Sunday, May 20, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY 2012 PAPER-I SOLVED PAPER

1.    With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?
    1.    Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
    2.    Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
    3.    Providing information on nutrition and immunization
    4.    Conducting the delivery of baby
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 Only
    (b)    2 and 4 Only
    (c)    1 and 3 Only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

2.    Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
    1.    Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    2.    Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
    3.    Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

3.    During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
    (a)    Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
    (b)    Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
    (c)    Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

4.    Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
    1.    The   Peasants   and   Workers Party of India
    2.    All   India   Scheduled   Castes Federation
    3.    The Independent Labour Party
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

5.    Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
    (a)    To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
    (b)    To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
    (c)    To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
    (d)    To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

ANSWER: (B)

6.    How    does    the    National    Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
    1.    By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
    2.    By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
    3.    By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

7.    The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
    1.    Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
    2.    Purchasing power parity at national level
    3.    Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

8.    Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
    1.    A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
    2.    A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
    3.    Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

9. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
    1.    Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
    2.    Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'
    3.    Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

10. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
    1.    Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
    2.    Withdrawal of moneys    from Consolidated Fund of    India only after passing    the Appropriation Bill
    3.    Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
    4.    A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
    5.    Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

11.    Mahatma   Gandhi   undertook   fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
    (a)    Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
    (b)    Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
    (c)    Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

12.    With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements :
    1.    The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
    2.    The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
    3.    The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (C)

13.    Consider the following    specific stages of demographic transition associated    with    economic development :
    1.    Low birthrate with low death rate
    2.    High birthrate with high death rate
    3.    High birthrate with low death rate
    Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3
    (b)    2, 1, 3
    (c)    2, 3, 1
    (d)    3, 2, 1

ANSWER: (C)

14.    In  India,   in   the   overall   Index  of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
    1.    Cement
    2.    Fertilizers
    3.    Natural gas
    4.    Refinery products
    5.    Textiles
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 5 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (C)

15.    Which of the following provisions of the  Constitution of India have  a bearing on Education?
    1.    Directive Principles of State Policy
    2.    Rural and Urban Local Bodies
    3.    Fifth Schedule
    4.    Sixth Schedule
    5.    Seventh Schedule
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

16.    Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant?
    1.     It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
    2.    It is a rich source of biodiesel.
    3.    It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
    4.    Its timber is of great commercial value.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)


17.    Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?
    (a)    Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
    (b)    Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
    (c)    Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (C)

18.    A particular State in India has the following characteristics :
    1.    It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
    2.    It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
    3.    Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
    Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
    (a)    Arunachal Pradesh
    (b)    Assam
    (c)    Himachal Pradesh
    (d)    Uttarakhand

ANSWER: (A)

19.     Consider   the   following   crops   of India :
    1.    Cowpea
    2.    Green gram
    3.    Pigeon pea
    Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

20.    Consider the following factors:
    1.    Rotation of the Earth
    2.    Air pressure and wind
    3.    Density of ocean water
    4.    Revolution of the Earth
    Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

21.    With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :
    1.    The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
    2.    In India, the total geographical area   of   coastal   wetlands larger   than   that   of wetlands.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

22.    Consider   the    following   crops    of India :
    1.    Groundnut
    2.    Sesamum
    3.    Pearl millet
    Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3    

ANSWER: (D)

23.    When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :
    1.    Deep gorges
    2.    U-turn river courses
    3.    Parallel mountain ranges
    4.    Steep gradients causing land-sliding
    Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

24.    Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because
    1.    the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
    2.    there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
    3.    the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

25.    The    acidification    of    oceans    is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
    1.    The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
    2.    The   growth   and   survival   of coral  reefs  will  be  adversely affected.
    3.    The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
    4.    The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

26. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
    1.    CAG exercises exchequer control    on    behalf    of    the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
    2.    CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
    3.    Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
    4.    While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

27.    The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
    1.    to promote institutional deliveries
    2.    to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
    3.    to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

28.    The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
    (a)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the" Houses within six months
    (b)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
    (c)    must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
    (d)    must be a member of the Lok Sabha

ANSWER: (A)

29.    With reference to the  Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :
    1.    The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
    2.    When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

30.    Consider the following:
    1.    Hotels and restaurants
    2.    Motor transport undertakings
    3.    Newspaper establishments
    4.    Private medical institutions
    The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

31.    According   to   the   Constitution   of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
    1.    The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
    2.    The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
    3.    The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    4.    The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

32.    A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
    1.    Ordinary Legislation
    2.    Money Bill
    3.    Constitution Amendment Bill
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

33.     How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
    1.    DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
    2.    DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
    3.    DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
    4.    DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
    Which   of  the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D) 


34. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
    1.    To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    2.    To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
    3.    To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
    4.    To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

35.     What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
    1.    While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
    2.    The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
    3.    The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
    4.    All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

36.     To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
    1.    Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.  
    2.    On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
    3.    Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

37.     The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
    (a)    the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
    (b)    the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
    (c)    all the solar radiations
    (d)    the infrared part of the solar radiation

ANSWER: (D)

38.     Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
    (a)    Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
    (b)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
    (c)    Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
    (d)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

ANSWER: (B)

39.     What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
    1.    Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
    2.    The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
    3.    There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
    4.    There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

40.    Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
    1.    To enable them to withstand drought
    2.    To increase the nutritive value of the produce
    3.    To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
    4.    To increase their shelf life
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

