UPSC Combined Geo-Scientist (Preliminary) Examination 2023 General Studies Paper with Key

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAM 2023 PAPER - I GENERAL STUDIES QUESTION PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

 

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAM 2023 PAPER - I GENERAL STUDIES QUESTION PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

 

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAM 2023 PAPER - I GENERAL STUDIES QUESTION PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

 

UPSC Enforcement Officers/Accounts Officers Recruitment Test (Exam Held on: 02-07-2023)

UPSC Civil Services Examination Prelims GS paper-1 Answer Key 2022

 

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION PAPER - I (GENERAL STUDIES) SOLVED PAPER - EXAM HELD ON: 10-10-2021

1. With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhutti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshwara were famous
a) Jain monks
b) Playwrights
c) temple architects
d) philosophers

Explanation:  Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered equal to the works of Kalidasa. With just this knowledge, aspirants could correctly arrive at the right answer.

2. Consider the following statements:

i) The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.
ii) The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:  Statement 1 is not correct. In fact, the Government of India Act, 1919, denied women the right to vote despite the All India Women’s Deputation led by Sarojini Naidu to Edwin Samuel Montague, the then Secretary of State, India.

Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

3. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by AICC
b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

4. Which among the following is associated with ‘’Songs from Prison’’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
d) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation:  Songs from Prison is a collection of songs and lyrics by Gandhi, written during his imprisonment in Yeravada Jail, Poona.

5. With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?
a) Paragana-Sarkar-Suba
b) Sarkar-Paragana-Suba
c) Suba-Sarkar-Paragana
d) Paragana-Suba-Sarkar

Explanation:   Mughal Empire was divided into Suba, Sarkar, Pargana and Village. However, the question is to arrange in ascending order in terms of size. So Option A is the correct answer.

6. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?
a) Annie Besant
b) Debendranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Sarojini Naidu

7. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillion are remembered as

a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946
c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
d) Officers of the Indian National Army

8. With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durani

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada River.
d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

10. Consider the following statements:
1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:  February 21 is International Mother Language Day first declared by UNESCO in 1999

11. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

12. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
a) Dholavira
b) Kalibangan
c) Rakhigarhi
d) Ropar

13. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?
1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

14. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?
1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabutis of Thanesar
4. The Yadavas of Devagiri
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 5 and 6

15. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagar Empire were experts in which of the following areas?
1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Pingali Venkaya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here.
c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
d) Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

17. Consider the following pairs:

Historical place : Well-known for

1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines
2. Chandra-ketugargh : Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts
Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements

1. It was during the reign of Iltumish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

19. Consider the following statements:

1. St.Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order
2. St.Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there
3. The Feast of St.Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father whereas, in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

21. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks.
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
d) Increase in the population of the country

22. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

23. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in primary market
2. The ‘’Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching’’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The ‘’Central Depository Services Ltd’’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

24. With reference to ‘’Water Credit”, consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

25. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘’lender of last resort’’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

26. ‘’R2 Code of Practices’’ constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of

a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry
b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention
c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources

27. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching pf some heavy metals into the environment
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

28. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

29. What is blue carbon?

a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

30. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

32. With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:

1. All casual workers are entitled for employees Provident Fund Coverage
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

34. Consider the following statements

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. Price of its substitute increases
2. Price of its complement increases
3. The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4. Its price falls

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3

35. With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following?

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4

38. Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2. Increase the foreign value of domestic currency
3. Improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

39. Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold etc.
c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

40. Which one of the following is likely to be one of the most inflationary in its effects?

a) Repayment of public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

41. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemon grass
d) Nut grass

42. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

43. Consider the following animals
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3

44. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
3. It is a legally binding international declaration
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5

45. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

46. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican

47. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle

48. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

49. The ‘’Common Carbon Metric’’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for

a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

50. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates
(a) The right to equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Right to freedom
(d) the Concept of Welfare

52. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(C) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right.

53. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

54. Constitutional government means.
(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(C) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

55. With reference to India, the terms ‘halbi, Ho and Kui” pertain to
(a) dance forms of Northwest India
(b) musical Instruments
(C) pre-historic cave paintings
(d) tribal languages

56. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.
(a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
(b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
(C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World
Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

58. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One ‘Players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
1. The official motto for the Olympics is ‘A New World’
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:
1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

62. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of panchayat Raj
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of tribal Affairs.

