APPSC MATERIAL

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER-II SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Consider the following statements:

1. All artists are whimsical.

2. Some artists are drug addicts.

3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.

From the above three statements it may be concluded that

(a) Artists are frustrated.

(b) Some drug addicts are whimsical.

(d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated.

Ans. (b)

Exp: All artists are whimsical and some of the artists are drug addicts. Thus all those artists who are drug addict are also whimsical. Hence some drug addicts are whimsical and correct answer option is (b).

2. Examine the following statements:

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B.

2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C.

3. B is older than C.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) A is older than B (b) B and D are of the same age

Ans. (d)

Exp: A is more than equal to B and B is more than C. Hence A is more than C. Regarding ages of B and D, anyone can be elder or younger to anyone. Hence answer is (d).

3. Examine the following statements:

1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the members of the birdwatcher’s club.

2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.

3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.

(b) All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.

(d) No conclusion can be drawn.

Ans. (b)

Exp: Only those who have binoculars can be a part of birdwatcher’s club, hence all the members of birdwatcher’s club will have binoculars for sure. But all those who have binoculars may not be part of birdwatcher’s club. Hence answer is (b).

4. During the last summer vacation, Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.

Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?

(a) Ankit’s parents want him to play the guitar.

(b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.

(d) Ankit likes to sing and dance.

Ans. (c)

Exp: No reasons are specified in the question for going to different camps. Since, Ankit goes for different camps for different years; we can surely say that right answer is (c).

5. Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of black, blue and orange colours (not necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow and orange colours (not necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pants of the same colour. Further, it is given that

1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.

2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.

3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.

4. A did not wear pants of green colour.

5. B wore pants of orange colour.

What were the colours of the pants and shirt worn by C, respectively?

(a) Orange and black (b) Green and blue

Ans. (b)

Exp: Solving the question we will get the following table for these three persons

6. Ten new TV shows started in January—5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.

Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?

(a) Only one news magazine show is still on.

(b) Only one of the drama shows is still on.

Ans. (c)

Exp: No reason is provided for discontinuation of any program. Hence, nothing can be claimed about option (d). Although, as only 7 shows are continued, there are exactly 3 shows discontinued. Out of these 3 shows, maximum of 2 can be news magazines. Hence, at least 1 drama has been discontinued. Hence answer is (c)

7. Read the passage given below and the two statements that follows (given on the basis of the passage) :

Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for a Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and the other two are businessmen. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak the same language. The Tamil-speaking doctor is a Christian.

1. The Christian-businessman speaks Gujarati.

2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.

What of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Assume four persons are A, B, C, D. Following table gives descriptions of these four persons.

Hence answer is (c)

8. Consider the following statement:

“Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television.”

Which one of the following is a valid inference from the above statement?

(a) All expensive things is a valid inference from the above statement.

(b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.

(d) Television is not a luxury item.

Ans. (b)

Exp: In the statement given, television is considered not to be a luxury item just because one can learn various things from it. So, we can say that anything which is essential for learning is not luxury. Hence answer is (b).

9. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48 km per hour. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?

(a) 30 km (b) 40 km

Ans. (b)

Exp: Difference between time taken to travel 60% of journey and time taken to travel 40% of journey is the time taken to travel 20% of the journey. Hence, time taken to travel 20% of journey is 10 min and thus, time taken to travel complete journey (100% of journey) is 50 minutes. Hence, total distance is .

Hence, answer is (b)

10. Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,

(a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita.

(b) Sita is prettier than Rita.

(d) Gita is prettier than Rita.

Ans. (a)

Exp: Rita is prettier than Gita and Gita is prettier than Sita. Hence, Sita is not as pretty as Gita. Hence, answer is (a).

11. Given that,

1. A is the brother of B.

2. C is the father of A.

3. D is the brother of E.

4. E is the daughter of B.

Then, the uncle of D is

(a) A (b) B

Ans. (a)

Exp: B’s daughter is E and her brother is D. Hence, D’s uncle will be B’s brother who is A. Hence, answer is (a).

12. Examine the following statements:

1. Rama scored less than Ratna.

2. Rani scored less than Ratna.

3. Ratna scored more than Rama.

4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna.

Who scored the highest?

(a) Rama (b) Padma

Ans. (d)

Exp: Ratna has scored more than Padma. Padma has scored more than Rama. Rama has scored more than Rani. Hence, Ratna has scored maximum marks. Hence, answer is (d).

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

The poor, especially in market economies, need the strength that collectivities offer for creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socioeconomic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivities, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectivities to be found in varied contexts, such as in the transition economies. All of them bear witness to the possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

13. Agricultural collectivities such as group based farming can provide the rural poor

1. Empowerment.

2. Increased agricultural productivity.

3. Safeguard against exploitative markets.

4. Surplus production of agricultural commodities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

14. What does the author imply by “gender impact”?

(a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.

(b) Family cooperatives may not include women.

(d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.

Ans. (c)

15. Consider the following assumptions:

1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities.

2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming.

With reference to the above passage, which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Passage – 2

In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values”. In the Indian context, democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups (caste, religion or sect) to which they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical. By helping to articulate the political voice of the marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures” and empowered the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio-economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste elites to various subaltern groups within the democratic framework of public governance.

16. According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context?

(a) Consolidation of group and class identities.