41.    Consider the following statements :
    The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
    1.    exposed    the    economic exploitation of India by the British
    2.    interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
    3.    stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

42.     With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
    1.    Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
    2.    Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
    3.    Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
    Select   the   correct   answer  using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of the above is correct

ANSWER: (C)

43. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
    1.    Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
    2.    Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)        Both 1 and 2
    (d)       Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

44.     With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
    1.    Meditation and control of breath
    2.    Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
    3.    Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

45.    The Rowlatt Act aimed at
    (a)     compulsory economic support to war efforts
    (b)     imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
    (c)    suppression of the Khilafat Movement
    (d)    imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

ANSWER: (B)

46.    The Lahore Session of the Indian National  Congress   (1929)  is  very important in history, because
    1.    the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
    2.    the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
    3.     a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    I only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (A)

47.     Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes
    (a)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
    (b)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
    (c)    Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
    (d)    Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

ANSWER: (B) 


48.    The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
    (a)    Bhakti
    (b)    image worship and Yajnas
    (c)    worship of nature and Yajnas
    (d)    worship of nature and Bhakti

ANSWER: (C)

49.     Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
    1.    It opposed idolatry.
    2.    It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
    3.    It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

50.     The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?
    1.    Other    banks     retain    their    deposits with the RBI.
    2.    The RBI lends  funds  to  the  commercial banks in times of need.
    3.    The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)     1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

51. Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?
    1.    When there is an increase in the sales of a product
    2.    When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
    3.     When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    2 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

52.     Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
    1.    Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
    2.    Deposit      of     currency      in commercial    banks    by    the public
    3.    Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
    4.    Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

53.    Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
    1.     Subsidiaries        of companies in India
    2.    Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
    3.    Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
    4.    Portfolio investment
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3 only

ANSWER: (D)

54.  Consider the following statements:
    The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
    1.    World Bank
    2.    demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
    3.    stability of the government of the concerned country
    4.    economic potential of the country in question
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1 and 4 only

ANSWER: (B)

55. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
    (a)    big banks should try to open offices in each district
    (b)    there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
    (c)    individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
    (d)    all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

ANSWER: (C)

56.  Consider the following :
    1.    Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
    2.    Use   of   mobile   cannons   in warfare
    3.    Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
    Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

57. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?
    1.    Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
    2.    The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
    3.    The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

58.     The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
    (a)    Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
    (b)    Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
    (c)    Government of India Act, 1935
    (d)   Indian Independence Act, 1947

ANSWER: (C)

59.    Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
    1.    It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
    2.    Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
    3.    Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

60.    A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
    (a)    direction facing the polestar
    (b)    direction opposite to the polestar
    (c)    direction keeping the polestar to his left
    (d)    direction keeping the polestar to his right

ANSWER: (C)

61.    Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why?
    1.    China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
    2.    Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
    3.    Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

62.    Consider the following areas:
    1.    Bandipur
    2.    Bhitarkanika
    3.    Manas  
    4.    Sunderbans
    Which  of the above are Tiger Reserves?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    l, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

63.    Consider the following statements :
    1.    The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
    2.     The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

64.    Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
    (a)    Rainfall throughout the year
    (b)    Rainfall in winter only
    (c)    An extremely short dry season
    (d)    A definite dry and wet season

ANSWER: (D)

65.    In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
    (a)   Biosphere Reserves
    (b)   National Parks
    (c)    Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
    (d)    Wildlife Sanctuaries

ANSWER: (B)

66.    Consider   the   following   kinds   of organisms :
    1.    Bat
    2.    Bee
    3.    Bird
    Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)


67.    Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
    (a)     Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
    (b)    Kashmir  Stag,   Cheetal,   Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
    (c)    Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
    (d)    Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

ANSWER: (A)

68.    Consider the following statements :
    If there were no phenomenon  of capillarity
    1.    it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
    2.    one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
    3.    the blotting paper would fail to function
    4.    the   big   trees   that   we   see around would not have grown on the Earth
    Which   of   the   statements   given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

69.    The    Millennium    Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
    (a)    Production of food and water
    (b)    Control of climate and disease
    (c)    Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
    (d)    Maintenance of diversity

ANSWER: (C)

70.    What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
    (a)    Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
    (b)    Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
    (c)    Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

71.    Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
    1.    Global warming
    2.    Fragmentation of habitat
    3.    Invasion of alien species
    4.    Promotion of vegetarianism
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

72.    Consider the following :
    1.    Black-necked crane
    2.    Cheetah
    3.    Flying squirrel
    4.    Snow leopard
    Which of the above are naturally found in India?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

73.    Consider the following agricultural practices :
    1.    Contour bunding
    2.    Relay cropping
    3.    Zero tillage
    In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of them

ANSWER: (B) 

74. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
    1.    The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
    2.     The food chains in the ocean      would be adversely affected.
    3.    The   density  of  ocean   water would drastically decrease.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

75.     Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
    (a)   the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
    (b)     a drug used by cattle owners      for    treating   their   diseased        cattle
    (c)       scarcity of food available  to them
    (d)       a widespread,  persistent and fatal disease among them

ANSWER: (B)

76.    In   the   areas   covered   under   the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
    1.    Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
    2.    Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
    3.    Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

77.    In   the   Parliament   of   India,   the purpose of an adjournment motion is
    (a)    to allow  a   discussion   on  a definite matter of urgent public importance
    (b)    to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
    (c)    to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
    (d)    to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

ANSWER: (A)