65.A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(C) Article 32
(d) Article 44

66.Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
(C) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

67. Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
(C) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

68. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

70. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(C) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers.

71. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.
Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites.
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and2
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5

Q72. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water I n polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q73. Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 5

Q74. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
(a) Brown forest soil
(b) Fissure volcanic rock
(c) Granite and schist
(d) Shale and limestone

Q75. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
Which of the statements given above is’/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q77. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
(a) Clonal propagation of crop plants
(b) Developing genetically modified crop plants
(c) Production of plant growth substances
(d) Production of biofertilizers

Q78. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?
1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Q79. Consider the following:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/ synthetic medium?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Q80. Consider the following statements:
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q81. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3

Q82 With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:
(a) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
(b) The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
(c) The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q83. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
(a) Chenab
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej

Q84. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of
(a) Glaciers
(b) Mangrove areas
(c) Ramsar sites
(d) Saline lakes

Q85. Consider the following Rivers:
1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

Q86. Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q87. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Sunflower
(c) Pearl millet
(d) Red gram

Q88. Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

Q89. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements, :
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Q90. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely descriptions of
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Dry deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Tropical rain forest

91. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because.
(a) It is dipolar in nature.
(b) It is a good conductor of heat
(c) It has high value of specific heat
(d) It is an oxide of hydrogen

92. With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?
1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3.The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

93. The term ‘ACE2” is talked about in the context of
(a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
(b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system
(c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
(d) spread of viral diseases

94. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?
(a) Low-density polyethylene
(b) Polycarbonate
(c) Polyethylene terephthalate
(d) Polyvinyl Chloride.

95. ‘Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
(a) Food preservatives
(b) Fruit ripening substances
(c) reused plastic containers
(d) Toiletries.

Q96. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distance are measured in light-years?
(a) Distance among stellar bodies do not change.
(b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
(c) Light always travels in straight line.
(d) Speed of light is always same.

Q97. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q98 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q99. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Q100. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Civil Service General Studies Preliminary General Studies Solved Paper (Exam Held on: 18-06-2017)

1. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements–
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 
2. Recently a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
(Ans : D)

2. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is / are correct? 
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus valley people knew only copper and iron. 
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 
(Ans : C)

3. 'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to– 
(A) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels 
(B) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes 
(C) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings 
(D) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme 
(Ans : D)

4. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? 
(A) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (B) Nallamala Forest 
(C) Nagarhole National Park (D) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve 
(Ans : A)

5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of– 
(A) Privileges (B) Restraints (C) Competition (D) Ideology 
(Ans : A)

6. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce / TRAFFIC)– 
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
(Ans : B)

7. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? 
(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women 
(B) Participation of workers in the management of industries 
(C) Right to work, education and public assistance 
(D) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers 
(Ans : B)

8. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens 
(B) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State 
(C) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State 
(D) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many 
(Ans : C)

9. Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world? 
(A) World Economic Forum (B) UN Human Rights Council 
(C) UN Women (D) World Health Organization 
(Ans : A)

10. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017 ? 
1. It is centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only 
(Ans : B) 

11. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister–
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (Ans : A)

12. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements–
1. It is a song and dance performance. 
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only (Ans : B)


 
13. Who among the following was / were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 
1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : C)

14. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is / are the advantage / advantages of bio-remediation technique? 
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create micro-organisms specifically designed for bioremediation. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for– 
(A) the participation of workers in the management of industries 
(B) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes 
(C) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute 
(D) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes (Ans : D)

16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in– 
(A) Federalism (B) Democratic decentralisation 
(C) Administrative delegation (D) Direct democracy (Ans : B)

17. Consider the following statements–
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon- 
1. Legislative function 
2. Executive function 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

18. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to–
(A) ASEAN (B) BRICS 
(C) EU (D) G-20 (Ans : C)

19. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometers and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at–
(A) Bhavnagar (B) Bheemunipatnam 
(C) Chandipur (D) Nagapattinam (Ans : C)

