APPSC GROUP-2 INDIAN ECONOMY QUESTIONS

1.

The shift in the SS curve to S’S’ is due to an imposition of a tax.

Which of the following areas in the diagram shows excess burden of the tax?

(a) ODIY

(b) SDA

(c) FGA

(d) CAD

Ans. (c)

2. Consider the following statements:

A. The number of firms is large both under perfect competition and monopolistic competition.

B. There is freedom of entry and exit in both perfect competition and monopolistic competition.

C. In both perfect competition and monopolistic competition, every firm is a price taker and quantity adjuster.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) A, B and C

(b) B and C

(c) A and C

(d) A and B

Ans. (d)

3. Match List I (Market Type) with List-II (Implication) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Market Type) (Implication)

A. Perfect competition 1. Collusion of firms

B. Monopoly 2. Excess capacity

C. Monopolistic competition 3. Uniform price

D. Oligopoly 4. Blocked entry

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (d)

4. In the Kinked Demand Curve Model, suppose MC curve shifts upward in the discontinuous range of MR curve.

Which one of the following is correct? At equilibrium,

(a) price rises but quantity remains the same

(b) price and quantity both remain the same

(c) quantify rises but price remains the same

(d) price and quantity both rise

Ans. (b)

5. Consider the following statements:

Short run profit is maximum under perfect competition when

A. second order condition is satisfied.

B. MC curve cuts MR curve from below.

C. MC curve cuts MR curve from above.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) A and C

(b) A and B

(c) A only

(d) B only

Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following is not a necessary condition of perfect competition?

(a) Large number of firms in the industry producing homogeneous products

(b) Free entry and free exit of firms

(c) Need for incurring selling costs to attract consumers

(d) Absence of artificial restrictions by the government

Ans. (c)

7. Consider the following statements:

A. The shape of a unitary elastic demand curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

B. The shape of a perfectly elastic demand curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

C. Perfectly inelastic demand curve is parallel to the price axis.

D. Perfectly elastic demand curve is parallel to the quantity axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) A and B

(b) A, C and D

(c) B and C

(d) B and D

Ans (b)

8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A straight line demand curve (cutting both the axis) is elastic

(a) throughout the length of the demand curve

(b) at the mid-point

(c) below the mid-point towards the demand axis

(d) above the mid-point towards the price axis

Ans. (d)

9. Under perfect competition, supply curve is identified as which one of the following?

(a) Rising portion of marginal cost curve

(b) Rising portion of average total cost curve

(c) Rising portion of average variable cost curve

(d) Portion of marginal cost above the average variable cost curve

Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of magnitude of minima in ascending order in marginal cost (MC) curve, average cost (AC) curve and average variable cost (AVC) curve?

(a) MC, AVC, AC

(b) AVC, AC, MC

(c) MC, AC. AVC

(d) AC, MC, AVC

Ans. (a)

11. Consider the following statements:

A. The vertical distance from average cost (AC) curve to average variable cost (%&VC) curve is average fixed cost (AEC).

B. AVC curve, AC curve and marginal cost (MC) curve are ‘U shaped.

C. AFC curve is horizontal to ‘X’ axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

12. Short-run marginal cost of a firm does not contain any element of which of the following?

(a) Costs of raw materials

(b) Salaries of the managerial staff

(c) Wages of labour engaged on daily basis

(d) Cost of fuel for operating machines engaged in production.

Ans. (c)

13. Suppose a fisherman has a fishing net and a boat. He alone hunts fish in sea for which he has to pay no license fee etc. Fish, caught by him, will have which one of the following?

(a) Zero economic cost of production as he makes no out-of-pocket payment to anybody and is working of his own

(b) Negative economic cost of production because he enjoys fishing and has to make no payment

(c) Positive cost of production due to his sacrificing the opportunity of working elsewhere and renting out fishing net and boat etc

(d) Infinite cost of production

Ans. (a)

14. Income consumption line of the ‘Consumer Theory’ is analogous in ‘Production Theory’ to which one of the following?

(a) Expansion path

(b) Isoquant line

(c) Ridge line

(d) Isocost line

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following is not correct in respect of Cobb-Douglas production function?

(a) It was originally based on the empirical study of US manufacturing industry.

(b) It is a linearly homogeneous production function, taking into account two factors, labour and capital, for the entire output of the manufacturing industry.

(c) It tells us that output depends upon labour and capital, and that part of output which cannot be explained by labour and capital, is attributed to the residual.

(d) It is based on the assumption of operation of law of diminishing returns.

