1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: (Answer : b)
It is based on renewable resources like sugar, molasses, rice, corn and potato starches.
It reduces urban heat islands.
2. Consider the following
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : d)
By products of power thermal plant operation need to be considered in both the design and operation. Waste heat due to the finite efficiency of the power cycle must be released to the atmosphere, using a cooling tower, or river or lake water as a cooling medium. The flue gas from combustion of the fossil fuels is discharged to the air; this contains carbon dioxide and water vapour, as well as other substances such as nitrogen, nitrogen oxides, sulfur oxides, and (in the case of coal-fired plants) fly ash, mercury and traces of other metals. Solid waste ash from coal-fired boilers must also be removed. Some coal ash can be recycled for building materials.
3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth‘s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22.236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation (Answer : d)
A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary Earth Orbit - GEO) is a geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth’s equator (0° latitude), with a period equal to the Earth’s rotational period and an orbital eccentricity of approximately zero.
An object in a geostationary orbit appears motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to ground observers. Communications satellites and weather satellites are often given geostationary orbits, so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky where they stay. Due to the constant 0° latitude and circularity of geostationary orbits, satellites in GEO differ in location by longitude only.
It is the part of space about 35,786 km (22,000 mi) above sea level, in the plane of the equator, where near-geostationary orbits may be implemented.
Geostationary orbits are useful because they cause a satellite to appear stationary with respect to a fixed point on the rotating Earth, allowing a fixed antenna to maintain a link with the satellite. The satellite orbits in the direction of the Earth’s rotation, at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi) above ground, producing an orbital period equal to the Earth’s period of rotation, known as the sidereal day.
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reason?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation (Answer : b)
Source : Economic Survey page no. 10, i.e. Our production in the last 4 years has increased except 2009 - 10.
5. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
All human disease cannot be cured.
6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Production
(d) Consumption
Explanation: {Answer (a) or (d) }
Mostly it will be (a) because it brings foreign exchange. 7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
The idea of using microbial cells in an attempt to produce electricity was first conceived at the turn of the nineteenth century. M.C. Potter was the first to perform work on the subject in 1911. A microbial fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy by the catalytic reaction of microorganisms.
A typical microbial fuel cell consists of anode and cathode compartments separated by a cation (positively charged ion) specific membrane. In the anode compartment, fuel is oxidized by microorganisms, generating electrons and protons. Electrons are transferred to the cathode compartment through an external electric circuit, while protons are transferred to the cathode compartment through the membrane. Electrons and protons are consumed in the cathode compartment, combining with oxygen to form water.
More broadly, there are two types of microbial fuel cell: mediator and mediator-less microbial fuel cells.
Since the current generated from a microbial fuel cell is directly proportional to the energy content of wastewater used as the fuel, an MFC can be used to measure the solute concentration of wastewater (i.e. as a biosensor system).
The strength of wastewater is commonly evaluated as biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) values.
8. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the fiscal stimulus ?
(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country.
(c) It is Government‘s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Governments use fiscal policy to influence the level of aggregate demand in the economy, in an effort to achieve economic objectives of price stability, full employment, and economic growth. Keynesian economics suggests that increasing government spending and decreasing tax rates are the best ways to stimulate aggregate demand. This can be used in times of recession or low economic activity as an essential tool for building the framework for strong economic growth and working towards full employment. In theory, the resulting deficits would be paid for by an expanded economy during the boom that would follow; this was the reasoning behind the New Deal.
Governments can use a budget surplus to do two things: to slow the pace of strong economic growth, and to stabilize prices when inflation is too high. Keynesian theory posits that removing spending from the economy will reduce levels of aggregate demand and contract the economy, thus stabilizing prices.
