INDIAN HISTORY MCQs

1. The British Government declared to leave India in any case before June, 1948 in—
(A) 1946A.D.
(B) February 1947 A.D.
(C) April 1947 A.D.
(D) June 1947 A.D.
Ans. (A)
2. The Muslim league demanded a separate home land for the Indian Muslims openly for the first time at its annual session
held in Lahore in the year—
(A) 1938A.D.
(B) 1939A.D.
(C) 1940A.D.
(D) 1941A.D.
Ans. (C)
3. Match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List—I
(Congress sessions)
(a) Lucknow session, 1916
(b) Lahore session, 1929
(c) Karachi session, 1931
(d) Faizpur session, 1936
List—II
(Ideological formulations)
1. Full Democracy
2. Congress-League Pact
3. Puma Swaraj Resolutions
4. Adoption of Fundamental Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (B)
4. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movements in India in the Frist Quarter of the 20th Centuary?
1. Influenëe of British Labour Movement
2. Russian Revolution of 1917
3. Rise in cost of living
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans. (A)
5. According to the Cabinet Mission an Interim National Government was formed at the Centre and the Constituent Assembly
held its First Session on—
(A) 9 December, 1946
(B) 8 December, 1946
(C) 7 December, 1946
(D) 6 December, 1946
Ans. (A)
6. Who among the following is considered to be the father of the Idea of Pakistan?
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Rahmat Ali
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmad Khan
Ans. (A)
7. Consider the following passage :
“His records proclaim him as a feudatory of the emperor Somesvara III. He was his capitals at Talakad in the South and Bankpura in
the North. It was in A. D. 1137 that he performed the great ceremony of Tulapurusha.”
The above passage refers to —
(A) Mayursarman
(B) Ananta Varman Chodaganga
(C) Yayati Mahashivgupta-I
(D) Vishnuvardhana
Ans. (D)
8. “Service was his portion in life”. This was applicable to —
(A) Buddhist Bhikshu
(B) Vaisya Varna
(C) Sudra Varna
(D) Chandala
Ans. (C)
9. Megasthenese States —”There was no slavery in India.” This statement must have been made because —
(A) There was absence of slavery in India
(B) Slavery was not prevalent in India in the extreme from as he be had seen in Greece
(C) He moved only with the king and elites in the capital
(D) He work this on hearsay
Ans. (B)
10. “Amongst his great nobles he (the king) was so predominant that none dare lift his head too high but with the humble classes he
was benevolent and debonair, willingly giving them audience and hearing their petitions. He was pleased to accept their presents,
taking them into his hands and holding them to his breast.”
Consider the question given above and indicate who it is attributed to and who was the king referred to in it —
(A) Monserrate — Akbar
(B) Tavernier — Jahangir
(C) Fitch — Shahjahan
(D) Hawkings — Aurangazeb
Ans. (A)
11. “Why should the neglected state of this land create uneasiness in our minds and why should we expend our money and time to
vender it fruitful ? We may be deprived of it in a single moment, and our exertions would benefit neither ourselves nor our
children.”
The above statement was made by —
(A) Akbar
(B) Monserrate
(C) Tavernier
(D) Bernier
Ans. (D)
12. The statement that “If by worshipping stones one can find God, I shall worship a mountain”, was made by —
(A) Ramananda
(B) Namdev
(C) Guru Nanak
(D) Kabir
Ans. (D)
13. “I issue such order to the people as I consider to be beneficial for them and the State. I do not know whether they are permitted by
the Shariat or not”. This was said by —
(A) Jalaluddin Khilji
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(D) Muhammad Tughluq
Ans. (B)
14. “No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste, or to exchange are profession or trade for another or to follow more than
business.” This observation was made by —
(A) Megasthenese
(B) Fa Hien
(C) Hiuen-Tsaing
(D) Alberuni
Ans. (D)
15. Every pearl in the Royal crown is but the crystallized drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of the Poor Peasant.
The above remark about the poverty of the Indian Peasants during the Delhi sultanate was made by —
(A) Ziauddin Barani
(B) Ibn Batuta
(C) Minhajuddin Siraj
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans. (B)
16. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with deligence.” These words are attributed to —
(A) Krishna
(B) Mahavira
(C) The Buddha
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans. (C)
17. “There was little sympathy in spite of loud professions of loyalty. Moderate and extremist alike learnt with satisfaction of German
Victories. There was no love for Germany of course, only the desire to see our rulers humbled.” Who among the following wrote
this?
(A) C.R.Das
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Ravindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (B)
18. Panchsheel was declared by India and China in—
(A) 1952A.D.
(B) 1953A.D.
(C) 1954A.D.
(D) 1955A.D.
Ans. (C)
`9. Who worked for the upliftment of Ezhavazas in Kerla in 20th century?
(A) Naicker
(B) Narayan Guru
(C) C .N. Annadurai
(D) C. Raju
Ans. (B)
20. The university Grants Commission was constituted in 1953 A.D. which among the followmg first recommended for it?
(A) The Hartog Committee 1929.A.D.
(B) Sargeant Plan of Education, 1944 AD.
(C) Radha Krishan Commission, 1948—49 AD.
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
21. Which one was not a principle of the Panchsheel?
(A) World peace and International Co-operation
(B) Respect for each other’s Territory and Sovereignty
(C) Non-aggression
(D) Equality and Mutual benefit
Ans. (A)
22. The first tri-colour flag was hoisted on—
(A) 3lstJanauary, 1928
(B) 31st December, 1929
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947
Ans. (B)
23. Who were the leaders of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Mohd. Ali
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans. (C)
24. What was the net gain of Non-co-operation Movement?
(A) Removed fear of the Britishers from the minds of the people
(B) Weakened the British government
(C) Brought National Unity
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
25. How did the British Government react to the Wardha Resolution?
(A) They gave their counter proposals
(B) They banned the Congress party
(C) The leaders were arrested
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
26. Which, among the following, Round Table Conferences held in London, was attended by M.K. Gandhi as the sole representative
of the Congress?
(A) 1st in 1930 A.D.
(B) 2nd in 193l A.D.
(C) 3rd in 1932 A.D.
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
27. Who was the first Muslim to preside over the session of Indian National Congres?
(A) Badruddin Tyaibji
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Liaqat Ali
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmed Khan
Ans. (A)
28. Which among the following, Indians Political parties, decided to co-operate with the working of the Simon Commission?
(A) The Hindu Mahasabha
(B) All India Muslim league
(C) National Liberal Federation
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
29. On 23rd ‘March 1940. The Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Hyderabad session
(B) Karachi session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
30. The “call of deliverance day” was given by—
(A) The Muslim League
(B) The Congress
(C) The Hindu Mahasabha
(D) The Communist Party
Ans. (A)
31. In which year All India Muslim League was founded?
(A) 1904A.D.
(B) 1905A.D.
(C) 1906A.D.
(D) 1909A.D.
Ans. (C)
32. On 23rd March 1940, the Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Karachi session
(B) Hyderabad session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
33. 1951, Saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war so for the Modern Indian History—
(A) Bombay
(B) Noakhali
(C) Tebhaga
(D) Telengana
Ans. (D)
34. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Sir Stafford Cripps
(C) Lord Pethic-Lowrence
(D) A.V. Alexander
Ans. (A)
35. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year —
(A) 1932
(B) 1930
(C) 1932
(D) 1925
Ans. (B)

