(a) Tax rates and tax revenue
(b) Tax rates and employment
(c) Tax rates and income
(d) Tax rates and government expenditure
Ans. (a)
2. What does an increase in the ratio of revenue deficit to gross fiscal deficit indicate?
(a) An increase in investment
(b) An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for revenue purposes
(c) An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for imports
(d) An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for lending
Ans. (b)
3. If in a year, the gross fiscal deficit of government is Its. 3,00,000 crores, revenue deficit is Rs. 1,50,000 crores and interest payments are Rs. 80,000 crores, which is the primary deficit of the government in the year?
(a) Rs. 23,000 crores
(b) Rs. 45,000 crores
(c) Rs 70,000 crores
(d) Rs. 2, 20,000 crores
Ans. (d)
4. Which of the following may not be considered as a merit of the opportunity cost theory over the Ricardian theory of comparative cost?
(a) It takes into account two or more factors of production instead of labour theory of value
(b) It takes into account the possibilities of trade under all the laws of production, instead of constant costs only as in the Ricardian theory
(c) The theory provides a theoretical framework for general equilibrium approach
(d) The theory considers the welfare point of view neglected by the Ricardian theory
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Heckscher-Ohlin theory states that the most important cause of trade is the difference in:
(a) preferences
(b) technology
(c) magnitude
(d) factor endowments
Ans. (d)
6. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Leontief Paradox makes
(a) a critical analysis of Haberler theory of opportunity cost
(b) an empirical study of factor-price equalization theory of Samuelson
(c) an empirical testing of Mills theory of reciprocal demand
(d) an empirical testing of Heckscher-Ohlin theory of international trade
Ans. (d)
7. What is the theory that opening a country to world markets gives an opportunity to utilize unemployed and underemployed resources known as?
(a) Ricardian theory
(b) Heckscher-Ohlin theory
(c) Vent-for surplus theory
(d) Strategic trade theory
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following are the basic components of typical IMP stabilization programme?
A. Liberalization of foreign exchange.
B. Devaluation of the official exchange rate.
C. A comprehensive anti-inflation programme.
D. General opening-up of the economy to international commerce including foreign
investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A and C
(b) B and D
(c) A, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans. (d)
9. Which one of the following best characterizes the Bretton Woods System of exchange rates?
(a) Adjustable fixed exchange rates
(b) Fixed e rates
(c) Adjustable pegged exchange rates
(d) Pegged, exchange rates
Ans. (b)
10. Which of the following is the highest form of economic integration among different nations?
(a) Custom Union
(b) Free Trade Area
(c) Economic Union
(d) Common Market
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following explains balance-of-payment adjustment mechanism under the gold standard?
(a) Devaluation
(b) Flexible exchange rates
(c) Income-adjustment mechanism
(d) Price-specie flow mechanism
Ans. (d)
12. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The distinction between expenditure switching and expen4iture changing was propounded by FL U. Johnson
(b) The Absorption Approach to BOP was developed by Sydney Alexander
(c) The Elasticity Approach to BOP was associated with Stolper – Samuelson
(d) Stability condition in the foreign exchange market is known as Marshall – Lerne condition
Ans. (c)
13. In the Balance-of-Payment Account, the transfer payments are included in which one of the following?
(a) Current account
(b) Service account
(c) Capital account
(d) Official reserves account
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following is not a non-tariff barrier?
(a) Voluntary export restraint
(b) Health and product standards
(c) Environmental protection laws
(d) Ad-valorem duties
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The production possibility curve under increasing
opportunity cost is
(a) concave to the origin
(b) convex to the origin
(c) a straight line parallel to the x – axis
(d) a straight line parallel to the y – axis
Ans. (a)
16. Match List -I (Terms of Trade) with List- II (Explanation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Terms of Trade) (Explanation)
A. Gross barter terms of trade 1.The ratio between the quantity of a country’s
imports and exports
B. Income terms of trade 2. (Index of export prices)
x (export quantity)
Index of import prices
C. Single factoral terms of trade 3. Obtained by multiplying the commodity terms of
trade by an index of productivity
changes in domestic export industries
4. The ratio of a country’s export price index to its
import price index
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
17. Under which one of the following fundamental assumptions, Solow was able to show that steady state growth was possible and stable?
(a) Flexible JVL ratio
(b) Flexible S/Y ratio
(c) Constant growth-rate of population
(d) Constant rate of technical change
Ans. (a)
18. Match List -I (Concept) with List -II (Explanation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List- II
(Concept) (Explanation)
A. Vicious circle of poverty 1. Massive increase in investment to initiate economic
development in LDC’s
B. Balanced growth 2. A stagnant low level of investment
C. Big push 3. Simultaneous investment in all inter-related industries
Code:
A B C
(a) 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 2
Ans. (a)
19. Who among the following developed the Wage-Goods model?
(a) M. Dobb
(b) A. K. Sen
(c) Vakil and Brahmananda
(d) P C. Mahalanobis
Ans. (c)
20. Using Flarrod-Domar growth equation. What is the rate of growth of a closed economy with C/Y = 3/4and AK / ÀY = 3 where, C = consumption, Y =output, K =
capital?