(b) Democratization translated as greater involvement of people.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Ans. (d)

17. Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to

(a) The dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.

(b) Irrelevance of community identity as a governing force in Indian politics.

(d) Relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities.

Ans. (b)

18. What is the “silent revolution” that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?

(a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes.

(b) Loosening of social strictures in voting behavior and patterns.

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Ans. (c)

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow:

Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, History, Statistics, English and Mathematics have to be arranged in a week from Monday to Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on each day. Economics cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be scheduled immediately after the day of Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Economics lecture.

19. Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

(a) History (b) Economics

Ans. (d)

Exp for question 19 to 23:

Tuesday has to be History and English, Economics and mathematics has to be on consecutive days. Hence, these lectures will be scheduled as

20. Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?

(a) Economics (b) History

Ans. (b)

21. Which lecture is the last one in the week?

(a) History (b) English

Ans. (c)

22. Which lecture is scheduled on Wednesday?

(a) Statistics (b) Economics

Ans. (c)

23. Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture?

(a) Economics (b) History

Ans. (a)

24. Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3

Ans. (d)

Exp: Assume two vessels to be 100 liters of capacity. Hence, first beaker will have 50 liters of milk and 50 liters of water. And second beaker will have 75 liters of milk and 25 liters of water. Mixing these two, we will get 125 liters of milk and 75 liters of water. Thus, the ratio of milk and water will be 125 : 75 = 5 : 3. Hence, answer is (d).

25. Consider the following statements:

1. All machines consume energy.

2. Electricity provides energy.

3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain.

4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) All machines are run by electric energy.

(b) There is no form of energy other than electricity.

(d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.

Ans. (d)

Exp: As per the question, Electricity is one mode of energy and there can be other modes of getting energy. Although, question talks about positives of electricity and thus, electrically operated machines are preferable to use. Hence answer is (d).

26. Examine the following statements:

1. None but the rich can afford air-travel.

2. Some of those who travel by air become sick.

3. Some of those who become sick require treatment.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) All the rick persons travel by air.

(b) Those who travel by air become sick.

(d) All those who travel by air are rich.

Ans. (d)

Exp: As per the first statement, only Rich persons can travel by air. Hence, answer is (d).

27. In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equal friendly to all, and has to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat lives the professor's friend.

From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?

(a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

(b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

(d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer

Ans. (d)

Exp: Professor’s friend is IAS officer as denoted in the first condition. The last condition denotes that IAS officer lives in the flat above that of the MLA. This is only in the case of option (d).

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – I

Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as 'what is the purpose of education?' The answer, too often, are to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility', 'wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities', and 'to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse fields for national human power in diverse fields for national development'. But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have enormous use value. Education, then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of converting or turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of through. It is an inner process of moral – intellectual development.

28. What do you understand by the 'instrumentalist' view of education?

(a) Education is functional and utilitarian is its purposes.

(b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs

(d) Education is meant to achieve moral development.

Ans. (a)

29. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because

(a) It helps to acquire qualification for employment

(b) it helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status.

(d) All the (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Ans. (c)

30. Education is a process in which

(a) students are converted into trained professionals.

(b) opportunities for higher income are generated

(d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired.

Ans. (c)

Passage – 2

Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pest typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.

This problem was often ignored in the past, even though the first case of DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was reported as early as 1946. There is exponential increase in the number of invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number of pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of arthropod (including dipterans such as mosquitoes and house flies, as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, lice and mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. Take the Alabama leafworm, a moth pest of cotton, as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.

If chemical pesticides brought nothing but problems, - if their use was intrinsically and acutely unsustainable – then they would already have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened. Instead, their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for individual agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, insecticides have been estimated to benefit the agriculture products to benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $5 for every $spent.

Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic disease, are so frightening that the social and health costs of using pesticides have to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such as 'lives saved', 'economic efficiency of food production' and 'total food produced'. In these very fundamental senses, their use may be described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides that keep at last one step ahead of the pests – pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and more accurately targeted at the pests.

31. “The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?

(a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.

(b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.

(d) None of the statements (a) (b) and (c) given is correct.

Ans. (c)

32. With reference to the passage, consider the following statement:

1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.

2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture.

3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (c)

33. Though the problem associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned. Why?

(a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all

(b) New pesticides are not invented at all

(d) None of the statements (a) (b) and (c) given is correct.

Ans. (d)

34. How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?

1. It is possible that in a pest, population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup

2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides.

3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (d)

35. Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries?

1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.

2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food problem.

3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (c)

36. What does the passage imply?

(a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.

(b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.

(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) above are correct.

Ans. (d)

Passage – 3

Today's developing economies use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United States did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy that increases resilience reduces the threat of further global warming and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise income and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better-built houses and with access to bank loans and social securing is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequence. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today because changes in the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short term.

The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental change has accelerated, sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate new adaptive technologies and practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have explained, much of humankind's creative potential has been directed at adapting to the changing world. But adaption cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes unfold in the long term.

Countries cannot grow out of harm's way fast enough to match the changing climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to vulnerability – particularly if they overexploit natural resources. Under the soviet development plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves the natural coastal buffers against storm surges – to make way for intensive farming or housing development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana.

37. Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?

1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests.

2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind's creative potential.

3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.

4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

38. What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?

1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.

2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agriculture sector.

3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming.

