Monday, June 13, 2011

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper - II

  
UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper II 2011 Solutions
SET - B
(Exam Held On : 12-06-2011)


Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
2. ENCOLDE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AT THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73 TO 80,  WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.




                                              PAPER-II

Directions for the following 4 (four) items :


    Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

        A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.
        As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.
1.   The passage mentions that "this world is evidently not meant for them". It refers to people who    (b)
    1.   seek freedom from foreign domination.
    2.   live in starvation and misery.
    3.   become revolutionaries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only   
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 only
2.   Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
    1.   A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
    2.   Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
    3.   Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
    With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 and 2                 
    (b)  2 only
    (c)  2 and 3                 
    (d)  3 only
3.   The passage thematically centres on    (a)
    (a)  the state of mind of oppressed people
    (b)  starvation and misery
    (c)  the growth of civilization
    (d)  body, mind and spirit of people in  general
4.       According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused        (c)
    (a)  by the impact of foreign domination.
    (b)  by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
    (c)  due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
    (d)  due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
        Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure.
        During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
5.   Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ?    (a)
    (a)  A only    (b)  B only
    (c)  B and C
    (d)  No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
6.   Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?    (b)
    (a)  A                            (b)  B
    (c)  C                            (d)  D
7.      Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief ?    (c)
    (a)  C    (b)  D
    (c)  E
    (d)  The curve does not indicate the treatment
8.       There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ?    (a)
    (a)  24                          (b)  12
    (c)  10                          (d)  8
9.       A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?        (b)
    (a)  Rs. 4950                    (b)  Rs. 4250
    (c)  Rs. 3600                    (d)  Rs. 650
10.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

 In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other, S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be
    (a)  Perpendicular to the direction S.    (c)
    (b)  At 45° to the direction S.
    (c)  Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
    (d)  At 60° to the direction S.   
11.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        (a)
 What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ?
    (a)  3                            (b)  4
    (c)  5                            (d)  6
12.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

  A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ?        (d)
    (a)  10    (b)  11
    (c)  15
    (d)  Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
    Read each of the following two passages and answer the items thai follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
        For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.
        The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.
        This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, 'who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.
13.     According to the passage :    (a)
    1.   The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
    2.   Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
    3.   The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
    4.   There is a need to change the size of the Government.
    Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    (a)  1 and 2 only    (b)  2 and 3 only
    (c)  1 and 4 only    (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
14.     According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on    (d)
    (a)  Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
    (b)  Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
    (c)  Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods.
    (d)  Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society,
15.     What          constitutes      an enabling  Government ?
    1.   A large bureaucracy.
    2.   Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
    3.   Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
    4.   Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
    5.   Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :            (c)
    (a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  4 and 5 only
    (c)  3, 4 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16.     Why is the State unable to deliver "all that is needed" ?
    1.   It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.    (d)
    2.   It does not promote inclusive growth.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
17.     What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.
    (b)  The Government needs to make available more schools and health services.
    (c)  The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
    (d)  There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.

Passage-2
        The concept of 'creative society' refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women's movements in the developing -eountries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.
18.     What does the author imply by "creative society" ?
    1.   A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive.
    2.   A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
    3.   A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
    4.   A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
    (a)  1, 2 and 3              (b)  4 only
    (c)  3 and 4                  (d)  2 and 4
19.     What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements ?
    1.   Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
    2.   Instigation by external forces.
    3.   Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
    4.   Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
    (a)  1 and 3 only          (b)  2 and 4 only
    (c)  3 and 4 only          (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
20.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (c)
    1.   To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
    2.   To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
21.     Consider the following three statements :
    1.   Only students can participate in the race.
    2.   Some participants in the race are girls.
    3.   All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
    Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?    (c)
    (a)  All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
    (b)  All students are invited for coaching.
    (c)  All participants in the race are students.
    (d)  None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items :
        Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements :
22.     Examine the following statements :    (a)
    1.   All animals are carnivorous.
    2.   Some animals are not carnivorous.
    3.   Animals are not carnivorous.
    4.   Some animals are carnivorous.
    Codes :
    (a)  1 and 3                  (b)  1 and 2
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 and 4
23.     Examine the following statements :    (c)
    1.   All trains are run by diesel engine.
    2.   Some trains are run by diesel engine.
    3.   No train is run by diesel engine.
    4.   Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
    Codes :
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 and 3
    (c)  1 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
24.     Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries. Which one of them indicates the declining population ?        (c)