APPSC GROUP-II INDIAN ECONOMY PRACTICE MCQs

1.The concept of ‘costing margin’ in the pricing theory was introduced by?
(A)Andrews
(B) Baumol
(C)Cournot
(D) Williamson
2.The Keynesian theory of employment provides the solution of?
(A) Frictional unemployment
(B) Disguised unemployment
(C) Cyclical unemployment
(D) Seasonal unemployment
3. Four heads of expenditure of the Union Budget 2009-10 are given
below—
1. Plan expenditure
2. Non-plan expenditure
3. Revenue expenditure
4. Capital expenditure
Arrange the expenditure heads in descending order using the codes
given below
(A)2,3,4,1
(B) 3,4,2, 1
(C)3,2,1,4
(D) 2,1,4,3
4. In the year 2007-08 the per capita NNP at current prices was?
(A) More than Rs. 20,000
(B) More than Rs. 30,000
(C) More than Rs. 40,000
(D) More than Rs. 50,000
5. Mathematics was first used economic theory by?
(A)Weiser
(B) Walras
(C)Cournot
(D) Pigou

6. India’s foreign exchange rate system is?
(A) Free float
(B) Managed float
(C) Fixed
(D) Fixed target of band
7. The terms ‘NEER’ and ‘REER’ are related with?
(A) Foreign exchange rate
(B) External economic resources:
(C) National and regional economic equality
(D) Environmental regulation
8. For the calculation of percentile, the data should be arranged in?
(A) Ascending order
(B) Descending order
(C) Random order
(D) Either random or descending order
9. As per BASEL-II norms, a bank’s capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) should be at least?
(A) 8%
(B) 10%
(C) 12%
(D) 14%
10. The shape of a frequency curve cannot be?
(A) U-shaped
(B) V Shaped
(C) J-shaped
(D) S-shaped
11. According to the Planning Cornmission, for infrastructure development during Eleventh Five Year Plan, the required investment is?
(A) Approximately $ 250 billion
(B) Approximately $ 500 billion
(C) Approximately $ 750 billion
(D) Approximately $ 1000 billion
12. India’s first port-based Special Economic Zone named Inter national Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTI) is being set-up at?
(A)Kandla
(B) Kochi
(C)Goa
(D) Tuticorin
13. Which of the following is pure unitless number?
(A) Mathematical average
(B) Statistical average
(C) Absolute measure of dispersion
(D) Relative measure of dispersion
14.The user cost of capital is?
(A) The real rate of interest plus the rate of depreciation
(B) The nominal rate of interest plus the rate of depreciation
(C) The real rate of interest only
(D) The nominal rate of interest only
15. The number of items reserved for the exclusive manufacture by micro and small enterprises is currently?
(A) Less than 25
(B) Less than 50
(C) Less than 75
(D) Less than 100
16.A new housing price index RESIDEX has been launched by?
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Housing Development Finance Corporation
(D) National Housing Bank
(A) Central Statistical Organization

