1. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans. b
Explanation:
In 1931, the Indian National Congress, at its Karachi session, adopted resolutions defining, as well as committing itself to the defence of fundamental civil rights, including socio-economic rights such as minimum wage, the abolition of untouchability and serfdom. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme.
2. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J.B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
Ans. c
Explanation:
Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission. The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
3. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
Ans. a
Explanation:
Digestion is the mechanical and chemical breaking down of food into smaller components that can be absorbed into a blood stream, for instance. eg. Break-down of carbohydrates, proteins and fats into constituent units.
4. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(a) Otter - Tortoise - Shark
(b) Shark - Tortoise - Otter
(c) Tortoise - Shark - Otter
(d) Shark - Otter – Tortoise
Ans. b
Explanation:
Otters are semi-aquatic (or in one case aquatic) fish-eating mammals.
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS because HIV is heat sensitive.
Chronic hepatitis B may eventually cause liver cirrhosis and liver cancer—a fatal disease with very poor response to current chemotherapy. The infection is preventable by vaccination.
6. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affirnity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain.
Ans. b
Explanation:
The inhaled CO has much higher affirnity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. Carbon monoxide mainly causes adverse effects in humans by combining with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) in the blood. This prevents oxygen binding to hemoglobin, reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to hypoxia.
7.. Consider the following statements:
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flue.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
People who work with poultry and swine, especially people with intense exposures, are at increased risk of zoonotic (bird and swine flue) infection. People in at-risk groups should be treated with antivirals (oseltamivir or zanamivir) as soon as possible when they first experience flu symptoms. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu. The World Health Organization moved to put the pandemic alert to phase 5 confirms that the situation is not a pig problem but a human problem.
8. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections
(c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at childbirth and by breast feeding
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle
Ans. a
Explanation:
In high-income countries, the risk of female-to-male transmission is 0.04% per act and male-to-female transmission is 0.08% per act. The transmission of the virus from the mother to the child can occur in utero during the last weeks of pregnancy and at childbirth. Breastfeeding also increases the risk of transmission by about 4 %.
9. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. Indian cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
No need of explanation.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Commonwealth has no charter treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a (?)
Explanation: Membership is purely voluntary. A number of territories formerly under British jurisdiction or mandate did not join the Commonwealth like Egypt, Iraq, Myanmar etc..
11. Examine the following statements:
1. All colours are pleasant.
2. Some colours are pleasent.
3. No colour is pleasant.
4. Some colours are not pleasant.
Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
(a) 1 and 2 are true
(b) 1 is false
(c) 2 is false
(d) 3 is true
Ans. b
12. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between Indian and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission and European Council?
1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic polices of the European Union.
2. European Commission comprises the Heats of State or government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
The European Council is the institution of the European Union (EU) responsible for defining the general political direction and priorities of the Union. It comprises the heads of state or government of EU member states, along with its President and the President of the Commission. The High Representative takes part in its meetings, which are chaired by its President: currently Herman Van Rompuy.
While the European Council has no formal legislative power, it is an institution that deals with major issues and any decisions made are "a major impetus in defining the general political guidelines of the European Union".
13. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is
(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%
Ans. d (most correct answer)
Explanation: India 2010 page-308
According to State of Forest report 2005, the total forest cover of the country as per 2005 assessment is 20.65 of total geographical area of country.
14. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements:
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
NIF would be maintained outside the Consolidated Fund of India and would be professionally managed by selected public sector mutual funds to provide sustainable return without depleting the corpus. 75% of annual income of NIF will be used to finance selected social sector schemes. The three AMCs (the UTI Asset Management Company Pvt. Ltd., the SBI Funds Management Pvt. Ltd. and the LIC Mutual Fund Asset Management Company Ltd.) have been appointed as fund managers for NIF, initially for two years, but extendable later on the basis of their performance. Separate agreements were signed with each fund manager.
15. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?
(a) Currency Futures Trading
(b) Commodities Futures Trading
(c) Equity Futures Trading
(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading.
