, then the balance is—
(A) Primary deficit
(B) Budgetary deficit
(C) Revenue deficit
(D) Monetary deficit
Ans : (A)

12. Which is the characteristic of a tax ?
(A) Tax is a payment for government service
(B) Tax is a compulsory payment
(C) Tax is voluntary
(D) To get benefit for a tax is compulsory
Ans : (B)

13. Which government income is included in revenue budget ?
(A) Tax-revenue
(B) Non-tax-revenue
(C) Both of above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

14. Which is included in Capital budget ?
(A) Income received from public borrowings
(B) Income received from tax-sources
(C) Income received from non-tax sources
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)


15. Which is not included in the principles of public expenditure as developed by Findley Shirras ?
(A) Principle of Economy
(B) Principle of Sanction
(C) Principle of Elasticity
(D) Principle of Surplus
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is the largest significant factor of revenue expenditure of Central Government ?
(A) Defence Expenditure
(B) Subsidy
(C) Interest Payment
(D) Salary
Ans : (C)

17. In comparison to revenue deficit; the size of fiscal deficit is always—
(A) Higher
(B) Smaller
(C) Similar
(D) Uncertain
Ans : (A)

18. What is CENVAT ?
(A) Direct Tax
(B) Indirect Tax
(C) Development Planning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

19. Where is Indian Diamond Institute (IDI) established ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Surat
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (C)

20. What is the nature of income tax in India ?
(A) Proportional
(B) Progressive
(C) Regressive
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

21. Which factor is not related to economic development ?
(A) Continuous process
(B) Increase in real national income
(C) Long run and continuous increase
(D) Compulsory change in economic welfare
Ans : (D)

22. The index of measuring economic development is—
(A) Increase in productive assets
(B) National income
(C) Per-capita income
(D) Any of the above
Ans : (D)

23. Process of economic development means—
(A) Economic change
(B) Social change
(C) Ethical, institutional and cultural change
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

24. At 2004-05 prices, the per-capita national income in India during 2009-10 was—
(A) Rs. 21005
(B) Rs. 33588
(C) Rs. 25241
(D) Rs. 20241
Ans : (B)

25. What is the main characteristic of a capitalist or free market economy ?
(A) Individuals are the owners of factors of production
(B) Profit is the main motive of carrying out various activities
(C) Consumer freedom
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

26. According to population census 2001, the state of largest density of population is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
Ans : (C)

27. According to population census 2001, which union territory has the largest percentage of literacy ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Puducherry
(D) Lakshdweep
Ans : (D)

28. According to population census 2001, which of the following states is below the national average of literacy ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Orissa
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

29. As per population census 2001, what is the percentage of urban population in total population of India ?
(A) 25•8%
(B) 26•78%
(C) 27•78%
(D) 28•78%
Ans : (C)

30. What was infant mortality rate in India in 2008 ?
(A) 70 per thousand
(B) 65 per thousand
(C) 60 per thousand
(D) 53 per thousand
Ans : (D)


31. As per population census 2001 in which state literacy rate is lowest ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (A)

32. What has been the annual growth rate of population during 1991-2001 ?
(A) 2•20 %
(B) 2•14%
(C) 1•95%
(D) 1•00%
Ans : (C)

33. In the history of population growth of India, which year is called “the year of great divide” ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1947
(C) 1935
(D) 1921
Ans : (D)

34. What was the density of population per square km in India in 2001 ?
(A) 325 persons
(B) 333 persons
(C) 327 persons
(D) 345 persons
Ans : (A)

35. The factor that determines the change in population of a place is—
(A) Birth rate
(B) Death rate
(C) Migration
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

36. In whose production U.P. occupies the first place in India ?
(A) Food grains production
(B) Milk production
(C) Production of sugarcane and sugar
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