17.Which one of the following is not a feature of current Indian Planning?
(A) Structural Planning
(B) Indicative Planning
(C) Functional Planning
(D) Decentralised Planning
18.The concept of disinvestment was introduced by?
(A) Friedman
(B) Kaldor
(C)Keynes
(D) Myrdal
19. Which of the following is average of second order?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Geometric mean
(C) Second quartile
(D) Standard deviation
20.. Which average is most affected by the extreme observations?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Geometric mean
(C) Median
(D) Mode
21.If the covariance of two variables is equal to the product of the standard deviations of the variables, then the correlation
coefficient will be?
(A) -1
(B)+1
(C) 0
(D) Between 0 and -1
22 The term ‘Animal Spirit’ was used by Keynes for?
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment
(C) Income
(D) Interest
23. The index of Financial Inclusion has been launched for the first time in 2008 by?
(A) Confederation of Indian Industries (CII)
(B) Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
(C) National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER)
(D) Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER)
24.The elasticity of factor substitution for constant elasticity substitution production function is always?
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) A positive value
(D) A negative value
25.The Revealed Preference theory assumes?
(A) Weak ordering
(B) Strong ordering
(C) Constant ordering
(D) Multiple ordering
26. Which of the following is not an item of transfer payment?
(A)Pension
(B) Scholarship
(C)Dividend
(D) Subsidy
27 The United Nation’s Millennium Development Goals are to be reached by the year?
(A) 2010
(B) 2015
(C) 2020
(D) 2025
28.The number of women entrepreneurs in small scale industrial region is highest in the state of?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
29. Which of the following is not an effect of lump sum tax imposed on monopolist?
(A) Output sold is unchanged
(B) Price is unchanged
(C) Profit reduces
(D) Incidence of tax is wholly on buyer
30. A distributed lag for net investment may be due to?
(A) A decrease in the capital output ratio
(B) An increase in the capital output ratio
(C) Limited, short-run production capabilities in capital goods industry
(D) Limited long-run production capabilities in capital goods industry
31. The concept of Adjusted Net Saving has been given by?
(A)Hamilton
(B) Friedman
(C)Keynes
(D) Pigou
32. The product of regression coefficients is always?
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) A complex number
33. The nature of classical unemployment is?
(A) Disguised
(B) Frictional
(C)Open
(D) Structural
34. Which one of the following properties shows the high degree of dispersion?
(A) Homogeneity
(B) Consistency
(C) Uniformity
(D) Variability
35. The New Exploration License Policy (NELP) of the Government of India is related with?
(A) Coal and Lignite
(B)Uranium and Thorium
(C) Diamond and Precious Stones
(D) Oil and Gas
36.Full employment is a situation when?
(A) Cyclical unemployment is zero
(B) Frictional unemployment is zero
(C) Seasonal unemployment is zero
(D) Disguised unemployment is zero
37.Which Indian Company has been included for the first time in U.S. A’s index NASDAQ-100?
(A)Infosys
(B)Tata Motors
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited
38.The natural rate of unemploy ment is the sum of?
(A) Frictional unemployment and Structural unemployment
(B) Frictional unemployment and Cyclical unemployment
(C) Structural unemployment and Cyclical unemployment
(D) Structural unemployment and Seasonal unemployment
39.The nature of statistical inference is?
(A) Inductive
(B) Deductive
(C) Descriptive
(D) Objective
40. Mean deviation is always?
(A) Equal to the standard deviation than the standard
(B) Less than the standard deviation
(C) More than the standard deviation
(D) Twice of the standard deviation
41. The coefficient of alienation is known as?
(A) Against correlation
(B) Against variance
(C) Against association
(D) Against determination
42. The Divergence Indicator is related with?
(A) Wage rate of workers
(B) Exchange rate of currencies
(C) Profit of firms
(D) Market price of shares
43.Which one of the following taxes has not been abolished in recent Union Budgets?
(A) Banking Cash Transaction
(B) Commodity Transaction Tax
(C) Fringe Benefit Tax
(D) Securities Transaction Tax
44.The Samuelson-Holt formula provides a measure of?
(A) Consumer’s equilibrium
(B) Consumer’s surplus
(C) Elasticity of demand
(D) Marginal utility
45. The most liquid asset among the following is?
(A) Gold
(B) Share
(C)Cash
(D) Land
46. Ricardian Equivalence’ is related with?
(A) Low deficit, less saving
(B) Low deficit, more saving
(C) High deficit, less saving
(D) High deficit, more saving
47. The ‘Swiss Formula’ of World Trade Organisation is related with?
(A) Patent of drugs
(B) Agricultural subsidy
(C) Transboundary services
(D) Non-agricultural tariff
48. The Securities and Exchange Board of India has recently made the rating of Initial Public offerings mandatory. The total number of such grades are?
(A)Three
(B) Four
(C)Five
(D) Six
49. Consider the following statement—
“Once a person has spent his entire income, he would have maximized his total pleasure from it only if the satisfaction gained from the last item of each commodity bought was the same for the each commodity.”
The above statement is related to?
(A) Gossen’s First Law
(B) Gossen’s Second Law
(C) Gossen’s Third Law
(D) Gossen’s Fourth Law
50. Which of the following results in an increase in inventory sales ratio?
(A) A decrease in the cost of holding inventory
(B) An increase in probability delivery delays for materials
(C) A decrease in the probability delivery delays for materials
(D) An increase in the cost of: holding inventory
51. Harris-Todaro model is related with?
(A) Growth and unemployment
(B) Growth and migration
(C) Unemployment and migration
(D) Unemployment and inflation
52. Density test is used for?
(A) Median
(B) Mean
(C) Mode
(D) Quartile
53. In the Keynesian saving function, the parameter is ?
(A) Disposable income
(B) Total saving
(C) Marginal propensity to save
(D) Autonomous saving
54. A simple correlation can defined as the tendency of?
(A) Independent variation
(B) Dependent variation
(C) Simultaneous variation
(D) Instantaneous variation
55.For implementing a comprehensive Khadi Reform Programme, a financial aid of $ I million over a period of three years has recently been tied up with?
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) International Development Agency
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) International Finance Corporation
56.For n consecutive natural numbers, the following relationship is correct?
(A) Mode = Mean
(B) Mean = Median
(C) Mode > Median
(D) Mode < Mean
57. The measure of the degree of association between the values of two random variables is called?
(A) Correlation
(B) Association
(C) Regression
(D) Co-variance
58.The current level of maternal morality rate in India is approximately?
(A) 150 per one lac live births
(B) 250 per one làc live births
(C) 350 per one lac live births
(D) 450 per one lac live births
59.In any set of numbers, the geometric mean exists only when all numbers are?
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) Positive, zero or negative
60. If correlation coefficient is equal to zero, then variables will be?
(A)Associated
(B)Correlated
(C)Independent
( D) Dependent

Answers:
1 B
2 C
3 C
4 B
5 A
6 B
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 A
15 A
16 D
17 C
18 C
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 D
24 C
25 B
26 C
27 B
28 D
29 D
30 B
31 A
32 A
33 C
34 D
35 D
36 A
37 A
38 A
39 B
40 B
41 D
42 B
43 D
44 C
45 C
46 D
47 D
48 C
49 B
50 D
51 C
52 C
53 A
54 B
55 C
56 B
57 A
58 B
59 A
60 C

Revolution In India

This is a list of major agricultural revolutions in India.

Revolution	Production
Black Revolution	Petroleum production
Blue Revolution	Fish production
Brown Revolution	Leather/non-conventional(India)/Cocoa production
Golden Revolution	Overall Horticulture development/Honey Production
Golden Fiber Revolution	Jute Production
Green Revolution	Food grain (Cereals, Wheat &Leguminous plant) production
Grey Revolution	Fertilizer production
Pink Revolution	Onion production/Pharmaceutical (India)/Prawn production
Red Revolution	Meat & Tomato production
Round Revolution	Potato production
Silver Fiber Revolution	Cotton production
Silver Revolution	Egg/Poultry production
White Revolution	Milk/Dairy production (In India - Operation Flood)
Yellow Revolution	Oil Seeds production

INDIAN POLITY MCQS

1. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Answer : (D)

2. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Answer : (D)

3. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Answer : (B)

4. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Answer : (D)

5. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Answer : (A)

6. The rule of lapse meAnswer—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Answer : (A)

7. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Answer : (A)

8. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Answer : (A)

9. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Answer : (B)

10. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer : (A)

11. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Answer : (C)

12. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Answer : (C)

13. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Answer : (B)

14. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Answer : (C)

15. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Answer : (A)

16. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Answer : (B)

17. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Answer : (A)

18. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Answer : (C)

19. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Answer : (A)

20. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Answer : (D)

21. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) TrAnswerfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Answer : (A)

22. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Answer : (A)

23. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Answer : (A)

24. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Answer : (C)

25. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Answer : (B)

26. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Answer : (C)

27. 'Mandamus' is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Answer : (A)

28. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Answer : (B)

29. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Answer : (D)

30. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term 'Cabinet' mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Answer : (C)

31. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Answer : (D)

32. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Answer : (D)

33. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Answer : (D)

34. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Answer : (C)

35. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Answer : (C)

36. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer : (C)

37. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Answer : (C)

38. The term 'Federation' has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Answer : (D)

39. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Answer : (C)

40. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Answer : (D)

41. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Answer : (C)

42. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Answer : (A)

43. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Answer : (B)

44. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Answer : (D)

45. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Answer : (B)

46. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) People of their constituency
Answer : (D)

47. Who among the following is known as 'the father of local selfgovernment' in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Answer : (C)

48. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Answer : (C)

49. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Answer : (B)

50. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Answer : (C)

51. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state's requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state's tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Answer : (D)

52. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Answer : (C)

53. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Answer : (D)

54. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Answer : (C)

MPPSC GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The 'Kalabaisakhis' originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the 'Sunderbans' ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The 'Regur' soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as 'Black Gold' ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the 'Cottonopolis' of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery ('gur')
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of 'Green House Effect' ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The 'Bad land' landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean's greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a 'Zaid' crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
 
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 
110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

RAS GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

1. Minamata disease is caused by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Lead
(D) Zinc

2. Government of Rajasthan has constituted one organisation to advise the government on reforms in economic matters. This organisation is named as—
(A) Economic Policy and Reforms Council
(B) Reform Committee on Economic Policy
(C) Council for Economic Reforms
(D) Economic Advisory Committee

3. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Union Government to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance ?
(A) Article 355
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 360

4. Which one of the following groups of organisms has significance in diagnosing the death by drowing
(A) Lichens
(B) Protozoa
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Diatoms

5. When there is a very heavy rainfall in the Pushkar Hills, where does floods occur ?
(A) Ajmer
(B) Sawai Madhopur
(C) Balotra
(D) Sojat

6. On a specific day and time, temperature was 48°C in Churu and 24°C in Shimla. Two metallic cups identical in all respects contained water at 95°C in Churu and 71°C in Shimla. Which one of these two cups reached room temperature first ?
(A) Cup in Churu
(B) Cup in Shimla
(C) Both cups reached room temperature at the same time
(D) Data are not enough to find out result

7. Who won the Booker's Prize, 2008 ?
(A) Arvind Adiga
(B) Aruna Roy
(C) Rajendra Singh
(D) Medha Patekar

8. The first woman 'Four-star General' in United States of America Military is—
(A) Haldun Woody
(B) Anna Maehays
(C) Mike Mullen
(D) Anne Dun Woody

9. Which one of the following acid is formed during the change of milk into curd ?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Lactic acid

10. What is the height of Guru Shikhar Peak in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1722 metres
(B) 1727 metres
(C) 1750 metres
(D) 1780 metres

12. 'Archaeopteryx' is a connecting link between which of the following classes of animal ?
(A) Amphibia and Aves
(B) Reptilia and Aves
(C) Reptilia and Mammalia
(D) Aves and Mammalia

13. Tick mark correct statement—
(A) CIMMCO wagon factory restarted in Bharatpur after eight years
(B) CIMMCO factory is started at Bhiwadi for manufacturing coaches
(C) CIMMCO factory is manufacturing chassis of trucks and buses at Alwar
(D) CIMMCO company is engaged in exports of coaches to Asian countries

14. Where is Port Pradeep located ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa

15. Mangla-Bhagyam, Shakti and Aishwarya—
(A) Are three schemes for upliftment of scheduled castes' girls
(B) Are oil fields discovered in Barmer-Sanchore basin
(C) Are three universities established in Private sector
(D) Produce natural gas from Jaisalmer basin to supply Ramgah power plant

16. Among the crafts that have been shortlisted by National Institute of Design for Geographical Indicator Status is—
(A) Jaipur for blue pottery and Udaipur for clay work
(B) Zari work of Ajmer and block printing of Sanganer
(C) Embroidary of Barmer and wollens of Jaisalmer
(D) Paintings of Kishangadh and Namdas of Tonk

17. Pearl is mainly constituted of—
(A) Calcium oxalate
(B) Calcium sulphate
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Calcium oxide

18. Where is the famous 'Finger Lake Region' located ?
(A) Australia
(B) Austria
(C) United States of America (U.S.A.)
(D) Britain

19. In which year did a major flood occur in Kawas in Barmer ?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008

20. Which sect has the headquarters located at Shahpura (Bhilwara) ?
(A) Dadu sect
(B) Vallabh sect
(C) Nimbark sect
(D) Ramsnehi sect

21. Ashtadhyayi was written by—
(A) Varahmihira
(B) Kalidas
(C) Panini
(D) Balram

22. The whole dispute between Subhash Bose and right wing, after the Tripuri session of Congress centred round to the question of—
(A) Formation of Congress working committee
(B) Policy towards princely states
(C) Attitude towards central government
(D) Double membership of Congress Socialist Party members

23. Adamya Chetna Trust, Havells India Limited, Hindustan Zinc Limited and DSCL Kota (Shree Ram Group) are some Trust/Corporates related to—
(A) Production of handicrafts and industrial goods
(B) Mid-Day Meal Programme
(C) Infrastructure development in Rajasthan
(D) Special Economic Zone in Rajasthan

24. One Rajasthan-born industrialist contributed a sum of Rs. 22,000 in 1920s to C.V. Raman's path breaking research which won him the Nobel Prize—
(A) Purshotam Das Bajaj
(B) Jamshedjee Tata
(C) Magni Ram Bangur
(D) Ghanshyam Das Birla

25. Who is the author 'ANDHAYUG' ?
(A) Ram Dhari Singh Dinkar
(B) Mahaveer Prasad Diwedi
(C) Dharam Veer Bharti
(D) Mohan Rakesh

26. United Nations General Assembly President is—
(A) John Major
(B) Miguel d'Escoto
(C) Jacquesrene Chirac
(D) Jiang Zemin

27. In which continent are the Atlas Mountains situated ?
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Europe

28. Per Capita Income at current prices in Rajasthan during 2007-08 is about—
(A) 20,000 Rs.
(B) 22,000 Rs.
(C) 24,000 Rs.
(D) 18,000 Rs.