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Forward Markets Commission (FMC) is the chief regulator of forwards and futures markets in India. It regulates commodity trade in India. It is headquartered in Mumbai and is overseen by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?
(a) Partners should be less than 20
(b) Partnership and management need not be separate
(c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners.
(d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession
Ans. a
Explanation:
LLP shall be a body corporate and a legal entity separate from its partners. It will have perpetual succession. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 shall not be applicable to LLPs and there shall not be any upper limit on number of partners in an LLP unlike an ordinary partnership firm where the maximum number of partners can not exceed 20, LLP Act makes a mandatory statement where one of the partner to the LLP should be an Indian. A minimum of two partners will be required for formation of an LLP.
17. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?
(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in india
(c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties concerned
(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services.
The Banking Ombudsman can receive and consider any complaint relating to complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India in relation to their remittances from abroad, deposits and other bank-related matters; If one is not satisfied with the decision passed by the Banking Ombudsman, one can approach the appellate authority against the Banking Ombudsmen’s decision. Appellate Authority is vested with a Deputy Governor of the RBI.
18. With reference to India, consider the following:
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the "financial inclusion" in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation: Steps taken to achieve the "financial inclusion" in India-
a. A hugely expanded bank branch and cooperative network and new organizational forms like RRBs;
b. A greater focus on credit rather than other financial services like savings and insurance, although the banks and cooperatives did provide deposit facilities;
c. Nationalization of Banks
19. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by marathas of his viceroy Timur "Shah from Lahore
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
(c) he wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up the borders of Delhi to his kingdom
Ans. a
Explanation:
To counter the Afghans, Peshwa Balaji Bajirao sent Raghunathrao. He succeeded in ousting Timur Shah and his court from India and brought Lahore, Multan, Kashmir and other subahs on the Indian side of Attock under Maratha rule. Thus, upon his return to Kandahar in 1757, Amidst appeals from Muslim leaders like Shah Waliullah, Ahmad Shah chose to return to India and confront the Maratha Confederacy.
20. With reference to Pondicherry (now Pundchery), consider the following statements:
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c (?)
Explanation:
Joseph François Dupleix became the Governor of the French Territory in India on 15 January 1742 and brought Madras also under French control in September 1746; Madras continued under French rule for 30 years. Internal disturbances in Pondicherry gave the British the opportunity, in August 1793, to gain control of Pondicherry; it was administered as part of Madras till 1815. However, after the Treaty of Paris in 1814, the British restored the settlements, which the French had possessed on 1 January 1792, back to the French in 1816. French rule continued till 31 October 1954.
21. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times.
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and presecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
The successor Shungas reinstated the sacrifices and persecuted Buddhism. Central Asian and North Western Indian Buddhism weakened in the 6th century following the White Hun invasion, who followed their own religions. The Gupta Empire period was a time of great development of Hindu culture, but even then in the Ganges Plain half of the population supported Buddhism.
22. Consider the following statements: The functions of commercial banks in India include
1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
The modern Commercial Banks in India cater to the financial needs of different sectors. The main functions of the commercial banks comprise:
• transfer of funds
• acceptance of deposits
• offering those deposits as loans for the establishment of industries
• purchase of houses, equipments, capital investment purposes etc.
• The banks are allowed to act as trustees. On account of the knowledge of the financial market of India the financial companies are attracted towards them to act as trustees to take the responsibility of the security for the financial instrument like a debenture.
• The Indian Government presently hires the commercial banks for various purposes like tax collection and refunds, payment of pensions etc.
23. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?
(a) Service tax
(b) personal income tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Corporation tax
Ans. c
Explanation: Economic Survey 2009-10 page-42
24. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Ans. b
Explanation:
Governor of a State shall after every 5 years constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of Panchayats in that particular State. State Finance Commission makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State.
25. Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
Explanation:
Some taxes are levied and collected by the Centre but the proceeds are to be distributed among States. These include succession and estate duties in respect of property other than agricultural land, terminal tax on goods and passengers, tax on railway fares and freights, taxes on transaction in stock exchanges and future markets, taxes on sale or purchase of newspapers and ads.
26. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?