20. With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), consider the following statements–
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (Ans : B)

21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence / consequences ? 
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

22. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/ are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise / technology until the construction is completed. 
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : B)

23. Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission' ? 
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 3 and 4 only (Ans : A)

24. Consider the following statements–
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 
2. N. M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

25. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams. 
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs. 
3. Subterranean deep saline formations. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to–
(A) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments 
(B) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India 
(C) Impose censorship on national press 
(D) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States (Ans : D)

27. The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to–
(A) Developing solar power production in our country 
(B) Granting licences to foreign T. V. channels in our country 
(C) Exporting our food products to other countries 
(D) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country (Ans : A)

28. Consider the following statements–
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ? 
(A) Resident Indian citizens only  
(B) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only  
(C) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments 
(D) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 (Ans : C)

30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements–
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. 
Which of the statements above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : B)

31. Consider the following statements–
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

32. Consider the following statements–
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAa). 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

33. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme? 
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

34. With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements–
1.It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

35. According to the Wildlife (Protection), Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 
1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

36. Which of the following statements is/ are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 
2. They are correlative to legal duties. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

37. Consider the following pairs: 
1. Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association 
2. Gazulu Lekshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 
3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association 
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? 
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : B) 

38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 
(A) Liberty of thought (B) Economic liberty 
(C) Liberty of expression (D) Liberty of belief (Ans : B)

39. With reference to 'Quality Council of India' (QCI), consider the following statements: 
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 
1. To supply credit to small business units. 
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers. 
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : A)

41. With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD), consider the following statements–
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms' -Policy Responses and Governance Structure. ' 
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APECASEAN. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

42. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity–
(A) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women 
(B) the methods for strengthening executive leadership 
(C) a superior individual with dynamism and vision 
(D) a band of dedicated party workers (Ans : A)

43. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface' (UP!) ? 
(A) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments 
(B) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades 
(C) FDI inflows will drastically increase 
(D) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective (Ans : A)

44. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of–
(A) Observation and understanding of the Universe 
(B) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses 
(C) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth 
(D) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth (Ans : A)

45. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identity genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that–
(A) the executive and legislature work independently 
(B) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient 
(C) the executive remains responsible to the legislature 
(D) the head of the government cannot be changed without election (Ans : C)

47. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? 
(A) Rights are correlative with Duties 
(B) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties 
(C) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen 
(D) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State (Ans : A) 

48. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? 
(A) The Preamble (B) The Fundamental Rights 
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy (D) The Fundamental Duties (Ans : A)

49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination? 
(A) 6 (B) 7 
(C) 8 (D) 9 (Ans : B)

50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through–
1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions 
Select the correct answer using the code given below- 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D) 

51. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? 
(A) Kakinada (B) Motupalli 
(C) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) (D) Nelluru (Ans : B)
 
52. With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is / are correct? 
1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : A) 

53. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements— 
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of J ainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : B)

54. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? 
1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only (Ans : C)

55. With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund' which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2  (Ans : D)

56. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an— 
(A) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank. 
(B) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partner ships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. 
(C) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the GECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment 
(D) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world. (Ans : B)

57. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by— 
(A) anyone residing in India 
(B) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested 
(C) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency 
(D) any citizen of India (Ans : C)

58. Consider the following statements : 
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only (Ans : B)

59. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for— 
(A) Measuring oxygen levels in blood 
(B) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems 
(C) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems 
(D) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions (Ans : C)

60. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is / are correct? 
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 
3. Un-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only (Ans : B)

61. With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), which of the statements given below is / are correct? 
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQP is the mobility between vocational and general education. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : B)

62. In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to— 
(A) Division of the central legislature into two houses 
(B) Introduction of double government i. e. , Central and State governments 
(C) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi 
(D) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories (Ans : D)

63. Consider the  following in respect of 'National Career Service'— 
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunifies to uneducated youth of the country. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

64. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)' recently seen in the news? 
(A) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government 
(B) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties 
(C) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings 
(D) It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bank-ruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government (Ans : B)

65. Consider the following statements: 
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries 
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : B)

66. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole' (IOD) sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/ are correct? 
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : B) 

67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? 
(A) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (B) Chambal River 
(C) Pulicat Lake (D) Deepor Beel (Ans : B)

68. Consider the following is respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)— 
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : B)

69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintingsat— 
(A) Ajanta (B) Badami 
(C) Bagh (D) Ellora (Ans : A)

70. Consider the following pairs: 
Traditions1. Chaliha Sahib Festival 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra 3. Wari-Warkari
Communities 1. Sindhis 2. Gonds 3. Santhals 

Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

71. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land. 
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : C)

72. Consider the following statements: 
The nation—wide 'Soil Health  Card Scheme' aims at— 
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. 
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : B) 

73. Consider the following pairs: 
Commonly used consumed materials
1. Lipstick 2. Soft drinks 3. Chinese fast food
Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 
1. Lead 2. Brorninated vegetable oils 3. Monosodium glutamate 

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal display? 
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLED. 
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the above statements is correct (Ans : C)

75. Which of the following is / are famous for Sun temples? 
1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : A) 

76. Consider the following statements: 
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

77. Which of the following has/have  occurred in India after its liberalization 0 f economic policies in 1991 ? 
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 
2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased. 
3. FDI inflows increased. 
4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below— 
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Ans : B)

78. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? (A) Production of biolarvicides (B) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics 
(C) Reproductive cloning of animals (D) Production of organisms free of diseases (Ans : C)

79. Consider the following statements: 
1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financi:al inclusion in the country. 
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : C)

80. The term 'M—STrIPES' is some times seen in the news in the context of— 
(A) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna (B) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves 
(C) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System (D) Security of National Highways (Ans : B)

81. What is / are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)? 
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 
2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : A)

82. 'Broad—based Trade and Investment Agreement / (BTIA) is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and— (A) European Union (B) Gulf Cooperation Council 
(C) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (D) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (Ans : A)

83. Consider the following statements: 
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) ofWTO. 
2. TF A is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 
3. TFA came into force in January 2016. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : A)

84. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? 
(A) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase. 
(B) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. 
(C) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. 
(D) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India (Ans :C)

85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 
1. Service providers 2. Data centres 
3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only 
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a— 
(A) Fundamental Right (B) Natural Right 
(C) Constitutional Right (D) Legal Right (Ans : D)

87. Laser Interferometer Space Antenna' (eLISA) project? 
(A) To detect neutrinos 
(B) To detect gravitational waves 
(C) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system 
(D) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems (Ans : B)

88. What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana' ? 
1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 2 only 
(B) 3 only 
(C) 1 and 2 only 
(D) 2 and 3 only (Ans : A)

89. What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan' ? 
(A) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities 
(B) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies 
(C) Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power 
(D) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. (Ans : B)

90. Consider the following statements: 
1. The Election Commission of India is a five—member body. 
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits / mergers of recognised political parties. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only 
(B) 2 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only 
(D) 3 only (Ans : D)

91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (A) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger 
(B) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction 
(C) It is endemic to a particular region of India 
(D) Both (B) and (C) stated above are correct in this context (Ans : A)

92. In India, Judicial Review implies— 
(A) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders 
(B) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures 
(C) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President 
(D) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases (Ans : A)

93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events— 
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy. 
2. Quit India Movement launched. 
Second Round Table Conference. 
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3 
(C) 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 2, 1 (Ans : C)

94. Consider the following statements: 
1. Tax revenue as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 
2. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

95. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (A) Corbett National Park (B) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary 
(C) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (D) Sariska National Park (Ans : B)

96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly. 
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State. 
3. Dissolution of the local bodies. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : B)

97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 
2. Abolition of untouchability. 
3. Protection of the interests of minorities. 
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below— 
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Ans : C)

98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ? 
(A) Sumatra (B) Borneo 
(C) Java (D) Sri Lanka (Ans : A)

99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government— (A) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all 
(B) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day 
(C) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people 
(D) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold cover the people is in a state of decline (Ans : B)

100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? 
(A) There is an independent judiciary in India 
(B) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States 
(C) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha 
(D) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units (Ans : D)