     (a)  A                            (b)  B
    (c)  C                            (d)  D
25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows.        (d)
Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a)  A                            (b)  B
(c)  C                            (d)  D

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
        The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.
                                                      Distribution of diseases in Town - A


                                                          Distribution of diseases in Town - B


26.     Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes ?        (d)
    (a)  Town A
    (b)  Town B
    (c)  Same in Town A and Town B
    (d)  No inference can be drawn
27.     What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ?    (b)
    (a)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
    (b)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
    (c)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
    (d)  No inference can be drawn.
28.     Consider the following Velocity — Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.
   With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?    (d)
    (a)  Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
    (b)  Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
    (c)  Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.
    (d)  Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.

Directions for the following 5 (five) items :
        Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
        Now India's children have a right-to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child's right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
29.    With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)

1.   When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
    2.   Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
30.     According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls?    (b)
    1.   Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
    2.   The traditional way of thinking about girls' role in society.
    3.   The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
    4.   Improper system of education.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 and 2 only          (b)  2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)  1, 3 and 4 only      (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
31.     On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)
    1.   Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
    2.   For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
32.     Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
    (b)  Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
    (c)  The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
    (d)  The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education.
33.     Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
    (b)  Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
    (c)  The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
    (d)  There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.

    Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
        A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
34.     How is D related to E ?        (a)
    (a)  Husband                (b)  Son
    (c)  Father                   (d)  Wife
35.     Who are the females in the group ?    (c)
    (a)  C and E                  (b)  C and D
    (c)  E and A                  (d)  D and E
36.     Whose wife is the teacher ?    (d)
    (a)  C                            (b)  D
    (c)  A                            (d)  B
    Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
        In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided.    (b)
37.     How many females voted for the proposal ?
    (a)  430                        (b)  600
    (c)  624                        (d)  640   
38. How many males were undecided ?    (a)
    (a)  31                          (b)  227
    (c)  426                        (d)  581
39.     How many females were not in favour of the proposal ?
    (a)  430                        (b)  496    (a)
    (c)  586                        (d)  1226
40.     In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?    (c)
    (a)  6                            (b)  7
    (c)  8                            (d)  9
Directions for the following 6 (six) items :
        Read each of the following two passages and answer- the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
        Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.
        The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth's ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity.
41.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on :        (c)
    1.   Spiritual fulfilment
    2.   Aesthetic enjoyment
    3.   Potable fresh water
    4.   Production of food and fibre
    5.   Biodiversity
    Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    (a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  2, 4 and 5 only
    (c)  3 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
42. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes". What does it imply ?        (a)
    1.   The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people:
    2.   Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
    3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth's ecosystems.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)  1 only
    (b)  2
    (c)  1 and 3
    (d)  None of the statements given above
43.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (b)
    1.   It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
    2.   Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-2
        A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king's moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king's order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good.
44.     Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer ?    (d)
    1.   A moral act calls for using our discretion.
    2.   Man should react to a situation immediately.
    3.   Man must do his duty.
    4.   Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 3
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
45.     Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
    (a)  It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.        (b)
    (b)  It is an action based on our sense of discretion.
    (c)  It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
    (d)  It is a religious action based on understanding.
46. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current." Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this ?        (b)
    1.   A person does not use his own reason.
    2.   He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
    3.   He cannot withstand difficulties/ challenges.
    4.   He is like a log of wood.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
47.     Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race.


    With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements :        (b)
    1.   The race was won by A.
    2.   B was ahead mark of A up to 25 km
    3.   C ran very slowly from the beginning.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2 only
    (c)  2 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following figures :    (c)

What is the missing number ?
    (a)  7                            (b)  8
    (c)  9                            (d)  10
49.     Study the following figure :    (c)
    A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can he adopt ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  4                            (b)  5
    (c)  6                            (d)  7
50.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        (c)