Economists debate the effectiveness of fiscal stimulus. The argument mostly centers on crowding out, a phenomenon where government borrowing leads to higher interest rates that offset the stimulative impact of spending. When the government runs a budget deficit, funds will need to come from public borrowing (the issue of government bonds), overseas borrowing, or monetizing the debt. When governments fund a deficit with the issuing of government bonds, interest rates can increase across the market, because government borrowing creates higher demand for credit in the financial markets. This causes a lower aggregate demand for goods and services, contrary to the objective of a fiscal stimulus. Neoclassical economists generally emphasize crowding out while Keynesians argue that fiscal policy can still be effective especially in a liquidity trap where, they argue, crowding out is minimal.
9. The formation of ozone hold I the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Methane is not responsible for ozone hole, its only responsible for Global Warming.
The chemistry of the Antarctic polar vortex has created severe ozone depletion. The nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which catalyzes the photochemical destruction of ozone. Chlorine concentrations build up during the winter polar night, and the consequent ozone destruction is greatest when the sunlight returns in spring (September/October). These clouds can only form at temperatures below about -80°C. Since these temperatures are rarely reached in the Arctic, ozone depletion at the north pole is much less severe than at the south. Accordingly, the seasonal reduction of ozone levels over the Arctic is characterized as an “ozone dent,” whereas the more severe ozone depletion over the Antarctic is considered an “ozone hole
10. Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Explanation (Answer : d)
Enhancing the subsidy will be the right choice rather than reducing it.
11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State4 Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer : c
District planning committee comes under 74th Amendment not in 73rd Amendment.
12. Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha – merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the Sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India’s Orissa state. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area of 650 km² in the river delta of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are home to 55 of India’s 58 known mangrove species. The mangroves harbor one of India’s largest populations of saltwater crocodiles, and Gahirmatha Beach, which separates the mangroves from the Bay of Bengal, is the world’s most important nesting beach for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Some wildlife experts are of the opinion that the largest saltwater crocodile ever was in Bhitarkanika, measuring an estimated 23 feet (7.0 m) which could be traced from the skull preserved by the Kanika Royal Family
13. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the base effect . What is base effect ?
(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops.
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Explanation : Answer : c
14. India is regarded as a country with Demographic Dividend . This is due to
(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years.
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years.
(d) Its high total population
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines
15. Regarding carbon credits , which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota.
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission.
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United nations Environment Programme.
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Under the Kyoto Protocol, the ‘caps’ or quotas for Greenhouse gases for the developed Annex 1 countries are known as Assigned Amounts and are listed in Annex
B. The quantity of the initial assigned amount is denominated in individual units, called Assigned amount units (AAUs), each of which represents an allowance to emit one metric tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent, and these are entered into the country’s national registry
Developed country can ‘sponsor’ a greenhouse gas reduction project in a developing country where the cost of greenhouse gas reduction project activities is usually much lower, but the atmospheric effect is globally equivalent. The developed country would be given credits for meeting its emission reduction targets, while the developing country would receive the capital investment and clean technology or beneficial change in land use.
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of Value Added Tax ?
(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation.
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain.
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.
Explanation : (Answer : d)
VAT is the State Subject.
17. A closed economy is an economy in which
(a) The money supply is fully controlled
(b) Deficit financing takes place
(c) Only exports take place
(d) Neither exports nor imports take place
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Closed Economy Means :
An economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economies. A closed economy is elf-sufficient, meaning that no imports are brought in and no exports are sent out. The goal is to provide consumers with everything that they need from within the economy’s borders.
18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because
(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.
(b) Roots are starved of energy.
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes.
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Phloem layer of tissue just below the bark is responsible for carrying food from leave to roots.
19. The New START treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation.
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit.
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation.
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade.
Explanation : Answer : a
20. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions.
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Explanation : (Answer : c)
The total number of plants that are endemic to an area is one of the two primary criteria for determining biodiversity hotspot status. To be designated as a hotspot, an area must have at least 1,500 species of endemic plants. Many hotspots exceed this number by thousands. Sundaland and the Tropical Andes, for example, each have 15,000 endemic plants. In total, hotspots hold at least 150,000 plants as endemics, representing a remarkable 50 percent of the world‘s vascular plant species. This is an absolute minimum, because it does not include species that are endemic to the combined area of two or more hotspots.