78.    How    does    National    Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
    1.    NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
    2.    NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants.
    3.    Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 -only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

79.    The   National  Green  Tribunal  Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1.    Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
    2.    Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
    3.    Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

80.     If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
    1.    Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
    2.    The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
    3.    All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
    4.    The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

81.    Consider   the   following   provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
    1.    Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
    2.    Organizing village Panchayats
    3.    Promoting cottage industries in     rural areas
    4.    Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    (a)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

82.    Consider the following statements:
    1.    Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
    2.    It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
    3.    According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

83.    With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
    2.    When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
    3.    In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

84.    Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
    1.    He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
    2.    He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
    3.    If he/she intends to resign, the letter   of  his/her   resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (B)

85.    Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
    1.    A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2.    A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
    3.    A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
    4.    A dispute between two or more States
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

86.    Consider   the   following   kinds    of organisms :
    1.    Bacteria
    2.    Fungi
    3.    Flowering plants
    Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

87.    Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
    2.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
    3.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

88.    What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
    1.    It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
    2.    It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
    3.    It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

89.    Graphene is   frequently   in   news recently. What is its importance?
    1.    It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
    2.    It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
    3.    It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
    4.    It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

90.    Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
    1.    Smelting units
    2.    Pens and pencils
    3.    Paints
    4.    Hair oils and cosmetics
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

91.    With    reference    to    'stem    cells', frequently   in   the   news,    which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
    2.    Stem  cells  can  be  used  for screening new drugs.
    3.    Stem  cells  can be  used  for medical therapies.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

92.    Consider the following statements :
    Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used
    1.    in   the   production  of plastic foams
    2.    in the production of tubeless tyres
    3.    in cleaning certain electronic components
    4.    as    pressurizing    agents    in aerosol cans
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)     1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

93.    A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?
    1.    It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
    2.    It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
    3.    It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

94.    Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
    1.    Detection of microwaves in space
    2.    Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
    3.    Movement of asteroids in space
    4.    Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 only
    (c)      1, 3 and 4
    (d)     None of the above can be cited as evidence

ANSWER: (B)

95.    Electrically  charged  particles   from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
    (a)    The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
    (b)    Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
    (c)    Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
    (d)      None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

96.    With   reference    to    the    scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
    1.    Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
    2.    Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
    3.    The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
    4.    The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C) 


97.    With reference to the history. of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
    1.    Avoidance   of   extremities   of penance and enjoyment
    2.    Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
    3.    Denial of efficacy of rituals
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

98.    Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
    1.    Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
    2.    Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
    3.    Increasing the government spending on public health
    4.    Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

99.    The  Nagara,  the  Dravida and  the Vesara are the
    (a)    three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
    (b)    three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
    (c)     three   main   styles   of  Indian temple architecture
    (d)    three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

ANSWER: (C)

100.    The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
    (a)    the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
    (b)    emergence of a left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
    (c)    there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
    (d)       None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (D)

World Disaster Report 2010

According to the World Disaster Report 2010 published by the International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC), during the period 2000 to 2009, as many as 85 percent of the people affected by disasters belonged to the Asia Pacific region. The Global Assessment Report 2011 published by the United Nations International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (UN ISDR) estimates that more than 90 percent of the global population exposed to floods live in South Asian, East Asian and the Pacific countries. Among the disaster-prone countries in South Asia, India and Bangladesh are highly vulnerable due to the large population exposed to disasters in India and the geographical, riverine and topographical features of coastal areas of Bangladesh vulnerable to floods and cyclones. In India as many as 200 million people are exposed to recurring floods every year. The high disaster risk and exposure of millions of people in India living in vulnerable areas prone to geological disasters, hydro-meteorological disasters and man-made and technological disasters makes it imperative that a national campaign on mission mode is launched to strengthen disaster preparedness, prevention and mitigation efforts in India.

India ranks 2nd in natural disasters in Asia

India occupies the second position in Asia where the most number of natural disasters occur, according to a senior UN expert. Sixty percent of India’s landmass is susceptible to earthquakes, 14 million hectares are prone to floods and 8000 km of the country’s coastline is prone to cyclones.
The direct losses from natural disasters in India total up to two percent of the national GDP or 12 percent of the central government’s revenues, according to a World Bank report.
Twentyseven states of the country are prone to natural disasters and the World Bank report shows that the country losses a significant chunk of its earnings in disasters. Hence we must work a proactive strategy in dealing with the disasters rather than merely concentrating on disaster response.
According to UN estimates, there were 373 natural disasters across the world in 2010 which killed 296 thousand people and rendered another 20 million homeless. The natural disasters in 2010 cost the world 110 billion US dollars; 77percent of these disasters were geophysical like earthquakes or Tsunami and 19 percent were climatological including cyclones and floods. According to the UN experts, the intensity and frequency of natural disasters in the Indian subcontinent has seen a significant rise in the recent years. “The year 2010 has been recorded as the deadliest year in the last two decades owing to the number of disasters the year has witnessed.