29. Nawalgadh (Sikar) in Rajasthan was in news because of—
(A) Bumper crop of kharif season particularly the production of bajra
(B) The government of Rajasthan has taken responsibility to provide the land to cement manufacturers
(C) Ginder Utsav is started during the month of Shrawan to attract tourists
(D) A private university is sanctioned by government for this area

30. Which one of the following changes occur when salt is added in the water ?
(A) Boiling point is increased and freezing point is decreased
(B) Boiling point is decreased and freezing point is increased
(C) Both boiling point and freezing point are decreased
(D) Both boiling point and freezing point are increased

31. When a person enters in a dark room from strong light area, he is not able to see clearly for some
time. Later he gradually begins to see things. This is because—
(A) Changes in the size of pupil
(B) Changes in the diameter and focal length of lens
(C) Bleaching and reformation of Rhodopsins
(D) Eyes become familiar with darkness in course of time

32. Exclude which is not correct—
(A) RUDA is functioning for creation of more avenues of employment in the rural nonfarm sector
(B) Bureau of Investment Promotion is an agency for promotion of Small Scale Industry projects
(C) RIICO is an apex organization engaged in postering growth of industrialisation in the state
(D) Rajasthan Small Industries Corporation is functioning to assist Small Scale Industry and handicrafts

33. The art style which combines Indian and Greek feature is called—
(A) Sikhar
(B) Verra
(C) Gandhar
(D) Nagar

34. In which city of India, first D.N.A. Bank of Asia is established recently ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kota
(C) Chennai
(D) Lucknow

35. Raika's in Rajasthan are—
(A) Traditionals horse breeders
(B) Traditional camel breeders
(C) Used to sell goods from village to village
(D) Salt-traders

36. The first session of Rajputana-Madhyabharat Sabha was held in 1918 at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Ajmer
(C) Indore
(D) Udaipur

37. Who is the author of the book named 'The Audacity of Hope' ?
(A) Nayan Tara Sehgal
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Barack Obama

38. RIDCOR stands for—
(A) Road Infrastructure Development Company of Rajasthan
(B) Rail Information Download Corporation of Rajasthan
(C) Rajasthan Indoor Decoration Corporation of Railways
(D) Rail Infrastructure Development Corporation of Rajasthan

39. Inscription which throw light on the writings of Maharana Kumbha is—
(A) Kumbhalgarh inscription (1460 A.D.)
(B) Kirtistambha Prashasti (1460 A.D.)
(C) Jagannath Rai inscription (1652 A.D.)
(D) Raj Prashasti (1676 A.D.)

40. Jnan Pith award has been given to (06th November 2008)—
(A) Vinit Narayan
(B) Rehman Rahi
(C) Kamleshwar
(D) Gyan Chaturvedi

41. For which desirable character the transgenic crop 'Golden Rice' is produced ?
(A) Vitamin 'A'
(B) Essential Amino Acids
(C) Insulin
(D) Characteristic Starch

42. The world's youngest King belongs to which country ?
(A) Saudi Arab
(B) Japan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Thailand

43. Mammoth is the ancestor of—
(A) Dog
(B) Horse
(C) Camel
(D) Elephant

44. Which district in Rajasthan grows, in largest quantity, psyllium husk (planto ovata) or 'Isabgol' ?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Jalore
(C) Sirohi
(D) Bundi

45. Who launched the 'Lasodia Movement' for social reforms amongst the Bhils of Mewar, Bagar and nearby regions ?
(A) Mavji
(B) Govind Giri
(C) Surmal Das
(D) Moti Lal Tejawat

46. Chairman of Indian Space and Research Organization is—
(A) Krishna Swamy Kasturirangan
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) G. Madhavan Nair
(D) K.M. Bhandari

47. Most stable Ecosystem is
(A) Forest
(B) Grassland
(C) Desert
(D) Marine

48. Which tree is called the 'Flame of the Forest in Rajasthan' ?
(A) Khejri
(B) Neem
(C) Palas
(D) Paras Peepul

49. Which city is known as 'Suncity' in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Udaipur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer

50. Which was common among Brahma Samaj, and Ram Krishna Mission Arya Samaj ?
(A) None of these three had a political mission, but they helped to develop a spirit of patriotism
(B) All the three originated from Bengal
(C) Founder of all the three were educated in England
(D) Founder of all the three took active part in politics

51. Tick mark which is incorrect about NREGA—
(A) This Act spells out the type of works which are permitted
(B) Like in other government programmes transparency and accountability is also not possible in this programme
(C) This Act specifies the individual works but only for the scheduled castes and tribes below the poverty line
(D) The guarantee of •274 year employment during a year is possibly the most important feature of this Act.

52. Mahajanpad situated on the bank of river Godavari was—
(A) Avanti
(B) Vatsa
(C) Assaka
(D) Kamboja

53. Which mineral is found in Nathra-ki-Pal area of Rajasthan ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Copper
(C) Lead and Zinc
(D) Manganese

54. One of the following sites from where the famous Bull-seal of Indus Valley Civilization was found—
(A) Harappa
(B) Chanhudaro
(C) Lothal
(D) Mohenjodaro

55. Tick mark which is incorrect about inflation—
(A) Inflation indicates the rise in the price of a basket of commodities on a point-to-point basis
(B) The inflation rate in India is calculated on the basis of the wholesale price index
(C) For some commodities retail prices are also considered for measurement of inflation
(D) Inflation rate going down does not mean prices are declining

56. Which district has the least population density in Rajasthan ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Barmer
(D) Jaisalmer

57. Bio-magnification means—
(A) Fast spreading of cancer cells in the body
(B) Increasing the amount of pesticides in the organisms of successive trophic level
(C) To see the microscopic parts of the body by microscope
(D) Sudden increase in the number of the individuals of a species in a specific area

58. Chandrayaan-I was launched from—
(A) Orissa
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh

59. By which process, Alum cleans the muddy water ?
(A) Absorption
(B) Adsorption
(C) Coagulation
(D) Dialysis

60. Match List-I (Development Programme) with List-II (Coverage Area) and give the correct answer on the basis of codes given below the list—
List-I
(a) Mewat Area Development Programme
(b) Border Area Development Programme
(c) Dang Area Development Programme
(d) Magra Area Development Programme
List-II
1. Eight blocks of Alwar and three blocks of Bharatpur
2. Thirteen blocks of four Districts
3. 357 Gram Panchayats of 21 Panchayat Samitis
4. 14 blocks covering Ajmer, Bhilwara, Chittorgarh, Pali and Rajsamand districts
5. Saharia tribal families residing in Shahbad and Kishangarh blocks
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 5 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 5 3
(D) 1 4 2 3