Another form of measurement, which is perhaps a better indicator of the importance of a particular hotspot, is the percentage of endemic plants compared to a hotspot‘s total plant diversity. For example, among the 13,000 plants species found in Madagascar and the Indian Ocean Islands, 11,600 are endemics, a remarkable 89 percent. These data are given in each of the individual hotspot sections
21. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere , but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Since CO2 is heavier than Air, it sinks in ocean than moving up. Also, during winter, it is observed that CO2 is trapped in ice caps.
22. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by brining the
1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation : Answer : b
23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability.
(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.
Explanation : Answer : a
24. The Himalyan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which h one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth.
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones.
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region.
(d) It has less human interference.
Explanation : Answer : b
25. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947.
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation), 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Act
Explanation : Answer : c
26. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?
(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin‘s theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
Explanation : Answer : d
27. A layer in the Earth‘s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
1. The presence of ozone caused the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: (Answer : d)
Presence of Ionized materials in Ionosphere is the prime reason for radio wave communication.
28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital.
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market.
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.
Explanation : Answer : b
29. A generally engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities.
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
Explanation : Answer : a
30. With reference to Aam Admi Bima Yojana . Consider the following statements :
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless house-hold.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Beneficiaries Age group is 19 – 59.
31. In the context of global oil prices, Brent crude oil is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
It contains sulphur which is even higher than WTI crude oil.
32. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor.
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction.
Explanation : Answer : a
33. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community of Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister‘s 15-Point Programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Minority education institution has the power to reserve only upto 50% seats for students belonging to its own community. (Supreme Court Judgement on St.Stephens College case, 1992, S.C.C. 558).
34. India is a home to lakhs of person with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer : d
35. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of Mega Food Parks ?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer : d
36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Explanation : Answer : b
37. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Explanation : Answer : c
38. Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the serlf- employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation : Answer : d
39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over pace and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?
(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War.
(b) Its location between the Asian Powers of China and India.
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period.
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.
Explanation : Answer : d
40. A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are above?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
No trans fats are essential fatty acids; indeed, the consumption of trans fats increases the risk of coronary heart disease by raising levels of “bad” LDL cholesterol and lowering levels of “good” HDL cholesterol. Health authorities worldwide recommend that consumption of trans fat be reduced to trace amounts. Trans fats from partially hydrogenated oils are more harmful than naturally occurring oils.
A type of trans fat occurs naturally in the milk and body fat of ruminants (such as cattle andsheep) at a level of 2–5% of total fat. Natural trans fats, which include conjugated linoleic acid(CLA) and vaccenic acid, originate in the rumen of these animals.
The primary health risk identified for trans fat consumption is an elevated risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). A comprehensive review of studies of trans fats was published in 2006 in the New England Journal of Medicine reports a strong and reliable connection between trans fat consumption and CHD, concluding that “On a per-calorie basis, trans fats appear to increase the risk of CHD more than any other macronutrient, conferring a substantially increased risk at low levels of consumption (1 to 3% of total energy intake)”
Unsaturated fat is a fat molecule containing one or more double bonds between the carbon atoms. Since the carbons are double-bonded to each other, there are fewer bonds connected to hydrogen, so there are fewer hydrogen atoms, hence “unsaturated”. Cis and trans are terms that refer to the arrangement of chains of carbon atoms across the double bond. The process of hydrogenation adds hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fats, eliminating double bonds and making them into partially or completely saturated fats. However, partial hydrogenation, if it is chemical rather than enzymatic, converts a part of cis-isomers into trans-unsaturated fats instead of hydrogenating them completely.
41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
Explanation : (Answer : d)
ELIGIBILITY FOR MNREGA
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme is open to all rural households in the areas notified by the Government of India. The entitlement of 100 days of guaranteed employment in a financial year is in terms of a household. This entitlement of 100 days per year can be shared within the household.
All adult members of the household who registered can apply for work. To register, they have to:-
Be local residents local implies residing within the gram panchayat.
Be willing to do un-skilled manual work.
Apply as a household at the local gram panchayat.