37. The Headquarter of RBI is in—
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kanpur
(D) Nasik
Ans : (B)

38. Which state produces maximum soyabean ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

39. Which state produces maximum pulses in the country ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

40. Kasturba Gandhi Education Scheme is related to—
(A) Girl Education
(B) Adult Education
(C) Child Labour Education
(D) Tribal Women (above 18 years)
Ans : (A)

41. Which state stands first in the length of roads in the country ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

42. National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) was established in—
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1947
Ans : (A)

43. What is ‘green gold’ ?
(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Gold
(D) Rice
Ans : (A)

44. Which one is the leading state in the production of groundnut in the country ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

45. Which state in India produces maximum mica ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

46. What is a foot loose industry ?
(A) Any industry which can locate virtually anywhere
(B) Foot loose industry has no strong national orientation in its location requirements
(C) Both of above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

47. “Mahila Samridhi Yojana” was launched on—
(A) October 2, 1992
(B) October 2, 1993
(C) October 2, 1995
(D) January 1, 1996
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bhutan
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

49. Nowadays, the thurst areas of human development are—
(A) Health
(B) Gender Equity
(C) Gender Empowerment
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

50. According to area, which state is the largest ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

51. Demand curve of a firm under perfect competition is—
(A) Perfectly Inelastic
(B) Perfectly Elastic
(C) More Elastic
(D) Less Elastic
Ans : (B)

52. Which of the following equation is correct for perfect competition ?
(A) AR = MR = Price
(B) AR MR
(C) AR MR
(D) Price MR
Ans : (A)

53. Which equation is correct under normal profit ?
(A) AR = AC
(B) AR AC
(C) AR AC
(D) AR = AC = 0
Ans : (A)

54. The object of every producing firm is—
(A) To maximise production
(B) To minimise cost
(C) To maximise profit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

55. Who determines price under perfect competition ?
(A) Representative firm
(B) Industry
(C) Normal firm
(D) Government
Ans : (B)


56. Marshall's representative firm is a long-run average firm while optimum firm is a—
(A) Maximum cost firm
(B) Minimum cost firm
(C) Marginal cost firm
(D) Average cost firm
Ans : (B)

57. In perfect competition average revenue curve is—
(A) Parallel to x-axis
(B) Parallel to y-axis
(C) Slopes down from left to right
(D) Slopes upward from left to right
Ans : (A)

58. In the long-run, perfect competitive firm gets—
(A) Only normal profit
(B) Abnormal profit
(C) Loss
(D) Any of the above
Ans : (A)

59. What minimum price is acceptable by a firm in the short-period ?
(A) Equal to AC
(B) Equal to AVC
(C) Equal to AFC
(D) Equal to TC
Ans : (B)

60. Selling cost is a must in—
(A) Pure monopoly
(B) Perfect competition
(C) Imperfect competition
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

61. Which category of land is rent less land ?
(A) First category of land
(B) Second category of land
(C) Third category of land
(D) Marginal land
Ans : (D)

62. Opportunity cast of a factor is known as—
(A) Transfer earning
(B) Money cost
(C) Present earning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

63. Quasi Rent is—
(A) Equal to firm's total profit
(B) More than firm's total profit
(C) Less than firm's total profit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following can not be accepted factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Light of sun
(D) Capital
Ans : (C)

65. Land is the only factor of production whose supply is ?
(A) More Elastic
(B) Perfectly Elastic
(C) Perfectly Inelastic
(D) Unitary Elastic
Ans : (C)

66. Rent will be produced at that time when ?
(A) Entire land is fertile
(B) Elasticity of supply of land is perfectly elastic
(C) Land is mobile
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

67. The Example of derived demand is—
(A) Demand for labour
(B) Demand for tea
(C) Demand for consumable commodity
(D) Income demand
Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is an active factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) Organisation
Ans : (B)

69. Who developed the innovation theory of profit ?
(A) Shumpeter
(B) Haley
(C) Prof. Knight
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (A)

70. When the rate of money inflation increase then the prices of commodities ?
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Do not change
Ans : (A)