61. Handloom Mark shows the standard of—
(A) Handloom clothes
(B) Craft works
(C) Hand embroidery
(D) Hand block printing

62. Which country has signed an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation with India in September 2008 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Japan
(C) Brazil
(D) France

63. Who was appointed as President of South Africa after resignation of Thabo Mbeki ?
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Kglema Motlanthe
(C) Taro Aso
(D) Morgan Tsvangirai

64. In which year was the Desert development programme started in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1960-61
(B) 1977-78
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1994-95

65. Which of the following pair is matching ?
(A) Badla (Water-bottle) — Jaipur
(B) Masuria Sari — Kota
(C) Namda — Jodhpur
(D) Marble Carving — Tonk

66. Under whose Command Marwari forces were sent to Khanwa to support Sanga against Babur ?
(A) Rao Ganga
(B) Maldeo
(C) Biram Deo
(D) Suja

67. The 'Hot Spot' of Biodiversity in India are—
(A) Western Himalayas and Eastern Ghat
(B) Western Himalayas and Sunderban
(C) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghat
(D) Eastern Himalayas and Silent Valley

68. Who has been chosen for the Bharat-Ratna ?
(A) Devanand
(B) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
(C) Kanshi Ram
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

69. What is the product found in large quantities in Churu-Bikaner-Sri Ganganagar belt, which is (i) a source of environmental pollution, (ii) used for raising soil fertility, and (iii) after value addition, is used in health and building sector ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Lignite
(C) Fullers Earth
(D) Gypsum

70. In Rajasthan each state had a Mahakma Baqoit which used to—
(A) Charge the revenue arrears in good harvest years
(B) Make the payments of King's dues
(C) Collect the dues from government servants
(D) Collect the loans for the Kings

71. Generally where coral reefs are found ?
(A) In temperate climate above 18°C
(B) Between tropics of cancer and tropics of capricorn coastal areas
(C) On both east and west coasts of continents and islands only
(D) On colder sea coasts

72. Which one of the followings is used in the synthesis of polythene ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Propane
(D) Butane

73. A bird's eye view of macro economic developments under various programmes launched by the state government in Rajasthan is available in—
(A) Economic Review
(B) Reserve Bank of India Bulletin
(C) Economic and Political Weekly
(D) Sujas

74. How many are there 'Million Plus Population' cities in India (Census 2001) ?
(A) 39
(B) 29
(C) 49
(D) 59

75. National Water Development Agency was established in the year—
(A) 1969
(B) 1970
(C) 1980
(D) 1990

76. Author of 'Nyaya Darshan' was—
(A) Gautam
(B) Kanad
(C) Kapil
(D) Badrayan

77. KANDHMAL is in which State ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat

78. Indian PM Manmohan Singh is an elected member of Rajya Sabha from which State ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Assam
(D) Gujarat

79. In which province Muslim League formed their government after 1946 elections ?
(A) Bengal
(B) North-West Frontier
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

80. Which city can be called 'the Manchester' of Rajasthan ?
(A) Kota
(B) Pali
(C) Beawar
(D) Bhilwara

81. Pheromones are found in—
(A) Insects
(B) Snakes
(C) Birds
(D) Bats

82. Which State is not a part of 'seven sisters' of North-Eastern States ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) West Bengal
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Tripura

83. The main function of colonization in Rajasthan is to—
(A) Provide residential plots
(B) Acquire land by the government
(C) Provide irrigation facilities
(D) Allot land

84. Who is the Governor of West Bengal ?
(A) Gopal Gandhi
(B) Shiv Charan Mathur
(C) Surjeet Singh Barnala
(D) Nawal Kishore Sharma

85. Which Act introduced 'Dyarchy' at the centre ?
(A) The Act of 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

86. The symbol of World Wild-life Fund is—
(A) Polar Bear
(B) White Bear
(C) Red Panda
(D) Cheeta

87. The Electoral College for the United States Presidential Election is constituted by the—
(A) Members of United States Congress
(B) Members of House of Representatives
(C) Members of Senate
(D) None of them

88. In what direction Monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan increases ?
(A) Southwest-Northeast
(B) Southeast-Northwest
(C) Northwest-Southeast
(D) South-North

89. Dhawadia were the persons—
(A) Engaged in looting of caravans and kafilas
(B) Who used to collect the taxes for kings
(C) Who used to stock the foodgrains
(D) Who used to participate in the race

90. By which process the sea water can be converted into pure water ?
(A) Deliquescence
(B) Efflorescence
(C) Electric separation
(D) Reverse osmosis

91. Place where the 'Jal Durg' (fort erected in water) is located—
(A) Ajmer
(B) Amber
(C) Siwana
(D) Gagron

92. In which of the following crop Azolla-Anabaena biofertilizer is used ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Mustard
(D) Cotton

94. Which group of districts has highest forest area ?
(A) Baran - Udaipur - Chittaurgarh
(B) Bharatpur - Jhalawar - Kota
(C) Karauli - Sirohi - Dungarpur
(D) Banswara - Dholpur – Raj Samand

95. Which one of the following statements in FALSE ?
(A) The special rubber tyres of air craft are made slightly conducting
(B) The blue waves scattered more than violet waves of light so that the sky appears blue not violet
(C) A comb run through one's wet hair does not attract small bits of paper
(D) Vehicles carrying inflammable material usually have metallic ropes touching the ground

97. Who represented Congress in Second Round Table Conference ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Moti Lal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

99. The Maitri Express train is introduced between the stations—
(A) Kolkata and Dhaka
(B) Amritsar and Lahore
(C) Delhi and Srinagar
(D) Lucknow and Kathmandu

100. Buxa Tiger Project is located in which state of India ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) West Bengal

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (A)
74. (*) In India as per population Census-2001, the number of 'Million Plus Population' cities is 35. Thus, all the four alternatives given in the question are incorrect.
75. (*) National Water Development Agency was set in July 1982 as Autonomous Society.
76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C) 81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (B)
96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (A) 100. (D)

Employment Schemes of India

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

 

• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) has been created by merging two schemes, Prime Minister's Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) and Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP), which were in operation till 31.03.2008.
• It is a credit linked subsidy programme being implemented by Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
• It aims at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of micro enterprises by organizing traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
• The scheme will be implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level and by KVIC directorates, Khadi and Village Industries Board and Districts Industries Centres at the state level.
• The Government subsidy under the scheme will be distributed to the beneficiaries/entrepreuners through identified banks by KVIC.
• Individuals above 18 years of age, Self Help groups, Institutions registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860, Production Co-oerative Societies and Charitable Trusts are eligible for subsidy to set up projects under PMEGP.