4. Less demand for goods and services.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

39. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for sustainable economic growth?

1. Spreading of economic prosperity more

2. Popularising/spreading of adaptive technologies widely.

3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technology.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

40. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?

1. Rained crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas.

2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

41. Consider the following assumption:

1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of men.

2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash.

3. Spread of economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment.

With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

42. Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?

1. Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.

2. Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies.

3. Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing countries.

4. Some countries resort to overexploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development

Ans. (b)

Diections for the following 11 (eleven) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Invasions of exotic species into new geographic areas sometimes occur naturally and without human agency. However, human action have increased this trickle to a flood. Human-caused introduction may occur either accidentally as a consequence of human transport, or internationally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However, some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and natural communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake Boiga irregularies into Guam, an island in the Pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction.

One of the major reasons for the world's great biodiversity is the occurrence of centers of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the would are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If every species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virture of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introduction have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogeneous.

It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to decolonize after the last glaciations). Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arise where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.

43. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity.

(b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems.

(c) Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogeneous ones..

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct in this context.

Ans. (d)

44. Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas?

1. To breed exotic species with local varieties.

2. To increase agricultural productivity.

3. For beautification and landscaping.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

45. How is homogenization prevented under natural conditions?

(a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.

(b) Presence of oceans and mountain ranges.

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Ans. (d)

46. How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity?

1. By smuggling live organisms.

2. By building highways.

3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed.

4. By ensuring that new species do not have major impact on local species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

47. What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem?

1. Erosion of endemic species.

2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Passage - 2

Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself promote development and enhancement of social welfare- they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between democracy and development. The theorists of the practical split-"Make up your mind: do you want democracy, or instead, do you want development?' – often came, at least to start with, from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries were immensely successful – through the 1970s and 1980s and even later – in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy.

To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the interpretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of enhancement f inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes, or industrialization – important as they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which must be central to the idea of development.

If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external links. Even thought eh question has often been asked whether political freedom is "conducive to development", we must not miss the crucial recognition that political liberties and democratic rights are among the "constituent component" of development. Their relevance for development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP.

48. According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?

(a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals.

(b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governance.

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Ans. (b)

49. According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?

(a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates.

(b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP.

(d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.

Ans. (d)

50. What does a “constitutive” connection between democracy and development imply?

(a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links.

(b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Ans. (c)

Passage- 3

The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is liberalized. The impact of FDI is not always pro-competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint venture with one. By making such as substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate multinational companies (MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberalization of FDI. Subsequently the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host country may be virtually eliminated and the prices of the products may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and know how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.

51. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct Investment should be pro-competitive.

2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets. .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

52. According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market?

1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws.

2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies.

3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent companies overseas merge.

4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

53. What is the inference from this passage?

(a) Foreign investors and multination companies always dominate domestic market.

(b) It is not in the best interest of domestic economy to allow mergers companies.

(d) For countries with open economy Foreign Direct Investment is essential for growth.

Ans. (c)

54. Examine the following statements:

1. I watch TV only if I am bored.

2. I am never bored when I have my brother's company.

3. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along.

Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?

(a) If I and bored, I watch TV.

(d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV.

Ans. (d)

Exp: Since I watch TV only when I am bored, I will not watch TV if I am not bored. Hence option (d) is correct answer.

55 Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q, and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P and R is open at any one time. If B is open during storms. P is closed during floods. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.

(b) During storms at least one road is open.

(d) During calamities all roads are closed.

Ans. (b)

Exp: Since only one of A, P and R is open at a time, there will always be at least one road open during all the times. Hence, correct answer is (b).

56. Examine the following statements:

1. None but students are members of the club.

2. Some members of the club are married persons.

3. All married persons are invited for dance.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) All students are invited for dance.

(b) All married students of the club are invited for dance.

(d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.

Ans. (d)

Exp: Option (a) is not correct as all students are not invited and only married students are invited. Option (b) is not correct as even non member of the club can be invited for dance. Option (c) is not correct as there is a complete possibility that some members of the club are not married. Hence, correct answer to the question is (d)

57. Four political parties W, X Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of to candidate by moist of the parties. Four aspiring candidates, A, B, C and D approached the parties for their tickets.

A was acceptable to W but not to Z.

B was acceptable to Y but not to X.

C was acceptable to W and Y.

D was acceptable to W and X.

When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z , and candidate A was acceptable to X but not to Y, who got the ticket?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

Ans. (c)

Exp: As per the question following acceptance and non acceptance are given.

Hence, only C is accepted to all the parties and he will get the ticket. Hence, answer is (c)

58. Consider the following statements.

1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.

2. Some of them have radial types.

3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres.

4. All cars are not X-brand.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?

(a) Only white cars are parked here.

(b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.

(d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

Ans. (b)

Exp: All X-branded cars parked here are white and some of them have radial tyres. Hence some white X-brand cars parked here have radial tyres and hence answer is (b).

59. Consider the following statement.

The Third World War, if it ever starts, will end very quickly with the possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it.

(a) Nuclear power will be used in the Third World War.

(b) There will be no civilization left after the Third World War.

(d) The Third World War will not take place.

Ans. (b)

Exp: There is a possibility of end of civilization with the use of nuclear power which will be used in third world war which if starts ever. The passage speaks very negative about misuse of nuclear power and it infers that it will be used some time or the other. Hence, answer will be (b).