Thursday, May 17, 2012

LAST MINUTE CURRENT AFFAIRS FOR APPSC EXAMS

                                                           

APPSC ASO EXAM SCHEDULE


APPSC GROUP-II VACANCY ADDENDUM


Wednesday, May 16, 2012

IMPORTANT INDEX/ INDIA’S RANKING

1. Human Development Index- 134th
2. World Hunger Index- 67th
3. World Corruption Index-95th
4. World Competitiveness Index- 56th
5. Annual Global Innovation Barometer- 6th

Latest Books and Authors

True Colours — Adam Gilchrist
Storm Over the Sutlej–Akali Politics — A.M. Narang
My Life Struggle — Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Asking for Trouble — Amreek Singh
Sandy Storms — Sandeep Patil
Runs in Ruins — Sunil Gavaskar
Assam-A Valley Divided — Shekhar Gupta
Speaking for My Life — Cherry Blair
The Things About Thugs — Tabish Nair
The Heritage of Sikhs — Harbans Singh
Secular Perception in Sikh Faith — K.M. Duggal
Basanti — Bhishma Sahani
Rich Like Us — Nayantara Sehgal
Reflection on our Time — P.N. Haksar
Hinduism — Nirad C. Chaudhari
Bliss was in that Dawn — Minoo Masani
Netaji and Gandhi — Shashi Ahluwalia
Survivors — Randheer Khare
Alone in the Multitude — Amrita Pritam
Swami and Friends — R.K. Narain
Terrorism in India — Shaileshwar Jha
Struggle For Change — K.B. Lal
The Indian Epics Retold — R. K. Narayan
Indian Drama — Chelapati Rao
The Last Hero — Mihir Bose
You cannot Please every one — Kavita Sarkar
Mrs. Gandhi’s Second Regime — Arun Shourie
The Emerging Developing Countries — P.G. Salve
Pakistan-The Gathering Storms — Benazir Bhutto
The Morarji Papers — Arun Gandhi
The Lord of the Flies — William Goldings
Agnigarbha — Amrat Lal Nagar
World Power — Jonathan Steel
M.N. Roy-The Man — J.B.H. Wadia
We the People — Nani Palkiwala
The Islamic Bomb — Steave Baseman & Herber Cronsne
Portrait of a Lady — Henry James
My India — S. Nihal Singh
View from the U.N. — U. Thant
Inside Third World — V. Harrison
India’s Nuclear Status — Dhirendra Sharma
Indian Women’s Battle for Freedom — Kamala Devi Chattopadhyaya
Indian Cinema — Feeroz Rangoonwala
Cricket My Style — Kapil Dev
Sunny Days — Sunil Gavaskar
By God’s Decree — The Autobiography of Kapil Dev
The Famished Road — Ben Okri
Scarlett — Alexandra Ripley
Freedom from Fear — Aung San Suu Kyi
The Power and the Glory — Graham Green
Against the Grain — Boris Yeltsin
My Childhood Days — Taslima Nasreen
Myth of Mahatma — Michael Edwards
The City of Joy — Dominique Lapierre
God of Small Things — Arundhati Rai
The Tin Drum — Guentar Grass
Development as Freedom — Amartya Sen
Disgrace — J.M. Coetzee
Speed Post — Shobha De
My Century — Guentar Grass
A New World — Amit Chaudhury
Interpreter of Maladies — Jhumpa Lahiri
Soul Mountain — Gao Xingjian
The Brief History of Time — Stephen Hawking
The Transparent Mind — Ingram Smith
The True History of the Kelly Gang — Peter Carey
Bradman’s Best — Rolland Perry
Living History — Hillary Rodham Clinton
Business at the Speed of Thought — Bill Gates
The Impressionist — Hari Kunzru
Ignited Minds — Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Wings of Fire — Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Life of Pi — Yann Martel
Long Walk to Freedom — Nelson Mandela
The Writer and the World — V. N. Naipaul
Two Lives — Vikram Seth
The Family and the Nation — Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam and Acharya Mahapragya
Curfewed Night — Basharat Peer
Sustaining India’s Growth Miracle — Jagdish N. Bhagawati
The Namesake — Jhumpa Lahiri
Straight From the Heart — Kapil Dev
My Life — Bill Clinton
Magic Seeds — V. S. Naipaul
To a Hunger Free World — Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
The Line of Beauty — Alan Hollinghurst
The Piano Teacher — Elfriede Jelinek
Shalimar, the Clown — Salman Rushdie
The Sea — John Banville
Guiding Souls : Dialogues on the — Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Purpose of Life — with Arun K. Tiwari
Identity and Violence : The Illusion of Destiny — Prof. Amartya Sen
The Last Moghul — William Darlymple
In the Line of Fire : A Memoire — Parvez Musharraf
Mohandas : A True Story of a Man, Once Upon a Time in the Soviet Union — Dominique Lapierre
My Country My Life — L. K. Advani
Jinnah : India-Partition-Independence — Jaswant Singh
Humbling — Philip Roth
The Museum of Innocence — Orphan Pamuk
Arming the Indian Arsenal — Deb Mohanty
The Year of the Flood — Margaret Atwood
The Post American World — Farid Zakaria
Yours Sincerely — Natwar Singh
The British, the Bandits and the Bordermen — P.V. Rajgopal
After the Ice : Life, Death and Geopolitics in the New Arctic — Alun Anderson
A Tale of Two Revolts : India 1857 and the American Civil War — Rajmohan Gandhi
The Red Sari — Javier Moro
The Fragrance of Forgotten Years — Bilkees Latif
Securing the State — David Omand
Before Memory Fades — Autobiography : Fali S. Nariman
Obama’s Wars — Bob Woodward
Convenient Action : Gujarat’s Response to Challenges of Climate Change — Narendra Modi
Decision Points — George W. Bush
Civil Disobedience — L. C. Jain