SALIENT FEATURES OF THE ACT.
Adult members of a rural household, willing to do unskilled manual work, may apply for registration in writing or orally to the local Gram Panchayat.
The Gram Panchayat after due verification will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear the photograph of all adult members of the household willing to work under NREGA and is free of cost.
42. With reference to Look East Policy of India, consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian Affairs
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of cold War
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer : d
43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Explanation : Answer : d
44. Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To Safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals
Explanation : Answer : a
45. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Explanation : (Answer d)
The Commission shall make recommendations as to the following matters, namely :-
(i) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
(ii) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the States which are in need of assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues under article 275 of the Constitution for purposes other than those specified in the provisos to clause (1) of that article; and
(iii) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State.
46. Consider the following:
1. Right to education
2. Right to equal access to public service
3. Right to food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under Universal Declaration of Human Rights ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a declaration adopted by the United Nations General Assembly (10 December 1948 at Palais de Chaillot, Paris). The Declaration arose directly from the experience of the Second World War and represents the first global expression of rights to which all human beings are inherently entitled. It consists of 30 articles which have been elaborated in subsequent international treaties, regional human rights instruments, national constitutions and laws. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, theInternational Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two Optional Protocols.
Article 21
(1) Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives.
(2) Everyone has the right to equal access to public service in his country.
(3) The will of the people shall be the basis of the authority of government; this will shall be expressed in periodic and genuine elections which shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting procedures
Article 25
(1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and wellbeing of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control.
Article 26
(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit.
(2) Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms. It shall promote understanding, tolerance and friendship among all nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further the activities of the United Nations for the maintenance of peace.
(3) Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children
47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India: What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Like land plants, algae need certain things to grow – water, carbon dioxide, sunlight and nutrients. Carbon dioxide is plentiful in the marine environment, but sunlight and nutrients can be scarce. Sunlight is available near the surface of the water, so algae grow readily when they can remain near the surface. Nutrients are abundant in areas of run-off where water flows over land and picks up minerals that are then carried to the sea. Nutrients are also plentiful in areas where cool, deep, nutrient-rich waters are brought to the surface due to upwelling, tides or wind-driven mixing. When the algal cells get everything they need to grow, they can divide very rapidly and potentially create a bloom.
Surface runoff from farming, as well as urban runoff and runoff from the construction of roads, buildings, ports, channels, and harbours, can carry soil and particles laden with carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and minerals. This nutrient-rich water can cause fleshy algae and phytoplankton to thrive in coastal areas; known as algal blooms, which have the potential to create hypoxic conditions by using all available oxygen.
48. Consider the following
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Photosynthesis : Wrong - Photosynthesis by plants removes about 120 billion tons of carbon from the air per year, but plant decomposition returns about the same amount. Photosynthesis (synthesizing starches and sugars using light) is a main mechanism for cycling carbon by the biosphere.
CH2O represents a unit of organic matter; six of the CH2O unit would be C6H1206 which makes the simple sugar (glucose or fructose) and 11 of these units make C11H22O11, a more complex sugar, sucrose, formed by the combination of one glucose and one fructose. Thousands of glucose molecules combine to form a molecule of starch, or of cellulose. (Molecule examples) Thus photosynthesis takes the atmospheric carbon in CO2 and “fixes” it into the biosphere. The subsequent cycling of the carbon in the biomass is created.
Respiration : When the organic matter is oxidized through respiration, the reverse of photosynthesis takes place.
Respiration releases CO2 into the atmosphere. Respiration and photosynthesis occur at nearly equal rates over one year.
The sediments including fossil fuels.
Volcanic Ash: Volcanic eruptions and metamorphism release gases into the atmosphere. Volcanic gases are primarily water vapor, carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide. The carbon dioxide released is roughly equal to the amount removed by silicate weathering [citation needed]; so the two processes, which are the chemical reverse of each other, sum to roughly zero, and do not affect the level of atmospheric carbon dioxide on time scales of less than about 100,000 years.