(a) Rice
(b) Oilseeds
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
Ans. a (Economic Survey 2009-10 page-182)
Explanation:
In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for rice has remained more or less stagnant.
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
The control on sugar is effected mainly through control orders issued under the Essential Commodities Act and some State legislation, like the one in Uttar Pradesh.
Central Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane for each sugar season under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 for each sugar factory. SMP is fixed on the basis of the recommendations of the commission on Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP ).Some State Governments announce State Advised Prices (SAP) for sugarcane for their sugar factories. SAPs are higher than SMP. SAPs are not fixed on any scientific basis. SAPs are not statutorily binding.
SMP is now replaced or supplemented by Fair and Reasonable Price (FRP) and State Advised Price (SAP).
28. With reference to Indian economy consider the following statements:
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d (?)
Explanation:
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by three times in the last 10 years.
29. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
The main greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, SF6 is the most potent greenhouse gas that it has evaluated, with a global warming potential of 22,800[5] times that of CO2 when compared over a 100 year period. CO2 is resposible for 40% of earth warming and black carbon for 12%.
30. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administrated by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme.
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization.
Ans. a
Explanation:
The IDA is administered by the same officers and staff who administer the affairs of the IBRD. The president of the Bank also serves as the president of the IDA, and the governors and the executive directors of the Bank serve in the same capacity in the IDA. As in the IBRD, a member's voting power in the IDA is roughly proportionate to its capital subscription.
31. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
(a) Abundance of magnesium
(b) Accumulated humus
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
(d) Abundance of phosphates
Ans. c
Explanation:
Red soil is formed as a result of the wearing down of the old crystalline rocks. It is less clayey and more of a sandy nature and has a rich content of iron and small Humus content. Red soil is poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and lime. Reddish color of red soil is due to wide diffusion of iron.
32. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in then
(b) More than 90% of India's coal reserves are found in them
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context
Ans. b
Explanation:
Gondwana rocks are economically most important rock system in India containing about 98% of her coal reserve.
33. Which one of the following can one come across is one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
(a) bali
(b) Brunei
(c) Java
(d) Singapore
Ans. d
Explanation:
See any Atlas.
34. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
(b) it flows into Gulp of Kuchhh
(c) It flows into pakistan and mergers with a tributary of Indus
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh
Ans. d
Explanation:
The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state, India. It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat
35. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
Dam/Lake River
(a) Govind Sagar Satluj
(b) Kolleru lake Krishna
(c) Ukai Reservoir Tapi
(d) Wular Lake Jhelum
Ans. b
Explanation:
Govind Sagar- Gobind Sagar is a man-made reservoir situated in Bilaspur District, Himachal Pradesh.The reservoir on the river Sutlej, was formed after the hydel dam at Bhakra was constructed and has been named in honour of Guru Gobind Singh. Kolleru lake- Kolleru Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. It is located in Andhra Pradesh state, India. Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari delta. Ukai Reservoir- Ukai Dam, constructed across the Tapti River, is the largest reservoir in Gujarat. Wular Lake- Wular Lake is a large fresh water lake in Bandipore district in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River.
36. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
Ans. a
Explanation:
Mediterranean region is characterized by Warm and dry climate, Mild and wet winter and Evergreen oak trees.
37. Which reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
The new Bill provides for benefits and compensation to people displaced by land acquisition purchases or any other involuntary displacement. For large scale displacement, the government shall conduct a social impact assessment, and appoint an Administrator for Rehabilitation and Resettlement to formulate and execute the rehabilitation and resettlement plan. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Rural Development.
38. In the context of India's Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
(a) Forth Plan
(b) Sixth Plan
(c) Eighth Plan
(d) Tenth Plan
Ans. b (India 2010 page-809)
Explanation:
Strategy adapted during sixth plan was to move simultaneously toward strengthening the infrastructure for both agriculture and industries.
39. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women's development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements:
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult cicumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Vountary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d (India 2010 page-1059,60)
Explanation:
Swayam Sidha is based on formation of women into self help groups and programme is being implemented by ICDS machinery in most of States. The Swadhar Scheme purports to address the specific vulnerability of each of group of women in difficult circumstances through a Home-based holistic and integrated approach.
40. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child is an international statement of the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of children.
41. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 2, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time?
(a) After 11 hours
(b) After 21 hours
(c) After 22 hours
(d) After 33 hours
Ans. d
Explanation:
Circumference
= 2πr
= 69.14
Time taken by first person
=69.14/4
=17.2 hours
Time taken by second person
=69.14/5.5
= 12.57 hours
Answer should be more than 34.4 hours
42. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a women
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty laksh
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general
Ans. c
Explanation:
Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as the "District Forum" established by the State Government in each district of the State by notification: Provided that the State Government may, if it deems fit, establish more than one District Forum in a district. Each District Forum shall consist of,— a person who is, or has been, or is qualified to be a District Judge, who shall be its President; two other members, one of whom shall be a woman. Jurisdiction of the District Forum.—(1) Subject to the other provisions of this Act, the District Forum shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed ''does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.
43. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(a) It is snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to given birth to its offspring
(c) It is a viviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched
(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season
Ans. c
Explanation:
Before she is ready to lay her eggs, she uses the coils of her long body to gather a big mound of leaf litter. She deposits 20–40 eggs into the mound, which acts as an incubator. The female stays with her eggs and guards the mound tenaciously, rearing up into a threat display if any large animal gets too close. When the eggs start to hatch, instinct causes her to leave the nest and find prey to eat so that she does not eat her young.
44. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Gobe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 200 score. What is this score?
(a) It is measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint
(b) It is measure of environmentally sustainable consumber behaviour in different countries.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes undertaken by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources.
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries
Ans. b
Explanation:
National Geographic and the international polling firm GlobeScan have just conducted their second annual study measuring and monitoring consumer progress toward environmentally sustainable consumption in 17 countries around the world.
Consumers in India, Brazil and China again scored the highest for green behavior among the countries included the Greendex survey -- and U.S. consumers again scored the worst.
45. Consider the following statement:
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called "taxol" is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson's disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book. A drug called "taxol" is obtained from Taxus tree is is a mitotic inhibitor used in cancer chemotherapy.
46. P, Q, R and S are four men R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R. P is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in respect of age and richness, respectively, as
(a) PQRS, RPSQ
(b) PRQS, RSPQ
(c) PRQS, RSQP
(d) PRSQ, RSPQ
Ans. b
Explanation:
Consider the following statement-
P is the oldest but not the poorest.
It excludes option c.
Consider the following next statement-
Q is older than S but not than P or R.
It excludes option a and d.
47. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?
(a) Temperature
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Pressure
Ans. c
Explanation:
Moving objects on the surface of the Earth experience a Coriolis force, and appear to veer to the right in the northern hemisphere, and to the left in the southern. The Earth's rotation causes Coriolis force. The Coriolis Effect strongly affects the large-scale oceanic and atmospheric circulation, leading to the formation of robust features like jet streams and western boundary currents.
48. Indiscriminate disposal of used flouorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white
(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultra-violet radiations.
(c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultra-violet energy into visible light
(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps
Ans. b
Explanation:
Compact fluorescent bulbs are made of glass tubes filled with gas and a small amount of mercury. CFLs produce light when the mercury molecules are excited by electricity running between two electrodes in the base of the bulb. The mercury emits ultraviolet light, which in turn excites the tube’s phosphor coating, leading it to emit visible light.
49. If there were no Himalayan ranges. Which would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvival soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Himalayan ranges effectively intercept the summer monsoons coming from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea and cause precipitation in the form of rain or snow. They also prevent the cold continental air masses of central Asia from entering into India. The great rivers and their tributaries carry enormous quantities of alluvium. This is deposited in the Great Plain of North India in the form of fertile soils. It is therefore, often said it is Gift of the Himalayas.
50. In the context of space technology, what is "Bhuvan", recently in the news?
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India.
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of India.
(d) A space telescope developed by India.