Tuesday, May 15, 2012

APPSC Group I Preliminary Hall Tickets

Download APPSC Group I Preliminary Hall Tickets 

Cyclones

A tropical cyclone is  an intense  low pressure area or a whirl in the atmosphere over tropical or sub-tropical waters, with organised convection (i.e. thunderstorm activity) and winds at low levels, circulating either anti-clockwise (in the northern hemisphere) or clockwise (in the southern hemisphere).  From the centre of a cyclonic storm, pressure increases outwards.  The amount of the pressure drop in the centre and the rate at which it increases outwards gives the intensity of the cyclones and the strength of winds.
As per the criteria adopted by the World Meteorological Organisation (W.M.O.), India Meteorological Department classifies the low pressure systems in the Bay of Bengal and in the Arabian Sea   into 7 classes. Low pressure areas with maximum sustained surface winds of speed between 31 & 61 km.p.h. (17 to 33 knots) are called tropical depressions. 
  Once the winds around the low pressure area reach at least 62 km.p.h, it is called a tropical cyclone and is assigned a name.  When wind speed is between 89 & 118 km.p.h (48 & 63 kt) it will be a Severe Cyclonic Storm (SCS), between 119 & 221 km.p.h (64 & 119 kt) it is Very SCS and when exceeds 221 km.p.h (119 knots), the cyclone is called a Super Cyclonic Storm. Kerala coast have been affected by low pressure systems upto the category of severe cyclonic storm (max. wind speed 118 km.p.h)

How do  cyclones form?
Tropical cyclones require certain conditions for their formation.  These are
  • A source of warm, moist air derived from tropical oceans with sea surface temperature normally near to or in excess of 27 °C
  • Winds near the ocean surface blowing from different directions converging and causing air to rise and storm clouds to form
  • Winds which do not vary greatly with height - known as low wind shear. This allows the storm clouds to rise vertically to high levels; 
  • Coriolis force / spin induced by the rotation of the Earth. The formation mechanisms vary across the world, but once a cluster of storm clouds starts to rotate, it becomes a tropical depression. If it continues to develop it becomes a tropical storm, and later a cyclone/ super cyclone.
Naming of Cyclones
Tropical cyclones are named to provide ease of communication between forecasters and the general public regarding forecasts and warnings. Since the storms can often last a week or even longer and more than one cyclone can be occurring in the same region at the same time, names can reduce the confusion about what storm is being described.
Names were first used in World War II and were subsequently adopted by all regions. In most regions pre-determined alphabetic lists of alternating male and female names are used. However, in the north-west Pacific the majority of names used are not personal names. While there are a few male and female names, majority are names of flowers, animals, birds, trees, foods or descriptive adjectives. By the mid-1960s names were used for all tropical storms except those in the North Indian Ocean . The names currently in use and those to be used in future years are listed.  Various meteorological organisations have responsibility of naming them.
The names of cyclones in Indian Seas are not allocated in alphabetical order, but are arranged by the name of the country which contributed the name. It is usual practice for a storm to be named when it reaches tropical storm strength (winds of 34 knots).The list of names to be used for the North Indian Seas is given below:
The names selected  for North Indian Ocean cyclones from 2004 onwards
 IIIIII IV
Contributed byNameNameNameName
BangladeshOnilOgni (2006)Nisha(2008)Giri
IndiaAgni (2004)AkashBijliJal(2010)
MaldivesHibaruGonuAilaKeila
Myanmar PyarrYemyinPhyanThane(2011)
OmanBaazSidr (2007)Ward (2009)Mujan
PakistanFanoos (2005)Nargis  LailaNilam
Sri LankaMalaRashmiBanduMahasen
ThailandMukdaKhai-Muk Phet Phailin
 VVIVIIVIII
Contributed byNameNameNameName
Bangladesh Helen ChapalaOckhi Fani
IndiaLehar MeghSagar Vayu
Maldives MadiRoanuMekunuHikaa
Myanmar Na-nauk Kyant Daye Kyarr
Oman Hudhud Nada Luban Maha
Pakistan NilofarVardah Titli Bulbul
Sri Lanka Priya Asiri GigumSoba
ThailandKomenMora PhethaiAmphan
The names in the list are being used sequentially. The first name in any given year is the one immediately following the last name from the previous year. The year is included in parentheses after the last name used in that year.

CYCLONES : TYPES, CAUSES, DO’S AND DON’TS

Cyclones are caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. They are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere. Cyclones are classified as: (i) extra tropical cyclones (also called  temperate cyclones); and (ii) tropical cyclones.
The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO, 1976) uses the term ‘tropical cyclone’ to cover weather systems in which winds exceed ‘gale force’ (minimum of 34 knots or 63 Kph). Tropical cyclones are the progeny of ocean and atmosphere, powered by the heat from the sea, driven by the easterly trades and temperate westerlies, the high planetary winds and their own fierce energy.
In India, cyclones are classified due to the:

Strength of the associated winds,
Storm surge and
Exceptional rainfall occurrences.