What is the total number of triangles in the above grid ?
    (a)  27                          (b)  26
    (c)  23                          (d)  22
51.     A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively    (d)
    (a)  15 and 35              (b)  35 and 15
    (c)  30 and 20              (d)  25 and 25
52.     Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
    (a)  25 m 20 cm           (b)  50 m 40 cm    (a)
    (c)  75 m 60 cm           (d)  100 m 80 cm
53.     If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ?        (b)
    (a)  8 : 5                       (b)  5 : 8
    (c)  4 : 5                       (d)  1 : 2
54. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30O student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?        (b)
    (a)  25                          (b)  20
    (c)  18                          (d)  15
55.     A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for        (b)
    (a)  2 days                    (b)  3 days
    (c)  4 days                    (d)  5 days
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
        Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
        A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.
        A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
56.     What is the crux of the passage ?    (c)
    (a)  Sea star has a preferred prey.
    (b)  A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
    (c)  Keystone species ensures species diversity.
    (d)  Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
57.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
    1.   Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
    2.   The survival of sea stars if generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
58.     Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?        (d)
    1.   Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
    2.   Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
    3.   Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only
    (c)  1 and 3                  (d)  3 only
59.     Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
    1.   The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.
    2.   The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
    3.   If the keystone species is completely removed from an .ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
    With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 and 3 only
    (c)  1 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
60.     Consider the following argument :    (b)
    "In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor."
    Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
    (a)  Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
    (b)  Some   teachers are not Mathematicians.
    (c)  Teachers are not poor,
    (d)  Poets are not teachers.
61.     A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If shell exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests ?    (d)
    (a)  N + 20                    (b)  N + 10
    (c)  N + 4                      (d)  N + 5
62.     In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single ?        (d)
    (a)  2/7                        (b)  1/3
    (c)  3/7                        (d)  2/3
63.     The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C's house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?        (c)
    (a)  C and D live on the same street.
    (b)  C's house faces south.
    (c)  The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
    (d)  None of the above
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :
        The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
        He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64.     When the night fell, he slept    (b)
    (a)  in the open field
    (b)  under a pile of dry grass
    (c)  in a farmer's cottage
    (d)  under a tree
65.     He soon fell asleep because    (a)
    (a)  he was exhausted
    (b)  he was all alone
    (c)  he had not slept for days
    (d)  he was very frightened
66.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
    1.   He was walking through the countryside.
    2.   The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-II
        I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush.
        My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.
67.     When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was        (a)
    (a)  unpleasant            (b)  sad
    (c)  fantastic                (d)  amusing
68.     What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling ?        (b)
    (a)  Going to railway station
    (b)  Forgetting the toothbrush
    (c)  Packing his bag
    (d)  Bad dreams
69.     His toothbrush is finally        (c)
    (a)  in his bag
    (b)  in his bed
    (c)  in his handkerchief
    (d)  lost

Passage-III
        In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70.     Female polar bears give birth during    (d)
    (a)  spring                    (b)  summer
    (c)  autumn                 (d)  winter
71.     Mother bear        (b)
    (a)  takes sides over cubs
    (b)  lets the cubs fend for themselves
    (c)  feeds only their favourites
    (d)  sees that all cubs get an equal share
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :    (d)
    1.   Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
    2.   Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
    Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
    Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find- most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.
    Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73.     You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would    (a)
    (a)  send a written reply explaining the fact.
    (b)  seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
    (c)  admit your fault to save the situation.
    (d)  put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would    (b)
    (a)  sell the property at a cheap price to him.
    (b)  go to the police for necessary action.
    (c)  ask for help from your neighbours.
    (d)  negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
75.     You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would    (c)
    (a)  ask for an extension of deadline.
    (b)  inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
    (c)  suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful.
    (d)  stay away till you recover.
76.     You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would    (a)
    (a)  let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
    (b)  ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
    (c)  not pay attention to allegations.
    (d)  stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
77.     You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would        (b)
    (a)  reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
    (b)  accept the lowest price.
    (c)  refer the matter to the Government and wait.
    (d)  threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
78.     You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would        (c)
    (a)  initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
    (b)  arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
    (c)  ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency,
    (d)  arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
79.     You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would        (a)
    (a)  ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
    (b)  assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
    (c)  ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
    (d)  continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
    (a)  call the in-laws for an explanation.    (d)
    (b)  counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
    (c)  take action after her parents approach you.
    (d)  ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.

Sunday, June 12, 2011

One of the longest lunar eclipses on June 15


One of the longest total lunar eclipses will occur on the night of June 15 and be visible everywhere in India.
The celestial event, the first lunar eclipse this year, will be best visible almost near the zenith, according to Director (Research and Academics), M P Birla planetarium D P Duari.
It can be seen in Kolkata sky from 12:52 am to 2:32 am, making it one of the longest in recent times.
After the totality, the partial eclipse will end around 3:52 am, in the early hours of June 16.
Other than India, it will be visible from the eastern half of Africa, the Middle East, central Asia and western Australia.
Observers throughout Europe will miss the early stages of the eclipse because it will occur before moonrise.
The next lunar eclipse, also to be visible from India, will be a total one on December 10 this year but will last only 25 minutes, Duari said. He said that on January 31, 2018, Kolkata will be able to view another total lunar eclipse.