Carbon moves into the atmosphere from decomposition of 1.organic matter, 2.respiration by living organisms, 3.combustion, 4.volcanic activity,5. burning fossil fuels, 6.degassing of waterbodies, etc.
49. Recently, the USA decided to support India‘s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the Australia Group and the Wassenaar Arrangement What is the difference between them?
1. The Australia Group is an imformal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding indentical objectives
2. The Australia group Comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the members countries of wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American Continents
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The principal objective of Australia Group participants‘ is to use licensing measures to ensure that exports of certain chemicals, biological agents, and dual-use chemical and biological manufacturing facilities and equipment, do not contribute to the spread of CBW. The Group achieves this by harmonising participating countries‘ national export licensing measures. The Wassenaar Arrangement was formally approved by 33 countries,including 27 of the 29 OECD Member countries, in July 1996. Prior to it‘s final adoption, the interim agreement was provisionally called the New Forum . The Wassenaar Arrangement is a collaboration of countries that defines a set of preliminary guidelines covering both armaments and sensitive dual-use goods and technologies which need to be fully implemented at the national level. It focuses on threats to international and regional peace and security by providing for greater openness through information sharing about arms, dual-use goods and technology transfers world-wide.
Australia Group Established in 1985 Membership: 41 Members — Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, European Union, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Kingdom, and United States.
{Of 41 Members Predominant Members are From Europe hence this part of statement is wrong}
Wassenaar Arrangement As of March 2009, the 40 participating states Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany,Greece,Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Republic of Korea, Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Kingdom and United States.
{ Of 40 members 33 are from American and European Union Hence Predominantly is correct)
50. The Surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water art its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Explanation : (Answer : d)
When temperature starts reducing in winter, lake water cools upto 4degree centegrade by convection as density increase with reduction in temp.On futher cooling, due to abnoamal expansion og water , density reduces & cold water remains at top .Then top layer frezees.Water being bad conductor of heat ,lake water below ice remains at 4 degrees & thus fishes sruvive in winter aslo
51. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The Indian wild ass also called khur, is a subspecies of the Onagernative to Southern Asia. The Indian wild ass, as with most other Asian wild ass subspecies, is quite different from theAfrican species. The coat is usually sandy, but varies from reddish grey, fawn, to pale chestnut. The Indian wild ass’s range once extended from western India, through Sindh and Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran. Today, its last refuge lies in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann of Kutch and its surrounding areas of the Greater Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat province.
The animal, however, is also seen in the districts of Surendranagar, Banaskantha, Mehsana, and other Kutch districts. Saline desert, grassland in arid zone and shrubland are its preferred homeland. It is unknown how the Indian wild ass disappeared from its former haunts in parts of western India and Pakistan, since the animal was never a hunting target of Indian Maharajas and colonial British officials of the British Raj. From 1958-1960, the wild ass became a victim of a disease known as surra, caused by Trypanosoma evansi and transmitted by flies, which caused a dramatic decline of its population in India. Besides disease, the ass’s other threats include habitat degradation due to salt activities, the invasion of the Prosopis juliflora shrub, and encroachment and grazing by the Maldhari.
52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is LaNina different from El Nino?
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer :d)
La Niña is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon that is the counterpart of El Niño as part of the broader El Niño-Southern Oscillation climate pattern. During a period of La Niña, the sea surface temperature across the equatorial Eastern CentralPacific Ocean will be lower than normal by 3–5 °C. In the United States.
A La Niña, on the other hand, is often beneficial for the monsoon, especially in the latter half. The La Niña that appeared in the Pacific in 2010 probably helped last year’s south-west monsoon end on the favourable note.
53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?
(a) Making Zamindar‘s position stronger vis-Ã -vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
Explanation : (Answer : d )
54. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
Explanation : (Answer : b)
True -On August 8, 1942 the Quit India Resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee (AICC). In a speech at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, Gandhi told Indians to follow non-violent civil disobedience. He told the masses to act as an independent nation.