Extra tropical cyclones occur in temperate zones and high latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the polar regions. Cyclones that developin the regions between the tropics of Capricorn and Cancer are called tropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems developing over tropical or subtropical waters, where they get organized into surface wind circulation. Cyclones are given many names in different regions of the world – they are known  as typhoons in the China Sea and Pacific Ocean; hurricanes in the West Indian islands in the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean; tornados in the Guinea lands of West Africa and the southern USA.; willy-willies in north-western Australia and tropical cyclones in the Indian Ocean. The word cyclone  is derived from the Greek word `Cyclos’ meaning the coils of a snake. It was coined by Henry Peddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and in the Arabian Sea appeared like the coiled serpents of the sea.

The criteria below has been formulated by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), which classifies the low pressure systems in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea on the basis of the capacity to damage, which is adopted by the WMO.

Type of Disturbances Wind Speed in Km/h Wind Speed in Knots
Low Pressure Lees than 31 Less than 17
Depression 31-49 17-27
Deep Depression 49-61 27-33
Cyclonic Storm 61-88 33-47
Severe Cyclonic Storm 88-117 47-63
Very Sever Cyclonic Storm 117-220 63-119
Super Cyclone More than 221 More than 120
1 knot – 1.85 km per hour
Cyclones are classified into five different levels on the basis of wind speed. They are further divided into the following categories according to their damage capacity.
Cyclone Category Wind Speed in Km/h Damage Capacity
01 120-150 Minimal
02 150-180 Moderate
03 180-210 Extensive
04 210-250 Extreme
05 250 and above Catastrophic
Storm surges (tidal waves) are defined as the rise in sea level above the normally predicted astronomical tide. The major factors include:
A fall in the atmospheric pressure over the sea surface
The effect of the wind
The influence of the sea bed
A funnelling effect
The angle and speed at which the storm approaches the coast
The tides
The very high specific humidity condenses into exceptionally large raindrops and giant cumulus clouds, resulting in high precipitation rates. When a cyclone makes landfall, the rain rapidly saturates the catchment areas and the rapid runoff may extensively flood the usual water sources or create new ones.

How Cyclones are formed
The development cycle of tropical cyclones may be divided into three stages:

i) Formation and Initial Development Stage
The formation/ initial development of a cyclonic storm depends upon various conditions. These are:
A warm sea (temperature in excess of 26 degrees Celsius to a depth of 60 m) with abundant and turbulent transfer of water vapour to the overlying atmosphere by evaporation.
Atmospheric instability encourages formation of massive vertical cumulus clouds due to convection with condensation of rising air above ocean surface.

ii) Mature Tropical Cyclones
When the tropical storm intensifies, the air rises in vigorous thunderstorms and tends to spread out horizontally at the tropopause level. Once air spreads out, a positive perturbation pressure at high levels is produced, which accelerates the downward motion of air due to convection. With the inducement of subsidence, air warms up by compression and a warm ‘eye’ is generated. Generally, the ‘eye’ of the storms has three basic shapes: (a) circular; (b) concentric; and (c) elliptical. The main physical feature of a mature tropical cyclone in the Indian Ocean is a concentric pattern of highly turbulent giant cumulus thundercloud bands.

iii) Modification and Decay
A tropical cyclone begins to weaken in terms of its central low pressure, internal warmth and extremely high speeds, as soon as its source of warm moist air begins to ebb, or is abruptly cut off. This happens after the landfall or when it passes  over cold waters. The weakening of a cyclone does not mean the danger to life and property is over.

Indian Context

The Indian subcontinent is one of the worst affected regions in the world. The subcontinent with a long coastline of 8041 kilometre is exposed to nearly 10 per cent of the world’s tropical cyclones. Of these, the majority have their initial genesis over the Bay of Bengal and strike the east coast of India. On an average, five to six tropical cyclones form every year, of which two  or three could be severe. More cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal than the Arabian Sea and the ratio is approximately 4:1. Cyclones occur frequently on both the coasts (The west coast – Arabian Sea; and the east coast – Bay of Bengal). An analysis of the frequency of cyclones on the east and west coasts of India  between 1891 and 1990 shows that nearly 262 cyclones occurred (92 severe) in a 50 km wide strip on the east coast. Less severe cyclonic activity has been noticed on the west coast, with 33 cyclones occurringin the same period, out of which 19  of these were severe.
Tropical cyclones occur in the months of May-June and October-November. The cyclones of severe intensity and frequency in the north Indian Ocean are bi-modal in character, with their primary peak in November and secondary peak in May.  The disaster potential is particularly high at the time of landfall in the north Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea) due to the accompanying destructive wind, storm surges and torrential rainfall.  Of these, storm surges are the greatest killers of a cyclone, by which sea water inundates low lying areas of coastal regions and causes heavy floods, erodes beaches and embankments, destroys vegetation and reduces soil fertility.
Cyclones vary in diameter from 50 to 320 km but their effects dominate thousands of square kilometers of ocean surface and the lower atmosphere. The perimeter may measure 1,000 km but the powerhouse is located within the 100-km radius. Nearer the eye, winds may hit 320 kmph. Thus tropical cyclones, characterized by destructive winds, torrential rainfall and storm surges disrupt normal life with accompanying the phenomena of floods due to the exceptional level of rainfall and storm surge inundation into inland areas. Cyclones are characterized by their devastating potential to damage structures, viz. houses; lifeline infrastructure-power and communication towers; hospitals; food storage facilities; roads, bridges and culverts; crops etc. The most fatalities come from storm surges and the torrential rain  flooding  the lowland areas of the coastal territories.