71. In common meaning, inflation is a condition in which—
(A) Price of commodity increases
(B) Value of money decreases
(C) Price of commodity and value of money both increase
(D) Price of commodity increases and value of money decreases
Ans : (D)

72. According to Keynes, real inflation takes place—
(A) Before the level of full employment
(B) On the level of full employment
(C) After the level of full employment
(D) All above are true
Ans : (C)

73. Which is the main reason of demand pull inflation ?
(A) Increase in money supply
(B) Increase in commercial expenditure
(C) Increase in foreign demand for goods
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

74. The reason for cost push inflation is—
(A) Increase in money wages
(B) Increase in rate of profit
(C) Both of above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

75. What is necessary to control cost push inflation ?
(A) To impose control on wages of labour
(B) To remove market imperfections
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

76. When was Consumer Protection Act enacted ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1985
(C) 1986
(D) 1991
Ans : (C)

77. When was Planning Commission formed ?
(A) March 15, 1950
(B) March 15, 1951
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (A)

78. Planning Commission is—
(A) A statutory body
(B) A consultative body
(C) Both of above
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


79. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Home Minister
Ans : (B)

80. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(B) C. Rangrajan
(C) K. C. Pant
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)


81. Who was the first Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Raja Gopala Chari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

82. Which of the following is the function of Planning Commission ?
(A) To estimate various resources of the country
(B) To prepare plan for the balanced and effective use of resources
(C) To review plan
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

83. When was National Development Council formed ?
(A) 15th March, 1950
(B) 6th August, 1951
(C) 6th August, 1952
(D) 26th January, 1950
Ans : (C)

84. Who becomes the Chairman of National Development Council ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Minister of Planning
Ans : (B)

85. Final shape is given to plan by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Minister
(C) National Development Council
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

86. When was first five year plan introduced ?
(A) 1st April, 1950
(B) 1st April, 1951
(C) 1st April, 1952
(D) 31st March, 1950
Ans : (B)


87. When was 10th five year plan introduced ?
(A) 1st April, 2002
(B) 1st April, 2003
(C) 1st April, 2004
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

88. Eleventh Five Year Plan Size (Centre Plus States) as percentage of GDP is—
(A) 9•46%
(B) 13•54%
(C) 15•25%
(D) 14•76%
Ans : (B)

89. What is the period of 11th five year plan ?
(A) 2006-2011
(B) 2007-2012
(C) 2008-2013
(D) 2009-2014
Ans : (B)

90. What is the revised target fixed for annual rate of growth of GDP during 11th five year plan ?
(A) 9%
(B) 8•1%
(C) 10%
(D) 10•5%
Ans : (B)

91. For which year the latest census is being conducted in India ?
(A) 2001
(B) 2010
(C) 2012
(D) 2011
Ans : (D)

92. How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence ?
(A) 05
(B) 06
(C) 07
(D) 08
Ans : (C)

93. At what interval of years population census is conducted in India ?
(A) 05 years
(B) 06 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 15 years
Ans : (C)

94. When was first human development report of India issued ?
(A) March 2000
(B) April 2002
(C) June 2002
(D) April 2001
Ans : (B)

95. In which religion largest population growth was noticed during 1991-2001 ?
(A) Hindu
(B) Muslim
(C) Christian
(D) Sikhs
Ans : (B)

96. According to population census 2001, population of India as on March 1, 2001 was—
(A) 102•87 crore
(B) 100•20 crore
(C) 99 crore
(D) 98 crore
Ans : (A)

97. In which of the following states the percentage of scheduled caste population is maximum as per final figures of population census 2001 ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

98. In which state the literacy rate of women is highest ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Mizoram
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

99. According to population census 2001, which of the following states shows largest growth of population during 1991-2001 ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Manipur
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

100. According to population census 2001, what is the number of women per 1000 men in India ?
(A) 939
(B) 959
(C) 933
(D) 927
Ans : (C)