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY)

 

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) started on 01.04.1999 is a major on going programme for self employment for the rural poor. The programme was developed after reviewing and restructuring the erstwhile Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and allied programmes namely

• Training Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
• Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)
• Supply of Toolkits in Rural Areas (SITRA)
• Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY)
• Millions Wells Scheme.

The other programmes are no more in operation with the launching of SGSY. The basic objective of the SGSY is to bring the assisted poor families above the poverty line by providing them income-generating assets through a mix of bank credit and governmental subsidy. The SGSY is being implemented by the District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) with the active involvement of Panchayati Raj Institutions, the Banks, the Line Departments and the Non-Government Organisations. The programme is financed on 75 : 25 cost sharing basis between the Centre and the States. The SGSY aims to cover all aspects of rural employment, the chiefly the following

• Social mobilisation i.e. organisation of the poor into Self Help Groups (SHGs)
• Activity Cluster, Planning and Selection i.e identifying and selecting a key activity in terms of its economic viability in an area.
• Financial Assistance in the form of credit and subsidy in which credit is a major component.
• Training of Swarozgaris through well-designed training courses.
• Infrastructure Development
• Marketing and Technology Support
  
   
  Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
   
  The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, notified in 200 districts in the first phase on Feb 2, 2006 was renamed Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) on 02 Oct 2009. 130 districts were notified in 2007 and with the notification of the remaining districts on 01 April 2008, the entire country has been covered. Exception is given to district with a hundred percent urban population. The Act seeks to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year.
  Salient Features:
• Adult members of a rural household willing to do unskilled manual work are eligible to seek employment under the act.
• Employment is to be given within 15 days of application for work, otherwise daily unemployment allowance has to paid by the respective State.
• Wages are to be paid according to Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State unless otherwise notified by the centre
• Equal wages are to be paid to both men and women.
• At least one-third beneficiaries are to be women.
• No conractors and machinery is allowed.

The MGNERGA is a paradigm shift from previous wage employment programmes, the significant aspects which are given below:

• It provides a statutory guarantee of wage employment.
• It provides a rights-based framework for wage employment.
• The Act provides incentive to the State Govt for providing employment as 90% of the cost is borne by the Centre and at the same time discentive in the form of Unemployment Allowance falls on the State Govt which fails to provide employment within the stipulated time of 15 days of applying for work.

Transparency safeguards are provided in the form of

• Job cards in the custody of workers which monitor entitlements.
• Issue of dated receipts on application for work
• Citizen Information Boards at worksites.
• Vigilance Monitoring Committees.
   

  Hunar se Rozgaar Scheme

   

  Hunar Se Rozgaar Tak is an employment scheme launched by the Tourism Ministry, Govt. of India in 2009 for youth in the 18 - 25 years age group and who are at least 8th pass. These are training programmes to create employable skills in hospitality sector under the Capacity Building Scheme of Ministry of Tourism. Initially the programme was to be conducted by 25 Institutes of Hotel Management and Food Craft Institutes sponsored by the Ministry of Tourism. Subsequently the programme has been allowed to be conducted by certain starred hotels. The programmes is intended to offer short but quality training courses covering i) Food & Beverage Service and ii) Food Production. The programme will target the youth of weaker sections of societies who are interested in joining the hospitality industry and are in need to acquire skills facilitating employment.
  
  

  Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana

   

  The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) originally launched in Dec 1997 is a unified Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched a fresh in lieu of the erstwhile Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes viz., Nehru Rojgar Yojana (NRY), Prime Minister's Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme (PMIUPEP) and Urban Basic Services for the Poor (UBSP).
  The SJSRY has been comprehensively revamped with effect from 01.04.2009. The SJSRY has three key objectives namely:
  

  1. Addressing urban poverty alleviation through gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor.
  2. Supporting skill development and training to enable the urban poor have access to employment opportunities provided by the market or undertake self-employment
  3. Empowering the community to tackle the issues of urban poverty through suitable selfmanaged community structures and capacity building programmes.

  The scheme is proposed to be implemented through Urban Local Bodies and community structures.
  The revamped SJSRY has five major components, namely
  

  1. Urban Self Employment Programme (USEP)
  2. Urban Women Self-help Programme (UWSP)
  3. Skill Training for Employment Promotion amongst Urban Poor (STEP-UP)
  4. Urban Wage Employment Programme (UWEP)
  5. Urban Community Development Network (UCDN)

  
  

  SWALAMBAN

   

  Swalamban Scheme has been launched on 26.09.2010 to encourage the workers of unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement and to lower the cost of operations of the New Pension System (NPS) for such subscribers.
  It was announced in the Union Budget 2010-11. It is a co-contributory pension scheme in which the Government of India (GOI) will contribute a sum of Rs. 1,000 to each eligible NPS subscriber who contributes a minimum of Rs. 1,000 and maximum Rs. 12,000 per annum under the Swavalamban Scheme.
  The GoI contribution has been announced for the current year and the next three years i.e. upto the year 2013-14. The target of the Government is to cover around 10 lakh subscribers each during the 4 years of the Scheme, totaling to around 40 lakh subscribers.
  Workers of unorganized sector from any part of the country can join this Scheme. Implementation of the scheme has been entrusted to the Interim Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
  
  SABLA SCHEME
  

   

  SABLA scheme is the name for Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls [RGSEAG].
  It merges the Nutrition Programme for Adolscent Girls (NPAG) and Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY).
  An amount of Rs. 1000 crore has been allocated in budget of 2010-11.
  The scheme focuses on improving the nutritional and health status and upgrading various skills like home skills, life skills and vocational skills of adolscent girls of age 11 t 18 years.
  It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to be implemented through the State Governments/UTs with 100% financial assistance from the Central Government for all inputs, except supplementary nutrition for which Government of India and States would share on 50: 50 basis.
  The scheme is proposed to be implemented using the platform of Integrated Child Development Services Scheme and delivered through Anganwadi centres.
  

  
  

  National Rural Livelihoods Mission

   

  National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), a new initiative under the Ministry of Rural Development to bring the poorest of the poor above the poverty line by ensuring viable livelihood opportunities to them was launched in Jun 2011 by the UPA Chairperson Sonia Gandhi.
  