CYCLONES – Do’s & Dont’s

The actions that need to be taken in the event of a cyclone threat can broadly be divided into four classes, viz., (i) immediately before the cyclone season; (ii) when cyclone alerts and warnings are on;(iii) when evacuations are advised; and (iv) when the cyclone has crossed the coast.
(i) Before the Cyclone season: 

Check the house; secure loose tiles, carry out repair works for doors and windows
Remove dead woods or dying trees close to the house; anchor removable objects like lumber piles, loose tin sheds, loose bricks, garbage cans, sign-boards etc. which can fly in strong winds
Keep some wooden boards ready so that glass windows can be boarded if needed
Keep a hurricane lantern filled with kerosene, battery operated torches and enough dry cells
Demolish condemned buildings
Keep some extra batteries for transistors
Keep some dry non-perishable food always ready for emergency use
(ii) When the Cyclone starts
Listen to the radio (All India Radio stations give weather warnings).
Keep monitoring the warnings. This will help you to prepare for a cyclone emergency.
Pass on the information to others.
Ignore rumours and do not spread them; this will help to avoid panic situations.
Believe in the official information
When a cyclone alert is on for your area continue normal working but stay alert to the radio warnings.
Remember that a cyclone alert means that the danger is within 24 hours. Stay alert.
When your area is under cyclone warning get away from low-lying beaches or other low-lying areas close to the coast
Leave early before your way to high ground or shelter gets flooded
Do not delay and run the risk of being marooned
If your house is securely built on high ground take shelter in the safer part of the house. However, if asked to evacuate do not hesitate to leave the place.
Board up glass windows or put storm shutters in place.
Provide strong suitable support for outside doors.
If you do not have wooden boards handy, paste paper strips on glasses to prevent splinters. However, this may not avoid breaking windows.
Get extra food, which can be eaten without cooking. Store extra drinking water in suitably covered vessels.
If you are to evacuate the house move your valuable articles to upper floors to minimize flood damage.
Have hurricane lantern, torches or other emergency lights in working conditions and keep them handy.
Small and loose things, which can fly in strong winds, should be stored safely in a room.
Be sure that a window and door can be opened only on the side opposite to the one facing the wind.
Make provision for children and adults requiring special diets.
If the centre of the cyclone is passing directly over your house there will be a lull in the wind and rain lasting for half and hour or so. During this time do not go out; because immediately after that very strong winds will blow from the opposite direction.
Switch off electrical mains in your house.
Remain calm.
(iii) When Evacuation is instructed
Pack essentials for yourself and your family to last you a few days, including medicines, special foods for babies and children or elders.
Head for the proper shelter or evacuation points indicated for your area.
Do not worry about your property
At the shelter follow instructions of the person in charge.
Remain in the shelter until you have been informed to leave
(iv) Post-cyclone measures
You should remain in the shelter until informed that you can return to your home.
You must get inoculated against diseases immediately.
Strictly avoid any loose and dangling wires from the lamp posts.
If you are to drive, drive carefully.
Clear debris from your premises immediately.
Report the correct loss to appropriate authorities.
Source : NDMA

Bangladesh Cyclones

(chronological order)
Cyclone 1960 Cyclone and tidal wave hit the Gulf of Bengal and killed about 6,000 people, 10 October 1960.
Cyclone 1963 Killed about 22,000 people along coast of the Bay of Bengal, 20-23 May 1963.
Cyclone 1965 I Killed some 12,000 people, 11-12 May 1965.
Cyclone 1965 II Second cyclone in less than a month killed 35,000 people along the Ganges River, 1-2 June 1965.
Bhola Cyclone 240 KPH cyclone made landfall on the East Pakistan coastline during the evening of 12 November 1970, around the same time as a local high tide, killing an estimated 300,000 to 500,000 people. Though the exact death toll is not known, it is considered the deadliest tropical cyclone on record. The highest loss of life and destruction occurred on the low lying islands of the Ganges Delta south of Dhaka. In particular the island and district of Bhola, where casualties may have exceeded 100,000 alone, with the towns of Charfasson and Tazumuddin being devastated. The city of Chittagong was also badly affected. The official death toll was put at 150,000, with 100,000 people missing. However many estimates put the true figure as high as 500,000, 12-13 November 1970.
  1. Bhola cyclone impact Week after the landfall, President Khan conceded that his government had made "slips" and "mistakes" in its handling of the relief efforts for a lack of understanding of the magnitude of the disaster.
  2. East Pakistan reaction Statement released by eleven political leaders in East Pakistan ten days after the cyclone hit, charged the government with "gross neglect, callous indifference and utter indifference". They also accused the president of playing down the magnitude of the problem in news coverage. On 19 November 1970, students held a march in Dhaka protesting the slowness of the government response. Maulana Abdul Hamid Khan Bhashani addressed a rally of 50,000 people on 24 November 1970, where he accused the president of inefficiency and demanded his resignation.
Cyclone 1974 Cyclone and floods ravaged Bangladesh and some 4,000 were killed, 15 August 1974.
Cyclone 1985 Cyclone ravaged the Meghna River delta of Bangladesh. Some 10,000 people and 500,000 head of cattle died; hundreds of thousands were left homeless, 25 May 1985.
Cyclone 1988 At least 1300 were killed after a cyclone hit Bangladesh. Half a million were left homeless, 1 December 1988.
Hurricane 1989 Hurricane in Bangladesh killed 500, 27 April 1989.
Cyclone 1991 Cyclonic tidal wave kills up to 138,000, 9 million were left homeless. Thousands of survivors died from hunger and water borne disease. 30-31 April 1991.
Severe storm 1996 Severe storm in north Bangladesh killed at least 447 and injured more than 50,000 in the district of Tangail. Winds had surged to 125 mph, 13 May 1996.
Cyclone 1997 Cyclone pounded the country and 50,000 people were evacuated from the flat coastal region. As many as 350 people were reported killed, 18-19 May 1997.
Cyclone 2000 At least 60 people were killed in Bangladesh by a cyclone that hit the Bay of Bengal, November 2000.
Cyclone Sidr Raced up the Bay of Bengal with winds of 150mph, triggering a five meter (15ft) high tidal wave that washed away three coastal towns, demolished houses, crops, trees and shrimp farms. The number of homes destroyed was estimated to be more than 750,000. Many ships were missing. It is estimated that at least half the coastal crop was destroyed in a matter of hours. Deaths spiralled above 3,000, with fears that thousands more bodies have yet to be found. 15 November 2007.