Ans. c
Explanation:
ISRO launched the beta version of its web-based 3-D satellite imagery tool, Bhuvan, on August 12, 2009. Bhuvan will offer superior imagery of Indian locations compared to other Virtual Globe software with spatial resolutions ranging from 10 m to 100 m.
51. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradehs
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans. a
Explanation:
See any Atlas.
52. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days the basket was ¼th full?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 17
(d) 22
Ans. d
Explanation:
Available soon
53. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1:3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started. How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 1.5
Ans. c
Explanation:
Available soon
54. The difference between the interest received from two bank Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. is the difference between their rate
(a) 0.25%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d) 2.5%
Ans. a
Explanation:
Available soon
55. When ten persons shake hands with another, in how many ways is possible?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 40
(d) 45
Ans. d
Explanation:
Available soon
56. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them he obtained 60% in the test and questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 20
Ans. d
Explanation:
Available soon
57. In how many ways can four children make to stand in a line such that two of them. A and B are always together?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Ans. b
Explanation:
Available soon
58. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What south become?
(a) North
(b) North-east
(c) North-west
(d) West
Ans. b
Explanation:
While rotating the map , answer can be fined.
59. Consider the following statements:
1. The "Bombay Manifesto" signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Available soon
60. Among following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
Ans. a
Explanation:
Acharya Nāgārjuna was an Indian philosopher who founded the Madhyamaka school of Mahāyāna Buddhism.
61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Nitrous oxide is produced naturally in soils through the microbial processes of denitrification and nitrification. These natural emissions of N2O can be increased by a variety of agricultural practices and activities, including the use of synthetic and organic fertilizers. The greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide , water vapours, carbon particles etc. Growing rice has an adverse environmental impact because of the large quantities of methane gas it generates.
62. Sustaionable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?
(a) Social justice and empowerment
(b) Inclusive Growth
(c) Globalization
(d) Carrying capacity
Ans. d
Explanation:
The carrying capacity of a biological species in an environment is the population size of the species that the environment can sustain indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available in the environment. Thus Sustaionable development is intertwined with Carrying capacity.
63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower
Ans. b
Explanation:
In India production of alcohol apart from molasses & sugarcane route the non-molasses route like maize, starch, corn grain, sweet sorghum, tapioca, sugar beet are also equally getting importance as the climatic conditions for such type of agricultural crops suits in India.
64. Consider the following pairs:
Protected area Well-known for
1. Bhiterkanika Salt water
Orissa Crocodile
2. Desert Great Indian
National Park Bustard
Rajasthan
3. Eravikulam, Hoolak Gibbon
Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
A huge population of saltwater crocodiles is present within the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary of Orissa and they are known to be present in smaller numbers throughout the Indian and Bangladesh portions of the Sundarbans. Great Indian Bustard is mostly found in the Gujrat, Madhya Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and West Rajasthan. It is mainly spotted in the the Desert National Park (Rajasthan) and the Lala-Parjau sanctuary in western Kutch (Gujarat). Hoolock Gibbons are found in several states of North East India - Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Nagaland.
65. Some species of plants are insectivorous Why?
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and theus they depend on insects for nutrition
(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
(c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them
(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs
Ans.
Explanation:
Insectivorous plants are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
66. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot?
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 40 km
Ans. b
Explanation:
Available soon
67. In the context of governance, consider the following:
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offoading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. b (Economic Survey 2009-10 page -38)
Explanation:
"To bring the fiscal deficit under control, the government will initiate institutional reform measures which will encompass all aspects of budget such as subsidies, taxes, expenditure and disinvestment".
68. As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Latin America and Caribbean
(d) North America
Ans. a
Explanation:
As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements 2009 has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades.
69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
Ans. c
Explanation:
Montane Wet Temperate Forest-3.6%
Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest2.5%
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest-37%
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest-8%
70. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following:
(a) Reduction of poverty
(b) Extension of employment opportunities
(c) Strengthening of capital market
(d) Reduction of gender inequality
Ans. c
Explanation:
Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan includes reduction of poverty, extension of employment opportunities and reduction of gender inequality.
71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?