Untrue - Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement in 1942, demanding immediate independence for India. The entire Congress leadership, and not merely at the national level, was put into confinement less than twenty-four hours after Gandhi’s speech, and the greater number of the Congress leaders were to spend the rest of the war in jail.
Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No. 468)
55. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?
(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
Explanation : (Answer : a )
Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No.45)
56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?
(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal Facilitated sea voyages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
57. What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi Devices?
(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The Statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
Explanation : (Answer : a )
Bluetooth networking transmits data via low-power radio waves. It communicates on a frequency of 2.45 gigahertz(actually between 2.402 GHz and 2.480 GHz, to be exact). Wi-Fi -IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing wireless local area network (WLAN) computer communication in the 2.4, 3.6 and 5 GHz frequency bands.
Bluetooth is used for WLAN - Wrong : Wi-Fi is intended for resident equipment and its applications. The category of applications is outlined as WLAN, the wireless local area networks. Wi-Fi is intended as a replacement for cabling for general local area network access in work areas.
58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (a) or (c) , Most probably answer is (a).
59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, Home Charges formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted Home Charges ?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in London
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c )
60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
However, a famine had struck the district and a large part of Gujarat, and virtually destroyed the agrarian economy. The poor peasants had barely enough to feed themselves, but the British government of the Bombay Presidency insisted that the farmers not only pay full taxes, but also pay the 23% increase stated to take effect that very year.
61. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation : (Answer d)
Biological diversity helps in the formation and maintenance of soil structure and the retention of moisture and nutrient levels. The loss of biological diversity through clearing of vegetation has contributed to the salinisation of soils, leaching of nutrients, laterisation of minerals and accelerated erosion of topsoil, reducing the land’s productivity. Trees, on the other hand, lower the water table and remove deposited salt from the upper soil horizons.
Soil protection by maintenance of biological diversity can preserve the productive capacity of the soil, prevent landslides, safeguard coastlines and riverbanks, and prevent the degradation of coral reefs and coastal fisheries by siltation.
Trees and other vegetation also assist in soil formation. A significant contribution is the introduction of organic matter through litter formation and the decay and regeneration of tiny fibrous roots, both of which facilitate microbial activity. Another contribution is through the effects of root systems which break up soil and rock leading to, amongst other things, penetration of water. Root systems also bring mineral nutrients to the surface through root uptake. Organic matter formed by the decay of tiny fibrous roots can also bind with minerals, such as iron and aluminium, which can reduce the potential deleterious effects of these minerals on other vegetation
Biodiversity supports ecosystem services including air quality, climate (e.g., CO2sequestration), water purification, pollination, and prevention of erosion
Biodiversity supports many ecosystem services that are often not readily visible. It plays a part in regulating the chemistry of our atmosphere and water supply. Biodiversity is directly involved inwater purification, recycling nutrients and providing fertile soils.
62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use ?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
Explanation : (Answer : d )
63. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Explanation : (Answer : c )
64. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp ?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Fluorescent lamps (light bulbs) work by passing electricity through mercury vapor, which in turn emits ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light is then absorbed by a phosphor coating inside the lamp, causing it to glow, or fluoresce.
CFLs typically have a rated lifespan of between 6,000 and 15,000 hours, A LED light bulb can be expected to last 25–30 years under normal use.
A single LED is a low-voltage solid state device and cannot be directly operated on standard AC current without some circuitry to control the voltage applied and the current flow through the lamp. A series diode and resistor could be used to control the voltage polarity and to limit the current, but this is inefficient since most of the applied voltage would be dropped as wasted heat in the resistor. LEDs are small, solid light bulbs which are extremely energy-efficient. New LED bulbs are grouped in clusters with diffuser lenses which have broadened the applications for LED use in the home.
65. Recently, oilzapper was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon compounds present in crude oil and oily sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by oil refineries) and converts them into harmless CO2 and water. The scientific term for the above-mentioned process is bioremediation. oilzapper’s uniqueness lies in the bio-friendly manner in which it detoxifies oily sludges and cleans up oil slicks.