101. “An Enquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations” is the book of economist—
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) Robbins
(D) None of above
Ans : (A)

102. “Economics is the Science of Wealth” who gave this definition ?
(A) J. K. Mehta
(B) Marshall
(C) Adam Smith
(D) Robbins
Ans : (C)

103. “Economics is what economists do.” It has been supported by—
(A) Richard Jones
(B) Comte
(C) Gunnar Myrdal
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

104. “Human Welfare is the subject of Economics.” This statement is associated with the name of which of the economists ?
(A) Marshall
(B) Pigou
(C) Penson
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

105. Who has given scarcity definition of economics ?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) Robbins
(D) Robertson
Ans : (C)


106. “Economics is a science” the basis of this statement is—
(A) Relation between cause and effect
(B) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws
(C) Experiments
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

107. Characteristics of economic laws are—
(A) Mere statements of economic tendencies
(B) Less certain
(C) Hypothetical
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

108. Which theory is generally included under micro economics ?
(A) Price Theory
(B) Income Theory
(C) Employment Theory
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

109. Whose opinions have revolutionised the scope of macro economics ?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J.B. Say
(C) J.M. Keynes
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

110. Which of the following is an economic activity ?
(A) Teaching of a teacher in the school
(B) To teach son at home
(C) To serve her child by mother
(D) To play football by a student
Ans : (A)

111. Passive factor of production is—
(A) Only land
(B) Only capital
(C) Both land and capital
(D) Neither land nor capital
Ans : (C)

112. Under law of demand—
(A) Price of commodity is an independent variable
(B) Quantity demanded is a dependent variable
(C) Reciprocal relationship is found between price and quantity demanded
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

113. For inferior commodities, income effect is—
(A) Zero
(B) Negative
(C) Infinite
(D) Positive
Ans : (B)

114. When total utility becomes maximum, then marginal utility will be—
(A) Minimum
(B) Average
(C) Zero
(D) Negative
Ans : (C)

115. Utility means—
(A) Power to satisfy a want
(B) Usefulness
(C) Willingness of a person
(D) Harmfulness
Ans : (A)

116. Marginal utility is equal to average utility at that time when average utility is—
(A) Increasing
(B) Maximum
(C) Falling
(D) Minimum
Ans : (B)

117. At point of satiety, marginal utility is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Maximum
(D) Negative
Ans : (A)

118. Which of the following is the second law of Gossen ?
(A) Law of equi-marginal utility
(B) Law of equi-product
(C) Theory of indifference curve
(D) Law of diminishing marginal utility
Ans : (A)

119. Total utility of a commodity is measured by which price of that commodity ?
(A) Value in use
(B) Value in exchange
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above
Ans : (A)

120. According to Marshall, the basis of consumer surplus is—
(A) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(B) Law of equi-marginal utility
(C) Law of proportions
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

121. Which commodity can be called as Giffen commodity ?
(A) Inferior commodity
(B) Superior commodity
(C) Any of above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

122. The price of a commodity is determined where—
(A) Demand supply
(B) Demand supply
(C) Demand = supply
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

123. In perfect competition, the demand for a commodity is—
(A) Elastic
(B) Perfectly elastic
(C) Inelastic
(D) Perfectly inelastic
Ans : (B)

124. Which condition is not found in perfect competition ?
(A) Many buyers and sellers
(B) Perfect knowledge about market conditions
(C) Product differentiation
(D) Perfect factor-mobility
Ans : (C)

125. In which market, a firm cannot determine price ?
(A) Perfect competition
(B) Monopoly
(C) Monopolistic competition
(D) Oligopoly
Ans : (A)

126. Which is not the characteristic of socialist or planned economy ?
(A) Government is the owner of resources
(B) Production decisions are determined by the government
(C) Profit motive
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

127. The main feature of mixed economy is—
(A) Combination of free market economy and centrally planned economy
(B) Production is carried out by private individuals and government
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