Monday, May 14, 2012

Celebrating 60 years of Indian Parliament

India has long history and there are many historic events to remember.   13th May 2012, is another day, a day on which the  Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha,  are holding special sittings celebrating the 60th anniversary of the first session of Indian Parliament.   After becoming a Republic, the first general elections were held in 1951-52 ; Lok Sabha was constituted on April 17, 1952 and the Lok Sabha held its first session, a month later, on May 13th  statistically, the first Lok Sabha’s tenure was 17th April 1952 to 4th April 1957. Can you recall the names of the first Speak and Deputy Sepaker of the Lok Sabha. 

Commemorating 60 years, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh will initiate the debate in the Rajya Sabha while Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee will do it in the Lok Sabha. Besides prominent members from all sides, independents are also being accomodated in the over five-hour discussion. A few living members of the first Lok Sabha, including Reishang Keishing and Resham Lal Jangde, will be honoured on the occasion.  91-year-old Reishang Keishing, now a member of the Rajya Sabha, was member of the first and third Lok Sabhas. Jangde was member of first, second and ninth Lok Sabhas. Both the Houses of Parliament will meet at 11.00 am and will conclude the discussions at 4.30 pm.   In the evening, President Pratibha Patil will address a joint sitting of both Houses in the Central Hall. Vice President and Rajya Sabha Chairman Hamid Ansari, the Prime Minister and Kumar will also address the joint sitting. 

Coins of Rs 5 and Rs 10 denomination to mark the occasion along with a special stamp are being released as also  three books published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat — Members’ Introduction: First Lok Sabha; Speakers of Lok Sabha and ’60 years of the Lok Sabha.  There is also to be a cultural programme featuring Santoor maestro Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma, Sitarist Debu Chaudhuri, Carnatic vocalist Maharajapuram Ramachandran, versatile singer Shubha Mudgal and Iqbal Khan.

The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. Just as the House of Lords and House of commons in UK, Indian parliament  is bicameral with its two Houses, Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).   The two Houses meet in separate chambers in the Sansad Bhavan (located on the Sansad Marg), in New Delhi. The Members of either house are commonly referred to as Members of Parliament or MP. The MPs of Lok Sabha are elected by direct election and the MPs of Rajya Sabha are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies and Union territories of Delhi and Pondicherry only in accordance with proportional voting. The Parliament is composed of 790 MPs, who serve the largest democratic electorate in the world. 

Every Indian can have a justifiable sense of pride on the completion of six significant decades of Parliamentary democracy.  Our PM Manmohan Singh called Rajya Sabha as the house of elders  - an  institution whose deliberations over the years have enriched our parliamentary democracy, nurtured the strength of our federal polity and served as a bulwark against the transient impulses of the moment.

Parliament is not only a legtistlative but a deliberative body. The bodies have been repository  of wisdom and have passed landmark legislations from land reforms to nationalisation of banks.  The resilience of our pluralistic democracy is the proudest achievement of the Indian state and Indian people. The people of India have repeatedly and regularly reposed their faith in the institutions of parliamentary democracy.    When India gained independence, some were critical of its success questioning its size, variety and vastness – the Institutions have  weathered many storms and have successfully stood up winning the test of time, which augurs well the for the Nation

History has it that the Parliament house had various plans from triangular to a Roman colosseum like structure but eventually settled to be its present circular designed colonnaded verandah, with 144 pillars and 560 feet diameter. The foundation stone of the council House was laid on February 12, 1921 by the Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught, third son of Queen Victoria.  The building spread over nearly six acres was inaugurated on January 18, 1927 by then Governor-General of India, Lord Irwin. It is now commonly known as Sansad Bhavan.

The First Speaker of the First Lok Sabha was Shri G.V. Mavalankar  (15.5.1952 - 27.2.1956), succeeded by Shri M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar  (8.3.1956 - 10.5.1957 and 11.5.1957 - 16.4.1962).  Sardar Hukam Singh succeeded the first Deputy Speaker Shri M Ananthasayanam Iyengar in 1956.  The First secretary was Mr MN Kaul.    Read that the first thing that the Parliament did was an act to give  land to the landless through Land reforms Act.   It was a place of high moral rectitude -  Lal Bahadur Shashtri quit as Railways Minister from Jawaharlal Nehru's Cabinet after an accident.