66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive, and O positive. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
Explanation : (Answer : a )
67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, Unto this Last and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi ?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
Explanation : (Answer : b )
68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Usha Mehta (March 25, 1920 – August 11, 2000) was a renowned Gandhian and freedom fighter of India. She is also remembered for operationalizing the Congress Radio, also called the Secret Congress Radio, an underground radio station, which functioned for few months during the Quit India Movement of 1942. In 1998, the Government of India conferred on her Padma Vibhushan, the second highest civilian award of Republic of India.
69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD ?
1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Thickness BD is 1.1 mm while that of DVD is 1.2mm.
70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report ?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b )
71. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Around 800 species of orchids found in the northeast region.
72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation : (Answer : b )
73. Consider the following statements :
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Article 243ZE – Committee on Metropolitan Planning does not have a sole responsibility for implementing Government‘s sponsor schemes in metropolitan area.
74. What is the difference between vote-on-account and interim budget ?
1. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular Government, while an interim budget is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government‘s budget includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : c )
75. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grant loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country
Explanation : (Answer : c)
IMF is an Inter-Governmental organization that overseas the global financing system by following macro-economic policies of its member countries (187), in particular those with an impact on exchange rate mechanism and balance of payment.
76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots
Explanation : (Answer : d )
77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by
(a) Universal law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
Explanation : (Answer : d )
78. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land ?
(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
Explanation : (Answer : b )
79. The red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The red data book is contain only 8 lists of threatened plant and animal species.
80. Why is the offering of teaser loans by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Teaser loans are designed to attract a Home Loan borrower in seeking a new loan. These loans are a relatively low, fixed interest rate in initial 2 years, say around 8% - 8.5%. However from the third year onwards, the rates revert to a higher fixed or floating interest rates which could be subject to the then prevailing market rates.
SBI launched the Teaser Home Loan Scheme in February 2009.
RBI feels Floating rate Laons for a very long tenure pose a risk because it is not possible to predict interest for a very long period.
81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth
(a) Does not exist at such distance
(b) Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) Provides the necessary speed for its steady motion.
(d) Provides the necessary acceleration for its motion.
Explanation : (Answer : d )
82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements.
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Growth rate of GDP during recession years (2007-09) has decreased.
Growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last 5 years. Viz..
2007 – 08 (Rs.33,131), 2008-09 (Rs.38,084), 2009-10 (Rs.44,345). 2010-11(54,835).
83. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions.
Explanation : (Answer a)
Source : Economic Survey page 107
Commercial Banks – 75%
Co-operative Banks – 15%
RRB - 10%
84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government‘s objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d )
85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Source : White paper on Disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises (31, July 2007)
86. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Comets found beyond Neptune (i.e) kupier belt.
87. Economic growth is usually coupled with
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
Explanation : (Answer : b)
During deflation there is no demand, no growth)
During Stagflation (inflation with unemployment), means there is no growth.
88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to
(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
Explanation : (Answer : a )
89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass are compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a )
90. Between India and East Asia the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deeping the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Deeping will not reduce the distance, it may reduce the time.
91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They active certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Oxidation reactions can produce free radicals. In turn, these radicals can start chain reactions. When the chain reaction occurs in a cell, it can cause damage or death. When the chain reaction occurs in a purified monomer, it produces a polymer resin, such as a plastic, a synthetic fiber, or an oil paint film. Antioxidants terminate these chain reactions by removing free radical intermediates, and inhibit other oxidation reactions. They do this by being oxidized themselves, so antioxidants are often reducing agents such as thiols, ascorbic acid orpolyphenols.
92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : c )
93. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?
(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
Explanation : (Answer : c )
94. What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither a nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
It is under the influence of Cold ocean current. So given second statement is wrong.
95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : b )
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : c )
97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a U turn in its course to flow into India. This U turn is due to
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation : (Answer : b )
98. A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Explanation : (Answer : b )
99. What is Virtual Private Network ?
(a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their maintaining the security of the information transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct description of Virtual Private Network
Explanation : (Answer : d )
100. The dharma and rita depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one‘s duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : c )