128. What per cent of GDP at 2004-05 prices was contributed by agriculture and related sectors in 2009-10 ?
(A) 14•6%
(B) 17•6%
(C) 19•0%
(D) 19•8%
Ans : (A)

129. According to World Development Report 2010, Low income economies are those whose per-capita gross national income is—
(A) $ 975 or less than this
(B) Less than $ 11905
(C) Less than $ 4526
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

130. Which of the following country's economy is known as high income economy ?
(A) America
(B) U.K.
(C) Singapore
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)


131. How much percentage of working population in India depends on agriculture as per economic survey 2009-10 ?
(A) 52%
(B) 70%
(C) 73%
(D) 75%
Ans : (A)

132. Which policy of economic system has been adopted by India for its economic development ?
(A) Capitalist Economy
(B) Mixed Economy
(C) Socialist Economy
(D) Centralised Planned Economy
Ans : (B)

133. A positive aspect of economic development after independence is—
(A) Creation of a large industrial base
(B) Proportion of population living below poverty line has declined
(C) Self sufficient in the production of food grains
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

134. The negative aspect of economic development after independence is—
(A) Problems of poverty and unemployment have not been eliminated
(B) Industrialisation did not take place as expected
(C) Many public sector enterprises started making losses
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

135. Reasons for the privatisation and liberalisation of public sector after 1991 are—
(A) Corruption
(B) Lack of efficiency in work
(C) Ineffective management
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

136. The main strategy adopted in the new economic policy of 1991 is—
(A) Liberalisation
(B) Privatisation
(C) Globalisation
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

137. How many industries have been reserved for government sector at present ?
(A) 03
(B) 04
(C) 05
(D) 06
Ans : (A)

138. How many industries are kept for compulsory licensing at present ?
(A) 03
(B) 06
(C) 05
(D) 07
Ans : (C)

139. Agriculture sector registered 1•6% growth in 2008-09 and what is estimated for 2009-10 ?
(A) 6%
(B) 4•3%
(C) 0•2%
(D) 0•9%
Ans : (C)

140. When was World Trade Organisation set up by the member countries of the united Nations to promote trade among countries ?
(A) 1994
(B) 1995
(C) 1999
(D) 2005
Ans : (B)

141. Where is the Headquarter of WTO located ?
(A) Newyork
(B) Washington
(C) Peris
(D) Geneva
Ans : (D)

142. The main objective of WTO is—
(A) Import and export restrictions to be abolished
(B) Instead of bilateral agreements, WTO expects the countries to follow multilateral agreements
(C) To regulate international trade of both goods and services
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

143. The largest source of National Income in India is—
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Industry Sector
(C) Service Sector
(D) Trade Sector
Ans : (C)

144. In which state the percentage of people living below poverty line is largest ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Bihar
(C) M.P.
(D) U.P.
Ans : (A)

145. Which of the following programmes is not for rural poverty eradication ?
(A) SGSY
(B) SJSRY
(C) PMGY
(D) All above programmes are for rural poverty eradication
Ans : (B)

146. The cause of rise in prices of goods, in the market is—
(A) Rise in money supply
(B) Increase in cost of production
(C) Increase in stocks of goods and blackmarketing
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

147. Changes in the prices of goods in India is measured by which of the following index numbers ?
(A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Both of above
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

148. Which year has been currently used as the base year to estimate national income in India by CSO ?
(A) 2004-05
(B) 1993-94
(C) 2001-02
(D) 1999-2000
Ans : (A)

149. Which of the following remedies are adopted to control price rise in the economy ?
(A) Monetary measures
(B) Fiscal measures
(C) Administered price mechanism
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

150. The term “Evergreen Revolution” has been used for increasing agricultural production in India by—
(A) Norman Barlogue
(B) Raj Krishna
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) R. K. V. Rao
Ans : (C)

No comments:

Post a Comment