60. The elements of the problem figures given below are changing with a certain rule as we observe them from left to right:

According to this rule, which of the following would be the next figure if the changes were continued with the same rule?

Ans. (d)

Exp: In the first figure, triangle is pointed towards up, followed by pointed towards down, followed by pointed towards up, followed by pointed towards down. Hence, in the answer choice triangle should point up and only option (d) is pointing up. Hence, answer is (d).

61. Consider the following informaiton regarding the performance of a class of 1000 students in four different tests:

If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the followint tests is her performance the best comparatively?

(a) Test I (b) Test II

Ans. (b)

Exp: In test II and test I, average marks are minimum and thus a score of 74 will be best relatively. Whereas since range of marks is test II is up to 75, thus his performance will be best in test II comparatively. Hence correct answer is (b).

62. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red (R), blue (B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W) and orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they are folded to form a cube, what would be the face opposite the white face?

(a) R (b) G
(c) B (d) O

Ans. (c)

Exp: Joining the figure, we will realize that W and B will be opposite to each other and thus (c) is the right answer choice.

63. In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents intelligent people, circle R represents truthful people, and circle S represents honest people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking?

(a) 6 (b) 7

Ans. (a)
Exp: Since, we require not hard working, option (b), (c) and (d) get eliminated and thus answer has to be (a).

64. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below:

What is the letter opposite to A?

(a) H (b) P

Ans. (a)
Exp: In a cube, any pair of adjoining sides will have two common adjoining sides which will be opposite to each other. In the given question, these two sides are A and H. Hence, H is opposite to A. Hence correct answer option is (a).

65.

Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space (?) in the matrix given above?

Ans. (d)

Exp: In each row, first and third circle have same coloured quadrant where as the middle circle has opposite quadrant coloured. Hence (d) is the right answer.

Directions for the followint 8 (eight) items: The following eight items (questions 66 to 73) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Passage – I

For fourteen and a half months I lived in my little cell or room in the Dehradun jail, and I b egan to feel as if I was almost a part of It. I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floor and the ceiling with its moth-eaten rafters. Ini the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old frients. I was not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there, and many lizards found a home behind the rafters, emerging in the evenings in search of prey.

66. Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage "I was almost a part of it"?

(a) I was not alone in the cell.

(b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell.

(d) I felt quite at home in the cell.

Ans. (b)

67. The passage attempts to describe:

(a) the general conditions of the country's jails.

(b) the prisoner's capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings.

(d) the prisoner's ability to live happily with other creatures.

Ans. (c)

68. The author of the passage seems to suggest that:

(a) it is possible to adjust oneself to uncongenial surroundings.

(b) the conditions in Indian prisons are not bad.

(d) there is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.

Ans. (a)

Passage – II

We started pitching the highest camp that has ever been made. Everything took five times as long as it would have taken in a place where there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got the tent up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind, and inside it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves. At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep them on. Hillary, on the other hand, took his off and laid them next to his sleeping bag.

69. What does the expression "pitching the highest camp" imply?

(a) They reached the summit of the highest mountain in the world.

(b) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.

(d) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp.

Ans. (c)

70. They took a long time to finish the work because:

(a) they were very tired.

(b) there was not enough air to breathe.

(d) it was very dark.

Ans. (b)

71. When they crawled into the tent?

(a) they took off their gloves because it was not very cold.

(b) they could not take off their gloves because it was very cold.

(d) they did not take off their gloves though it was not cold.

Ans. (a)

Passage – III

A local man, staying on the top floor of an old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by a fire. Losing his way in a smoke-filled passage, he missed the stairway and went into another room. He picked up a bundle to protect his face from the fire and immediately fell through the floor below where he managed to escape through a clear doorway. The "bundle" proved to be the baby of the Mayor's wife. The "hero" was congratulated by all.

72. The man went into another room because:

(a) he did not know where exactly the stairway was.

(b) the passage was full of smoke.

(d) he stumbled on a bundle.

Ans. (b)

73. The man was called a hero because he

(a) expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others.

(b) managed to escape from the fire.

(d) saved a life.

Ans. (d)

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items : Given below are seven items:

Given below are seven items. Each item describes a situation and is followed four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.

Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these seven items.

74. You have differences of opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be submitted urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would….

(a) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong.

(b) Tell him to reconsider the results.

(d) Tell him not to justify the mistake.

Ans. (c)

75. You are competing with your batch-mate for a prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. Ten minutes are allowed for each presentation. You have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend, however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period. You would….

(a) Lodge a complaint to the chairperson against the discrimination.

(b) Not listen to any justification from the committee.

(d) Protest and leave the place.

Ans. (a)

76. You are handling a time-bound project. During the project review meeting, you find that the project is likely to get delayed due to lack of cooperation of the team members. You would…

(a) Warn the team members for their non-cooperation.

(b) Look into reasons for non-cooperation.

(d) Ask for extension of time citing reasons.

Ans. (b)

77. You are the chairperson of a state sports committee. You have received a complaint and later it was found that an athelete in the junioir age category who has won a medal has crossed the age criteria by 5 days. You would….

(a) Ask the screening committee for a clarification.

(b) Ask the athlete to return the medal.

(d) Ask the members of the sports committee for their views.

Ans. (a)

78. You are handling a priority project and have been meeting all the deadlines and are therefore planning your leave during the project. Your immediate boss does not grant your leave citing the urgency of the project. You would….