(a) 8.66%
(b) 8.50%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 7.50%
Ans. (c)
21. Match List -I (Economist) with List– II (Concept/Theory) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List- I List-II
(Economist) (Concept/Theory)
A. Ragner Nurkse 1. Backwash effects
B. Paul N. Rosenstein Rodan 2. Theory of balanced growth
C. Gunnar Myrdal 3. The big push theory
D. A.O. Hirschxnan 4. Theory of unbalanced growth
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (c)
22. Match List I (Property of -a Plan) with List II (Model Used) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I List -II
(Property of a Plan) (Model used)
A. Feasibility 1. Input-output model
B. Consistency 2. Linear programming
C. Optimality 3. Harrod- Domar type
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2
Ans. (b)
23. What is the technical progress that increases the productivity of labour (L) proportionately more than the productivity of capital (K) and results in an increase in L/K at constant relative factor prices, called?
(a) Labour saving technical progress
(b) Natural technical progress
(c) Wage saving technical progress
(d) Capital-saving technical progress
Ans. (d)
24. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
A. Aggregate Growth Model 1. Western models as applied to the
situation of developing countries
B. Multi-sector Growth Model 2. Analysis of growth in terms of inter-
dependence of sectors
C. Harrod-Domar Growth Model 3. Deals with the entire economy by
examining a set of important macro
variables
D. The False Paradigm Model 4. For a specific growth-rate and a given
capital output ratio, the required rate of
domestic investment is determined
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (c)
25. Consider the following statements:
Lewis’ model of development with unlimited supplies of labour will fail to work to the full extent if:
A. there is no disguised unemployment in the traditional sector.
B. modem sector wages do not remain constant up to the point that surplus labour is exhausted.
C. investment in the modern sector is labour-saving.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (c)
26. Which one of the following models explains the paradox pertaining to the rural-urban migration in the context of rising urban employment?
(a) Lewis model
(b) Todano model
(c) Solow model
(d) Mahalanobis model
Ans. (b)
27. The Mahalanobis model was developed for which of the following plans?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan
Ans. (b)
28- What is the correct sequence of the following approaches to development in terms of their chronological emergence?
A. Basic needs approach.
B Per capita income approach.
C. Human development index approach.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, A, C
(c) B, C, A
(d) A, C, B
Ans. (b)
29. On which of the following grounds is increasing inequality justified in initial stages of development?
(a) It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater average propensity to consume
(b) It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater average propensity to save
(c) It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater marginal propensity to consume
(d) It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater marginal propensity to save
Ans. (a)
30. Which of the following is meant by growth in the context of growth and development?
(a) Growth of gross national product in money terms
(b) Growth of per capita income in money terms
(c) Growth of gross national product in real terms
(d) Growth of per capita income in real terms
Ans. (c)
31. What is the ratio between the price of a country’s export goods and price of its import goods known as?
(a) Single factoral terms of trade
(b) Double factoral terms of trade
(c) Net barter terms of trade
(d) Income terms of trade
Ans. (c)
32. The two gaps in a two-gap model refer to which of the following?
A. Revenue expenditure gap
B. Saving investment gap
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of indicative planning?
(a) The government sets targets for all sectors of the economy including those dominated by private enterprises
(b) The emphasis is on consistency of the targets with each other
(c) Given the consistency of targets with each other, the government directs the private enterprises to attain those targets
(d) The government provides the right incentives to the private sector to attain the targets
Ans. (b)
34. If median and mode of a set of observations are 20.6 and 26 respectively, then what is the value of mean of the observation?
(a) 16
(b) 17.9
(c) 18.4
(d) 19
Ans. (b)
35. Lorenz curve enables one to study which of the following?
(a) Averages
(b) Dispersion
(c) Correlation
(d) Index numbers
Ans. (b)
36. Which one of the following is correct for a normal distribution?
(a) Standard deviation > Mean deviation> Quartile deviation
(b) Quartile deviation > Mean deviation > Standard deviation
(c) Mean deviation> Standard deviation > Quartile deviation
(d) Quartile deviation > Mean deviation > Standard deviation
Ans. (a)
37. Coefficient of correlation is independent of which of the following?
(a) Change of origin only
(b) Change of scale only
(c) Change of origin and scale
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
38. The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) has been renamed as which one of the following?
(a) Command Area Development and Water Management Programme
(b) Command Area Development and Forest Conservation Programme
(c) Command Area Development and Pollution Control Programme
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
39. Which one of the following indices satisfies both time reversal and factor reversal tests?
(a) Laspeyre’s index number
(b) Fischer’s index number
(c) Paasche’s index number
(d) Kelly index number
Ans. (b)
40. Which one of the following index numbers is based on geometric mean?
(a) Laspeyre’s index number
(b) Fischer’s index number
(c) Paasche’s index number
(d) Bowley’s index number
Ans. (b)
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