(a) 313
(b) 341
(c) 686
(d) 786
Ans. c
Explanation:
Available soon
72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-make cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Red soil is the predominant type of soil in the State. Rich pool of skilled labour is main reason for high production of mill-make cotton yarn.
73. Consider the following statements:
1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Only 2.75 percent of the water on Earth is freshwater, about two-thirds of it is frozen in glaciers, a quarter is groundwater and only 0.005 percent of it is surface water.
Less than 1 percent of the world's freshwater is readily accessible.
74. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(a) Sand desert
(b) Paddy crop land
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) Praire land
Ans. c
Explanation:
The albedo of an object is a measure of how strongly it reflects light from light sources such as the Sun. Snow have a very high albedo and can be as high as 0.9. Because trees tend to have a low albedo, removing forests would tend to increase albedo and thereby could produce localized climate cooling. dry sand have low albedo (0.35) as copare to snow.
75. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are
(a) Beas and Chenab only
(b) Beas and Ravi only
(c) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
(d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna
Ans. d
Explanation:
The drainage systems of Himachal Pradesh are the Chandra Bhaga or the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, the Sutlej and the Yamuna. These rivers are perennial and are fed by snow and rainfall.
76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans. a
Explanation:
Finnance commission submits its report to the president who lays it before both the House of Parliament along with an explanatory memmorandum as to the action taken on its recommendations.
77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans. b
Explanation:
DEA is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate and monitor country's economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management. A principal responsibility of this Department is the preparation of the Union Budget annually (excluding the Railway Budget).
78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and o not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who the professor?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) Cannot be determined with the available data
Ans. a
Explanation:
Available soon
79. Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the "fiscal stimulus" package?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a (Economic Survey 2009-10 17)
Explanation:
Steps:
1. Reducing indirect taxes (excise and service tax)
2. Expanding public expenditure
3. Debt relief and subsidies to farmers
80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are the literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate
(b) Some villagers under twenty five are literate
(c) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
(d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate
Ans. b
81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
(c) The Union government will have less money to lend
(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
Ans. a
Explanation:
This is the amount of money that the banks have to necessarily park with the RBI and reduces lending capacity of commercial banks.
82. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
Ans. c
Explanation:
Cornwallis created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service. A special feature of Covenanted Civil Service of India was the rigid and complete exclusion of Indians from it.
83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers
Ans. a
Explanation:
Swadeshi Movement emanated from the partition of bengal, 1905 and continued up to 1908. It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movements. Chief architects were Aurobindo Ghosh, Veer Savarkar, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Lala Lajpat Rai. The Swadeshi Jagaran Manch is an organisation committed to the promotion of Swadeshi (Indigenous) industries and culture.
84. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Rajkumar Shukla persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants. Accompanied by Babu Rajendra Prasad, J. B. Kripalani, Mahadev Desai Gandhijee reached Champaran and began to conduct a detailed inquiry.
85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District collector's efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector would be only a revenue collector
Ans. c
Explanation:
Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person and thus separated the post of the Civil Judge and the Collector.
86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Available soon
87. Each persons' performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?
(a) 66
(b) 55
(c) 54
(d) 45
Ans. c
Explanation:
Available soon
88. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation only
(d) Both conduction and radiation
Ans. b
Explanation:
In practice, the term "radiator" refers to any of a number of devices in which a fluid circulates through exposed pipes notwithstanding that such devices tend to transfer heat mainly by convection and might logically be called convectors.
89. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
Ans. c
Explanation:
GSM has a straightforward, cost-effective migration path to 3G through GPRS, EDGE and UMTS-HSPA, as well as beyond 3G via the HSPA Evolution (HSPA+), LTE and System Architecture Evolution (SAE) initiatives.
90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statement is not correct?
(a) It is robotic image guided system
(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation
(c) it has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy
(d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body
Ans. d
Explanation:
The CyberKnife is a frameless robotic radiosurgery system. The CyberKnife system is a method of delivering radiotherapy, with the intention of targeting treatment more accurately than standard radiotherapy.
Very good attempt . And is useful to IAS aspirants.Thanks for your work
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