(a) Proceed on leave without waiting for the sanction.

(b) Pretend to be sick and take leave.

(d) Tell the boss that it is not justified.

Ans. (c)

79. You are involved in setting up a water supply project in a remote area. Full recovery of cost is impossible in any case. The income levels in the area are low and 25% of the population is below poverty line (BPL). When a decision has to be taken on pricing you would….

(a) Recommend that the supply of water be free of charge in all respects.

(b) Recommend that the users pay a one time fixed sum for the installation of taps and the usage of water be free.

(c) Recommend that a fixed monthly charge be levied only on the non-BPL families and for BPL families water should be free.

(d) Recommend that the users pay a charge based on the consumption of water with differentiated charges for non-BPL and BPL families.

Ans. (c)

80. As a citizen you have some work with a government department. The official calls you again and again; and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would…..

(a) Give a bribe.

(b) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application.

(d) Send in a formal complaint.

Ans. (b)

Wednesday, May 23, 2012

MCQs on Current Affairs 2011-12 for All Competitive Exams

Tuesday, May 22, 2012

NEW APPOINTMENTS

● Jim Yong Kim—President, World Bank.
● Obiageli Katryn Ezekwesili —Vice-President, Africa World Bank.
● Christine Lagarde (France) —Managing-Director, IMF.
● Ban Ki-Moon—General -Secretary, UNO.
● Haruhiko Kuroda —President, Asian Development Bank.
● Arvind Virmani —Executive-Director in World Bank (from India)
● Siddharth Tiwari—Secretary IMF.
● V. P. Baligar—Chairman and M.D., HUDCO.
● Herman Van Rompuy—President, European Union
● Pascal Lamy—Director-General, WTO.
● K. M. Chandra Shekhar—Indian Ambassador to WTO.
● Dr. D. Subbarao—Governor RBI.
● S. K. Goel —Chairman, Central Board of Excise and Custom (CBEC).
● Laxman Das —Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
● S. P. Gaur—Chairman, Island Waterways Authority of India.
● Sanjeev Batra —Chairman and Managing Director, Mineral and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC).
● Dr. Bijendra Singh — Chairman, National Agricultural Federation Cooperative Marketing (NAFED).
● Montek Singh Ahluwalia— Deputy Chairman, Indian Planning Commission.
● V. P. Agrawal —Chairman, Indian Airports Authority (IAA).
● P. V. Narsimgham —President, Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI).
● Nagesh Alai—President, Advertising Agencies Association of India (AAAI).
● J. Harinarayan—Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA).
● Arup Rai Chaudhary —Chairman and CMD National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC).
● Sushma Nath—First Indian Lady Finance Secretary.
● Satyanand Mishra—Chief Information Commissioner.
● Ms. Shanta Sinha—Chairman, National Child Rights Commission.
● B. C. Tripathi—Chairman, GAIL.
● S. Roy Choudhury—Chairman and CMD, HPCL.
● A. B. L. Srivastava —CMD, National Hydro Power Corporation.
● Vinay Mittal—Chairman, Railway Board
● S. Narasing Rao— Chairman-cum-Managing Director, Coal India Ltd.
● Sushil Muhnot—Chairman, SIDBI.
● Prakash Bakshi—CMD, NABARD.
● N. P. Patel—Chairman, IFFCO (Indian Farmer’s Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd.)
● Yogesh Agrawal—Chairman PFRDA
● Rajendra Pawar—Chairman, NASSCOM (2011-12).
● Lalit K. Panwar—CMD, Indian Tourism Development Corporation (ITDC)
● Sriraj Hussain—CMD, Food Corporation of India
● Chandra Shekhar Verma—Chairman, SAIL
● Prema Cariappa —Chairperson, Central Social Welfare Board.
● Nimish C. Tolia —President, Hindustan Chamber of Commerce.
● A. K. Upadhyay—Chairman, National Highway Authority of India.
● K. J. Udeshi—First Lady Deputy Governor of RBI.
● Ashok Kumar Lahiri—Executive Director in ADB
● P. L. Punia —Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
● Vijai L. Kelkar—Chairman, 13th Finance Commission
● Amartya Sen—Human Development Advisor, UNDP.
● U. K. Sinha—Chairman, SEBI.
● Mamta Sharma— Chairperson, National Women Commission.
● C. Rangrajan—Chairman, Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Committee.
● D. K. Mehrotra—Chairman, LIC.
● Yogesh Lohia — Chairman, General Insurance Company.
● N. S. R. Chandra Prasad —CMD, National Insurance Company.
● G. Srinivasan —Chairman, United India Insurance Company.
● M. Ramadoss —Chairman, Oriental Insurance Company.
● R. K. Upadhyay—Chairman and CMD Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
● R. V. Verma—Chairman, Asia Pacific Union for Housing Finance.
● Reeta Menon—CMD, India Trade Promotion Organisation.
● M. Rafeeq Ahmed —President, Federation of Indian Exporters Organisation (FIEO).
● Mangoo Singh—MD, Delhi Metro Rail Corporation.
● Srivardhan Goyanka— President, Indian Chamber of Commerce (ICC) 2011-12.
● Hari S. Bharatia—Chairman, C.I.I.
● Arvind Pradhan—Director-General, Indian Merchant Chamber (IMC)
● Rajesh Lilothia—Chairman, SC/ST Welfare Board.
● Pramod Dev—President Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
● Aditya Puri—MD, HDFC.
● Raj Kumar Dhoot—President, ASSOCHAM
● Rahul Khullar—Chairman, TRAI
● R. V. Kanoria—President, FICCI
● Rajeev Kumar—General-Secretary, FICCI.
● Jacques Diouf—Director-General, Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
● S. Krishnan—Chairman, Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulation Board.
● Sandid Somany—President, PHDCCI
● Nandan Nilekani —Chairman Unique Identification Authority of India.
● M. D. Malya— President, Indian Banks Association.
● Rohit Nandan—Chairman and Managing-Director, Air India Ltd.
● Pratip Chowdhary—CMD, State Bank Group.
● Ajit Parsayat —Chairman, Competition Appellate Tribunal.
● Ashok Chawla—Chairman, Competition Commission of India (CCI).