UN international year of the cooperatives


The Conference of Cooperative Ministers of States and Union Territories was organised in New Delhi on 2011 April 20 unanimously resolved to take immediate steps for revitalising the cooperative sector which is facing the challenge of tough competition on the one hand and government issues on the other.
The Conference has been organised in the backdrop of United Nations Declaration to observe 2012 as the International Year of Cooperatives.
The Conference was attended by the State Cooperation Ministers of Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Delhi, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Jharkhand, J&K, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Orissa, Puducherry, Rajasthan, and Tripura.
The Conference noted the valuable contributions made by Cooperatives in different sectors of Indian economy particularly in rural credit, agriculture input and production, agro-processing, storage, marketing, consumer, fertilizer, dairy, fishery, housing etc. The widespread coverage and diversified business activities of cooperatives have made numerous success stories and provided immense possibilities and ample opportunities for the people, particularly those from the weaker sections in the hither to unserviced areas.
Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar  addressing the Conference emphasized that unless the cooperatives develop their internal strengths in the form of professional management, enlightened and active membership, inspiring leadership and innovative vision, it will be difficult for the cooperatives to grow in the current economic scenario.
He was also of the view that the cooperatives should be considered essentially as an economic enterprises which should be member driven institutions. The Minister apprised the State Ministers that the Government of India has initiated various measures to reform the cooperatives to make them vibrant, viable and democratic institutions with active participation of members to enable them to face the challenges of competitive global economy.
Minster of State Shri Arun Yadav highlighted the emerging issues, significant for improving the performance of the cooperative sector.  He emphasized the need to restore the democratic character of cooperatives both in management and in business process as the cooperatives are essentially people’s movement.  He requested the State Ministers to pursue the cooperative reform agenda vigorously.
Agriculture Secretary, Shri P.K. Basu apprised the Conference about the challenges being faced by the cooperatives and emphasized the need for restoring people’s confidence in Cooperative sector.  Besides, the issue of good governance in cooperatives also needs to get its due importance.
The cooperatives need to devise a system of cooperative corporate governance for ensuring quality service to their members. He urged the  Ministers to recognize the importance of cooperatives and explore their full potential to achieve its goals.
The steps taken by Union Government to reform the cooperative sector were supported by the State Ministers of Cooperation, who assured that the State Governments would take necessary action to make the cooperatives in their State become economically viable to serve their members more effectively.
The Conference expressed their concern on the present challenges and constraints being faced by cooperatives mainly on account of competitive and dynamic market environment. Besides, it was also felt that cooperatives have inherent weaknesses which have also affected their functioning.
A unanimous view emerged for continuous support from Government to the cooperatives to make them autonomous and member driven institutions through appropriate legal and policy reforms.
The Conference unanimously resolved to take action in the following areas to strengthen the cooperative movement in the country: –
(i) Government of India and the States may take steps for early passage of the Constitution (111th Amendment) Bill, 2009.
(ii) States may initiate measures for bringing in legal, institutional and systemic reforms on the lines of recommendations made by High Powered Committee on Cooperatives.
(iii) States may take steps to accelerate the pace of implementation of revival package for short term cooperative credit structure for having robust cooperative credit institutions in the State for enhancing credit flow to the farmers.
(iv) Government of India and the States will constitute appropriate institutional mechanism to facilitate revival and rehabilitation of sick cooperatives.
(v) To strengthen and revitalize the cooperative sector, Government of India, States, cooperative institutions and other stake holders will work in close collaboration to take various measures and initiatives in the International Year of Cooperatives, 2012.
(vi)The States will create conducive environment for facilitating growth of micro-finance institutions and joint liability groups for expanding the outreach of institutional credit to farmers.
(vii) Ministry of Finance may be requested to consider grant of exemption from income tax in respect of cooperative societies.
The Conference concluded with a pledge to restore the credibility and dignity of cooperatives so that the cooperatives become autonomous, self reliant, democratic, and accountable to members and fulfil the expectations of its members and other stakeholders.