  The core belief of NRLM

  The NRLM is based on the core belief that the poor have innate capabilities and a strong desire to come out of poverty. This intrinsic capability of the poor is unleashed only when they are organized into institutions which are truly owned by them, provided sufficient capacity building and handholding support.
  

  Background of NRLM

  The Integrated Rural Development Programme was launched in 1980 by the Government of India to help the people below poverty line. In 1999 the programme was transformed to Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY). This programme followed the strategy of generating self employment through organizing poor into Self Help Groups (SHGs). In the last 10 years about 250 lakh rural BPL households have been organized and brought under the SHG network. It may also be noted that 450 lakh households still need to be organized into SHGs and the existing SHGs covering 250 lakhs also need further strengthening and greater financial support. Considering the enormity of the task, the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India (GoI) set up a committee under the Chairmanship of Prof. R. Radhakrishna (Committee on Credit Related Issues under SGSY), which submitted its recommendations in the year 2009. The Ministry after widespread consultations accepted the major recommendation of the Radhakrishna Committee for restructuring the SGSY as National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM). The Ministry’ proposal was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 24.6.10.
  

  Purpose of the Mission

  The basic purpose of National Rural Livelihoods Mission is to put in place a dedicated and sensitive support structure from the national level to the sub-district level which will focus on the poor, build and sustain their organizations at different levels. This will provide the poor a platform for collective action based on self help and mutual cooperation and they become a strong demand system, build linkages with mainstream institutions, including banks, and Government departments to address the various dimensions of poverty.
  

  The Mission

  The Mission aims to ensure that at least one member from each identified rural poor household, preferably a woman, is brought under the Self Help Group (SHG) network in a time bound manner. NRLM would reach out, mobilize and support 7 Crore BPL households across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats, in 6 lakh villages across the country into their self-managed Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their federal institutions and livelihoods collectives. It would support them financially and institutionally in all their efforts to get them out of poverty. The poor would be helped to achieve increased access to their rights, entitlements and public services, diversified risk and better social indicators of empowerment.
  

  Coverage of Weaker Sections of Society

  NRLM has been mandated to ensure adequate coverage of vulnerable sections of the society such that 50% of the beneficiaries are SC/STs, 15% are minorities and 3% are persons with disability, while keeping in view the ultimate target of 100% coverage of BPL families. A unique feature of the new initiative is that it would be led by the poor themselves. NRLM would utilize the services of Community Resource Persons (CRPs) who are women who have themselves come out of poverty through being a part of the Self Help Group. They will spread the concept of NRLM from one village to another and from one district to another making NRLM a people’s movement.
  NRLM will focus on women as we believe that the best way of reaching out to the whole family is through the woman. There will be a special focus on vulnerable sections: scheduled tribes, scheduled castes, minorities, women headed families, etc. The second focus of NRLM would be rural youth of the country who are unemployed. They will be supported through placement linked skill development projects through which their skills will be upgraded through short term training courses in sectors which have high demand for services.
  
  

Pradeep Kumar, Defence Secretary, to be the New CVC

Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar was unanimously chosen the next Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), four months after the Supreme Court had quashed the appointment of P.J. Thomas to the post.

Although there is no official announcement made yet, sources said Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who retires as Defence Secretary on July 31, was chosen by consensus by a panel comprising Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, Home Minister P. Chidambaram and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Sushma Swaraj.

Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who will be 62 in September, is a Haryana cadre IAS officer of the 1972 batch. He was Secretary, Defence Production, before becoming the Defence Secretary. He will have a three year term as he will have to demit office on attaining age of 65 under the CVC Act.

Ms. Sushma Swaraj, who had opposed in writing the appointment of Thomas as CVC, had no objection to Mr. Kumar’s candidature.

The Supreme Court had on March 3 set aside the appointment of Thomas as Central Vigilance Commissioner and also laid down stringent guidelines for future appointments of CVC.

Since the high-powered committee did not consider the pending charge sheet against Thomas in the palmolein import scam, the apex court on September 3, 2010 had termed the recommendation for appointment of Thomas as CVC is “illegal”.

A list of probable candidates was prepared by the Department of Personnel and Training which placed it before the selection panel.

Those whose names figured in the initial list included Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar, former Home Secretary G.K. Pillai, former Chemicals and Fertilisers Secretary Bijoy Chatterjee, former Secretary, Legislative Affairs V.K. Bhasin, former Urban Development Secretary M. Ramachandran and Personnel Secretary Alka Sirohi.

India achieves major breakthrough in solar thermal cooling system technology

The world’s highest efficiency solar thermal cooling system at the Solar Energy Centre in Gurgaon in Haryana.
The new 100 kw Solar Air-Conditioning System works at 30% higher efficiency than the current available systems and has several unique features. It is based on the new triple effect absorption cooling technology. The system has indigenously built medium temperature high efficiency parabolic troughs for collection of solar energy and effective solar thermal energy storage in the form of Phase Change Materials.

CECA between India-Malaysia comes into effect from 1 july 2011

The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA), which will come into effect on 1 July 2011, is India’s fourth bilateral Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, after Singapore, South Korea and Japan. The CECA envisages liberalisation of trade in goods, trade in services, investments and other areas of economic cooperation.

Trade between India and Malaysia has reached US$ 10 billion in 2010-11, an increase of 26% from the previous year. It is expected that the implementation of this agreement will boost bilateral trade to US$15 billion by 2015.

The trade in goods package under India-Malaysia CECA takes the tariff liberalization beyond the India-ASEAN FTA commitments, which were implemented by both countries on 1 January 2010. Under India-Malaysia CECA, the items on which India has obtained market access from Malaysia include basmati rice, mangoes, eggs, trucks, motorcycles and cotton garments, which are all items of considerable export interest to India. At the same time, adequate protection has been provided by the Indian side for sensitive sectors such as agriculture, fisheries, textiles, chemicals, auto, etc.

Under the services agreement of the CECA, India and Malaysia have provided commercially meaningful commitments in sectors and modes of interest to each other which should result in enhanced services trade. The CECA also facilitates the temporary movement of business people including contractual service suppliers, and independent professionals in commercially meaningful sectors including accounting and auditing, architecture, urban planning, engineering services, medical and dental, nursing and pharmacy, Computer and Related Services (CRS), and Management Consulting Services.

The India-Malaysia CECA also facilitates cross-border investments between the two countries. It aims to promote investments and create a liberal, facilitative, transparent and competitive investment regime. The CECA creates an attractive operating environment for the business communities of both countries to increase bilateral trade and investment.