Monday, May 21, 2012

White Paper on Black Money

Placed below is a link for White Paper on Black Money:

Click here to see details

APPSC DEPUTY SURVEYORS EXAM GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

Sunday, May 20, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY 2012 PAPER-I SOLVED PAPER

1.    With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?
    1.    Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
    2.    Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
    3.    Providing information on nutrition and immunization
    4.    Conducting the delivery of baby
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 Only
    (b)    2 and 4 Only
    (c)    1 and 3 Only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

2.    Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
    1.    Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    2.    Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
    3.    Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

3.    During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
    (a)    Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
    (b)    Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
    (c)    Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

4.    Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
    1.    The   Peasants   and   Workers Party of India
    2.    All   India   Scheduled   Castes Federation
    3.    The Independent Labour Party
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

5.    Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
    (a)    To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
    (b)    To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
    (c)    To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
    (d)    To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

ANSWER: (B)

6.    How    does    the    National    Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
    1.    By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
    2.    By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
    3.    By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

7.    The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
    1.    Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
    2.    Purchasing power parity at national level
    3.    Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

8.    Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
    1.    A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
    2.    A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
    3.    Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

9. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
    1.    Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
    2.    Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'
    3.    Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

10. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
    1.    Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
    2.    Withdrawal of moneys    from Consolidated Fund of    India only after passing    the Appropriation Bill
    3.    Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
    4.    A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
    5.    Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

11.    Mahatma   Gandhi   undertook   fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
    (a)    Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
    (b)    Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
    (c)    Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

12.    With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements :
    1.    The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
    2.    The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
    3.    The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (C)

13.    Consider the following    specific stages of demographic transition associated    with    economic development :
    1.    Low birthrate with low death rate
    2.    High birthrate with high death rate
    3.    High birthrate with low death rate
    Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3
    (b)    2, 1, 3
    (c)    2, 3, 1
    (d)    3, 2, 1

ANSWER: (C)

14.    In India,   in   the   overall   Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
    1.    Cement
    2.    Fertilizers
    3.    Natural gas
    4.    Refinery products
    5.    Textiles
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 5 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (C)

15.    Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
    1.    Directive Principles of State Policy
    2.    Rural and Urban Local Bodies
    3.    Fifth Schedule
    4.    Sixth Schedule
    5.    Seventh Schedule
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

16.    Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant?
    1.     It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
    2.    It is a rich source of biodiesel.
    3.    It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
    4.    Its timber is of great commercial value.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

17.    Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?
    (a)    Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
    (b)    Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
    (c)    Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (C)

18.    A particular State in India has the following characteristics :
    1.    It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
    2.    It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
    3.    Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
    Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
    (a)    Arunachal Pradesh
    (b)    Assam
    (c)    Himachal Pradesh
    (d)    Uttarakhand

ANSWER: (A)

19.     Consider   the   following   crops   of India :
    1.    Cowpea
    2.    Green gram
    3.    Pigeon pea
    Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

20.    Consider the following factors:
    1.    Rotation of the Earth
    2.    Air pressure and wind
    3.    Density of ocean water
    4.    Revolution of the Earth
    Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

21.    With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :
    1.    The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
    2.    In India, the total geographical area   of   coastal   wetlands larger   than   that   of wetlands.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

22.    Consider   the    following   crops    of India :
    1.    Groundnut
    2.    Sesamum
    3.    Pearl millet
    Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

23.    When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :
    1.    Deep gorges
    2.    U-turn river courses
    3.    Parallel mountain ranges
    4.    Steep gradients causing land-sliding
    Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

24.    Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because
    1.    the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
    2.    there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
    3.    the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

25.    The    acidification    of    oceans    is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
    1.    The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
    2.    The   growth   and   survival   of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
    3.    The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
    4.    The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

26. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
    1.    CAG exercises exchequer control    on    behalf    of    the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
    2.    CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
    3.    Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
    4.    While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

27.    The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
    1.    to promote institutional deliveries
    2.    to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
    3.    to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

28.    The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
    (a)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the" Houses within six months
    (b)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
    (c)    must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
    (d)    must be a member of the Lok Sabha

ANSWER: (A)

29.    With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :
    1.    The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
    2.    When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

30.    Consider the following:
    1.    Hotels and restaurants
    2.    Motor transport undertakings
    3.    Newspaper establishments
    4.    Private medical institutions
    The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

31.    According   to   the   Constitution   of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
    1.    The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
    2.    The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
    3.    The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    4.    The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

32.    A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
    1.    Ordinary Legislation
    2.    Money Bill
    3.    Constitution Amendment Bill
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