QUESTION HOUR IN LOK SABHA


Generally, the first hour of a sitting of Lok Sabha is devoted to Questions and that hour is called the Question Hour. It has a special significance in the proceedings of Parliament.
Asking of questions is an inherent and unfettered parliamentary right of members. It is during the Question Hour that the members can ask questions on every aspect of administration and Governmental activity. Government policies in national as well as international spheres come into sharp focus as the members try to elicit pertinent information during the Question Hour.
The Government is, as it were, put on its trial during the Question Hour and every Minister whose turn it is to answer questions has to stand up and answer for his or his administration's acts of omission and commission. Through the Question Hour the Government is able to quickly feel the pulse of the nation and adapt its policies and actions accordingly. It is through questions in Parliament that the Government remains in  touch with the people in as much as members are enabled thereby to ventilate the grievances of the public in matters concerning the administration. Questions enable Ministries to gauge the popular reaction to their policy and administration. Questions bring to the notice of the Ministers many an abuse which otherwise would have gone unnoticed. Sometimes questions may lead to the appointment of a commission, a court of enquiry or even legislation when matters raised are grave enough to agitate the public mind and are of wide public importance.
The Question Hour is an interesting part of the Parliamentary proceedings. Although a question mainly seeks information and tries to elicit facts on a particular subject, there are many a time lively and quicksilver repartees between the Members asking the questions and the Ministers answering them. These repartees are sometimes coupled with flashes of wit and humour. That is why the public galleries and the press galleries are packed to capacity during the Question Hour.

Telecasting of Question Hour

With a view to familiarising the public at large about the manner in which the proceedings of the Houses of Parliament are conducted in the Question Hour and how their representatives raise various issues of national/international importance, proceedings of the Question Hour are being  telecast since 2 December 1991. Earlier the pre-recorded proceedings of the Question Hour were telecast by Doordarshan on the following day in the morning. From 7 December 1994, the proceedings of the Question Hour of both the Houses are being telecast live on alternate weeks throughout the country on the national channel of Doordarshan from 1100 hrs. to 1200 hrs. All India Radio is also broadcasting the proceedings of the Question Hour of both the Houses from 2200 hrs. to 2300 hrs. in the same night on their national hook up. It has been arranged in such a manner that during the telecast of the Question Hour of one House by Doordarshan, the Question Hour of the Other House is broadcast by All India Radio. In addition, the proceedings of the Question Hour and the entire post-lunch proceedings of Lok Sabha are being telecast live on a separate terrestrial channel through a Low Power Transmitter (LPT) with a reach of 10-15 kms, installed in Parliament House. The entire proceedings of Rajya Sabha are also being telecast live daily since 7 December 1994 through a separate LPT.

Types of Questions

Questions are of four types:-
Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members :
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Only 20 questions can be listed for oral answer on a day.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed. It is printed in the official report of the sitting of the House for which it is put down. Only 230 questions can be listed for written answer on a day. In addition to this, 25 more questions can also be included in the Unstarred List relating to the States under Presidential Rule and the total number of questions in the list of Unstarred Questions for a day may not exceed 255 in relaxation of normal limit of 230 questions.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subjectmatter of it pertains to any Bill,  Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. For such Questions, the same procedure is followed as in the case of Questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the Speaker may consider necessary or convenient.

Notices of Questions

A member gives notice in writing addressed to the Secretary-General, Lok Sabha, intimating his intention to ask a question. Besides the text  of the question, the notice states clearly the official designation of the Minister to whom the question is addressed as also the date on which the question is desired to be placed on the list of questions for answer as also the order of preference, if any, for its being placed on the list of questions when a member tables more than one notice of questions for the same day.
The normal period of notice of a question is not more than twenty-one and not less than ten clear days. A short notice question can be asked with a notice shorter than ten days, but the member has to state briefly the reasons for asking the question at short notice.