33.     How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
    1.    DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
    2.    DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
    3.    DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
    4.    DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
    Which   of the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

34. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
    1.    To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    2.    To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
    3.    To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
    4.    To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

35.     What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
    1.    While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
    2.    The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
    3.    The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
    4.    All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

36.     To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
    1.    Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
    2.    On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
    3.    Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

37.     The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
    (a)    the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
    (b)    the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
    (c)    all the solar radiations
    (d)    the infrared part of the solar radiation

ANSWER: (D)

38.     Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
    (a)    Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
    (b)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
    (c)    Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
    (d)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

ANSWER: (B)

39.     What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
    1.    Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
    2.    The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
    3.    There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
    4.    There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

40.    Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
    1.    To enable them to withstand drought
    2.    To increase the nutritive value of the produce
    3.    To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
    4.    To increase their shelf life
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

41.    Consider the following statements :
    The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
    1.    exposed    the    economic exploitation of India by the British
    2.    interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
    3.    stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

42.     With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
    1.    Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
    2.    Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
    3.    Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
    Select   the   correct   answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of the above is correct

ANSWER: (C)

43. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
    1.    Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
    2.    Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)        Both 1 and 2
    (d)       Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

44.     With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
    1.    Meditation and control of breath
    2.    Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
    3.    Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

45.    The Rowlatt Act aimed at
    (a)     compulsory economic support to war efforts
    (b)     imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
    (c)    suppression of the Khilafat Movement
    (d)    imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

ANSWER: (B)

46.    The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress   (1929) is very important in history, because
    1.    the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
    2.    the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
    3.     a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    I only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (A)

47.     Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes
    (a)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
    (b)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
    (c)    Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
    (d)    Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

ANSWER: (B)

48.    The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
    (a)    Bhakti
    (b)    image worship and Yajnas
    (c)    worship of nature and Yajnas
    (d)    worship of nature and Bhakti

ANSWER: (C)

49.     Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
    1.    It opposed idolatry.
    2.    It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
    3.    It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

50.     The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?
    1.    Other    banks     retain    their    deposits with the RBI.
    2.    The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
    3.    The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)     1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

51. Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?
    1.    When there is an increase in the sales of a product
    2.    When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
    3.     When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    2 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

52.     Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
    1.    Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
    2.    Deposit      of     currency      in commercial    banks    by    the public
    3.    Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
    4.    Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

53.    Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
    1.     Subsidiaries        of companies in India
    2.    Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
    3.    Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
    4.    Portfolio investment
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3 only

ANSWER: (D)

54. Consider the following statements:
    The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
    1.    World Bank
    2.    demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
    3.    stability of the government of the concerned country
    4.    economic potential of the country in question
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1 and 4 only

ANSWER: (B)

55. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
    (a)    big banks should try to open offices in each district
    (b)    there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
    (c)    individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
    (d)    all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

ANSWER: (C)

56. Consider the following :
    1.    Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
    2.    Use   of   mobile   cannons   in warfare
    3.    Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
    Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

57. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?
    1.    Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
    2.    The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
    3.    The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

58.     The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
    (a)    Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
    (b)    Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
    (c)    Government of India Act, 1935
    (d)   Indian Independence Act, 1947

ANSWER: (C)

59.    Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
    1.    It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
    2.    Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
    3.    Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

60.    A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
    (a)    direction facing the polestar
    (b)    direction opposite to the polestar
    (c)    direction keeping the polestar to his left
    (d)    direction keeping the polestar to his right

ANSWER: (C)

61.    Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why?
    1.    China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
    2.    Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
    3.    Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

62.    Consider the following areas:
    1.    Bandipur
    2.    Bhitarkanika
    3.    Manas
    4.    Sunderbans
    Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    l, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

63.    Consider the following statements :
    1.    The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
    2.    The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

64.    Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
    (a)    Rainfall throughout the year
    (b)    Rainfall in winter only
    (c)    An extremely short dry season
    (d)    A definite dry and wet season

ANSWER: (D)

65.    In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
    (a)   Biosphere Reserves
    (b)   National Parks
    (c)    Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
    (d)    Wildlife Sanctuaries

ANSWER: (B)

66.    Consider   the   following   kinds   of organisms :
    1.    Bat
    2.    Bee
    3.    Bird
    Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

67.    Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
    (a)     Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
    (b)    Kashmir Stag,   Cheetal,   Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
    (c)    Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
    (d)    Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

ANSWER: (A)

68.    Consider the following statements :
    If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
    1.    it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
    2.    one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
    3.    the blotting paper would fail to function
    4.    the   big   trees   that   we   see around would not have grown on the Earth
    Which   of   the   statements   given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

69.    The    Millennium    Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
    (a)    Production of food and water
    (b)    Control of climate and disease
    (c)    Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
    (d)    Maintenance of diversity

ANSWER: (C)

70.    What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
    (a)    Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
    (b)    Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
    (c)    Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

71.    Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
    1.    Global warming
    2.    Fragmentation of habitat
    3.    Invasion of alien species
    4.    Promotion of vegetarianism
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

72.    Consider the following :
    1.    Black-necked crane
    2.    Cheetah
    3.    Flying squirrel
    4.    Snow leopard
    Which of the above are naturally found in India?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

73.    Consider the following agricultural practices :
    1.    Contour bunding
    2.    Relay cropping
    3.    Zero tillage
    In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of them

ANSWER: (B)

74. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
    1.    The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
    2.     The food chains in the ocean      would be adversely affected.
    3.    The   density of ocean   water would drastically decrease.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

75.     Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
    (a)   the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
    (b)     a drug used by cattle owners      for    treating   their   diseased        cattle
    (c)       scarcity of food available to them
    (d)       a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

ANSWER: (B)

76.    In   the   areas   covered   under   the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
    1.    Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
    2.    Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
    3.    Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

77.    In   the   Parliament   of   India,   the purpose of an adjournment motion is
    (a)    to allow a   discussion   on a definite matter of urgent public importance
    (b)    to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
    (c)    to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
    (d)    to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

ANSWER: (A)

78.    How    does    National    Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
    1.    NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
    2.    NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants.
    3.    Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 -only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

79.    The   National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1.    Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
    2.    Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
    3.    Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

80.     If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
    1.    Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
    2.    The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
    3.    All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
    4.    The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

81.    Consider   the   following   provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
    1.    Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
    2.    Organizing village Panchayats
    3.    Promoting cottage industries in     rural areas
    4.    Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    (a)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

82.    Consider the following statements:
    1.    Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
    2.    It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
    3.    According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

83.    With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
    2.    When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
    3.    In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

84.    Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
    1.    He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
    2.    He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
    3.    If he/she intends to resign, the letter   of his/her   resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (B)

85.    Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
    1.    A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2.    A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
    3.    A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
    4.    A dispute between two or more States
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

86.    Consider   the   following   kinds    of organisms :
    1.    Bacteria
    2.    Fungi
    3.    Flowering plants
    Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

87.    Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
    2.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
    3.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

88.    What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
    1.    It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
    2.    It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
    3.    It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

89.    Graphene is   frequently   in   news recently. What is its importance?
    1.    It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
    2.    It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
    3.    It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
    4.    It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

90.    Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
    1.    Smelting units
    2.    Pens and pencils
    3.    Paints
    4.    Hair oils and cosmetics
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

91.    With    reference    to    'stem    cells', frequently   in   the   news,    which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
    2.    Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
    3.    Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

92.    Consider the following statements :
    Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used
    1.    in   the   production of plastic foams
    2.    in the production of tubeless tyres
    3.    in cleaning certain electronic components
    4.    as    pressurizing    agents    in aerosol cans
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)     1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

93.    A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?
    1.    It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
    2.    It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
    3.    It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

94.    Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
    1.    Detection of microwaves in space
    2.    Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
    3.    Movement of asteroids in space
    4.    Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 only
    (c)     1, 3 and 4
    (d)     None of the above can be cited as evidence

ANSWER: (B)

95.    Electrically charged particles   from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
    (a)    The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
    (b)    Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
    (c)    Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
    (d)     None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

96.    With   reference    to    the    scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
    1.    Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
    2.    Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
    3.    The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
    4.    The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

97.    With reference to the history. of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
    1.    Avoidance   of   extremities   of penance and enjoyment
    2.    Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
    3.    Denial of efficacy of rituals
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

98.    Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
    1.    Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
    2.    Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
    3.    Increasing the government spending on public health
    4.    Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

99.    The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
    (a)    three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
    (b)    three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
    (c)     three   main   styles   of Indian temple architecture
    (d)    three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

ANSWER: (C)

100.    The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
    (a)    the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
    (b)    emergence of a left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
    (c)    there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
    (d)       None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (D)

World Disaster Report 2010

According to the World Disaster Report 2010 published by the International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC), during the period 2000 to 2009, as many as 85 percent of the people affected by disasters belonged to the Asia Pacific region. The Global Assessment Report 2011 published by the United Nations International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (UN ISDR) estimates that more than 90 percent of the global population exposed to floods live in South Asian, East Asian and the Pacific countries. Among the disaster-prone countries in South Asia, India and Bangladesh are highly vulnerable due to the large population exposed to disasters in India and the geographical, riverine and topographical features of coastal areas of Bangladesh vulnerable to floods and cyclones. In India as many as 200 million people are exposed to recurring floods every year. The high disaster risk and exposure of millions of people in India living in vulnerable areas prone to geological disasters, hydro-meteorological disasters and man-made and technological disasters makes it imperative that a national campaign on mission mode is launched to strengthen disaster preparedness, prevention and mitigation efforts in India.

India ranks 2nd in natural disasters in Asia

India occupies the second position in Asia where the most number of natural disasters occur, according to a senior UN expert. Sixty percent of India’s landmass is susceptible to earthquakes, 14 million hectares are prone to floods and 8000 km of the country’s coastline is prone to cyclones.

The direct losses from natural disasters in India total up to two percent of the national GDP or 12 percent of the central government’s revenues, according to a World Bank report.

Twentyseven states of the country are prone to natural disasters and the World Bank report shows that the country losses a significant chunk of its earnings in disasters. Hence we must work a proactive strategy in dealing with the disasters rather than merely concentrating on disaster response.
According to UN estimates, there were 373 natural disasters across the world in 2010 which killed 296 thousand people and rendered another 20 million homeless. The natural disasters in 2010 cost the world 110 billion US dollars; 77percent of these disasters were geophysical like earthquakes or Tsunami and 19 percent were climatological including cyclones and floods. According to the UN experts, the intensity and frequency of natural disasters in the Indian subcontinent has seen a significant rise in the recent years. “The year 2010 has been recorded as the deadliest year in the last two decades owing to the number of disasters the year has witnessed.

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