Procedure in Lok Sabha Secretariat

On receipt of the notice of a question it is scrutinised to see that the designation of the Minister and date of answer have been correctly mentioned in the notice. A preliminary ballot of identical questions is held and the member who obtains priority is deemed to have tabled the question. A ballot is then held in respect of notices received in this Secretariat at the same time to determine their inter se priority. Separate ballots are held for starred and unstarred questions. Starred, unstarred and short notice questions are numbered separately and entered in separate diaries on computer software.
The next stage is to examine the question as to whether or not it is admissible under the rules and past precedents. A question is primarily  asked for the purpose of obtaining information on a matter of public importance. Questions that contain arguments, inferences or defamatory statements or otherwise refer to the character or conduct of any person except in his official or public capacity, are not admitted.  Questions which are in substance repetitions of those that have been answered previously or in regard to which information is available in accessible documents or in ordinary works of reference are also not admitted. Besides, if the subject matter of a question is pending for judgement before any court of law or any other tribunal or body set up under law or is under consideration before a Parliamentary Committee, the same is not permitted to be asked. Questions making discourteous references to foreign countries with whom India has friendly relations are disallowed. Similarly, questions raising larger issues of policy are not allowed for it is not possible to enunciate policies within the limited compass of an answer to a question. Questions containing more than 150 words or relating to a matter which is not primarily the concern of the Government of India are not admitted. Questions going into minor details of administration and day-to-day working of the Government/Organisations are also not admitted.
Keeping the above rules and precedents in view, a question is admitted or disallowed. Typed copies of the admitted and edited questions are  then made out on a standard form. An advance copy of the admitted question is informally collected by the Ministry/Department concerned so  that they may on their side initiate the action for collection of information asked for in the question to prepare a reply.
A Short Notice Question which is of wide public importance is first referred to the Ministry concerned if necessary for furnishing factual information in the matter and also for indicating whether the Minister concerned accepts the short notice and, if so, what date will be convenient to him to answer the question. If the Minister accepts the short notice and the matter sought to be raised is considered by the Speaker, urgent, the Short Notice Question is admitted and printed in a separate list on the light pink paper in order to distinguish from lists of ordinary questions. The Short Notice Question is taken up after the Question Hour.

Allotment of Days for Questions

Immediately on the fixation of the dates of sittings of a session of Lok Sabha, allotment is made of the days available for the answering of questions relating to the various Ministries of Government of India. For this purpose the various Ministries are divided into five Groups and fixed days are allotted to groups of Ministries during the week. There is no Question Hour on Saturday, if a sitting is fixed for that day. Separate lists are prepared for starred and unstarred questions which have been admitted. Admitted questions are entered in the List of Questions for the day for oral or written answers as the case may be, in the order of priority obtained in ballot with the orders of the Speaker. Not more than five questions are admitted in the name of a member for each sitting of which not more than one is put down for oral answer. While compiling the list of unstarred questions, care is taken to see that one question of each member is included in the list of questions of that date. The remaining unstarred questions are thereafter put in the list according to inter se priority obtained in the ballot. A serial number is allotted to each question. Normally not more than twenty questions are placed on the list of questions for oral answers and not more than two hundred and thirty questions are placed on the list of questions for written answers on any one day. The Ministries are supplied with the lists of finally admitted questions at least 5 days before the date fixed for asking the questions.

Mode of Asking Questions

The member whose question has been admitted and which is included in the list of questions for oral answers for a particular day, rises in his/her seat when the turn of his/her question comes and asks his/her question by reading out its number on the list of questions. The Minister concerned answers the question. Thereafter the member who had asked the question can ask only two supplementary questions. After him/her the second member whose name is clubbed on the question is allowed to ask one supplementary question. Thereafter, the Speaker allows one supplementary each to members who are able to catch his eye. The number of such members depends on the importance of the question. Then the next question is taken up. The replies to questions not reached for oral answer during the Question Hour are deemed to have been laid on the Table of Lok Sabha.   
At the end of the Question Hour, i.e. after the questions for oral answer have been answered, Short Notice Question, if any, for that day is taken up and disposed of in the same way as the questions for oral answers.

Half-an-Hour Discussion

Where answer to a question whether Starred or Unstarred needs elucidation on a matter of fact, any member can table a notice for raising Half-an-Hour Discussion thereon. If the notice is admitted and gets priority in ballot such a discussion may be allowed by the Speaker. Normally, such discussions are held on three days in a week, viz., Monday, Wednesday and Friday except in Budget Session when such discussion is normally not held till the financial business is completed. The discussion is usually held from 17.30 to 18.00 hrs. During the  discussion, the member who has given notice makes a short statement and not more than four other members, who have given advance notice before 11.00 hours on the day on which discussion is to be held are permitted to ask a question each for further elucidating any matter of fact. Thereafter, the Minister concerned replies.