Ans. (d)

16. Which one of the following statements is correct? If the elasticity of substitution between two factors X and Y be zero, then it implies that for a given change in outputs,

(a) X and Y will always change by the same proportion

(b)Y changes but X remains the same

(c) X changes but Y remains the same

(d) X and Y both change necessarily by different proportion

Ans. (a)

17. Consider the following statements:

According to the law of variable proportions; total product is maximum when

A. marginal product becomes zero.

B. marginal product curve cuts average product curve from above.

C. slope of marginal product curve is zero.

D. tangent of the total product curve is parallel to the horizontal axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) A and D

(b) C and D

(c) A and C

(d) B and C

Ans. (c)

18. Assertion (A): The monopolist never operates on the portion of the demand curve which is inelastic. Reason (R) When elasticity of demand is less than unity MR is negative.

Ans (a)

19. Assertion (A): The Revealed Preference Hypothesis excludes the study of Giffin Paradox

Reason (R) Revealed Preference Hypothesis considers only negative income elasticity of demand whereas Giffin Paradox relates to positive elasticity of demand.

Ans. (c)

20. Assertion (A): Indifference curve for perfect substitute goods is a downward sloping straight line. Reason (R): For perfect substitute goods, MRS is falling.

Ans. (a)

21. Assertion (A): There is no excess capacity under monopolistic competition in the long run. Reason (R): The demand curve under monopolistic competition is downward sloping.

Ans. (d)

22. Assertion (A): M curve lies below the VMP curve under imperfect competition.

Reason (R): Under imperfect competition MR <>

Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following statements about Pareto Optimum are correct?

A. It changes with changes in the distribution of income.

B. At the Pareto Optimum, MRS in consumption = MRT in production.

C. It is not unique.

D. It is obtained under imperfect competition.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) A and B

(b) A, B and C

(c) A, C and D

(d) B and C

Ans. (b)

24. Match List- I (Economist) with List -II (Concept) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List- I List -II

(Economist) (Concept)

A. Pareto 1. Compensation Principle

B. Hicks-Kaldor 2. Social Welfare Function

C. Bergson 3. Social Optimum

D. Scitovsky 4. Double Criterion Compensation

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 2 1 3 4

Ans. (a)

25. Which one of the following statements is correct?

In a production process with two factors, land and labour, if the marginal productivity of land is negative, then it is in

(a) the stage I for land and stage II for labour

(b) the stage II for land and labour

(c) the stage I for land and stage III for labour

(d) the stage I for labour and stage III for land

Ans. (b)

26. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Engel Curve for Giffen goods is

(a) positively sloped

(b) negatively sloped

(c) vertical

(d) horizontal

Ans. (b)

27. Which one of the following statements is correct? According to the classical economists, the existence of unemployment at any time is only of temporary nature and can be considered as

(a) structural unemployment

(b) cyclical unemployment

(c) frictional unemployment

(d) disguised unemployment

Ans. (c)

28. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Creeping inflation is a situation in which the rate at

which price level rises is:

(a) very high

(b) high

(c) moderately high

(d) slow

Ans. (d)

29. Which of the following groups are adversely affected by inflation?

A. Wage earners in the informal sector.

B. Profit earners.

C. Salary earners with salaries indexed to inflation

D. Pensioners with fixed pensions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) A and B

(b) C and D

(c) A and D

(d) B and C

Ans. (a)

30. Which one of the following is a qualitative credit control method?

(a) Open market operations

(b) Bank-rate

(c) Variable cash reserve ratio

(d) Moral suasion

Ans. (d)

31. What kind of change is to be made in (i) Cash reserve ratio, and (ii) Bank rate, to control inflation?

(a) (i) should increase but (ii) should decrease

(b) (ii) should increase but (ii) should decrease

(c) Both should increase

(d) Both should decrease

Ans. (c)

32. Which one of the following pairs is called an open market operation?

(a) Selling and buying of securities or bills by the central bank

(b) Selling and buying of foreign exchange

(c) Selling and buying of shares by the foreign institutional investors

(d) Selling and buying of gold in the open market by commercial banks

Ans. (a)

33. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

(c) Increase in the banking habit of the population

(d) Increase in the population of the country

Ans. (c)

34.

In the context of the figure above which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Investment is autonomous.

B. Saving is autonomous.

C. Investment is dependent on income.

D Saving is dependent on income.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) B and C

(b) A and D

(c) B only

(d) A only

Ans. (b)

35. consider the following consumption saving functions:

A. C = 200+0.8Y

B. S = 200+0.2Y

C. C = 150+0.8Y

D. S = -150+0.2Y

Which of the above are consistent pairs of functions?

(a) A and B

(b) A and D

(c) B and C

(d) C and D

Ans. (d)

36. There are 2 assets A and B in which one can invest his savings of Rs. 1,000/. Assume that there is no risk and interest rate is 10%.

Asset A gives a return of Rs. 100/- in perpetuity

Asset B gives Rs. 200/. at the end of year 1 and Rs. 900/- at-the end of the year 2.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Present value of A and B are the same.

(b) Present value of B is higher than that of A.

(c) Present value of A is higher than that of B.

(d) Information is inadequate to determine the present value of A and B

Ans. (c)

37. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Value of output and value-added can be distinguished if we know

(a) the value of intermediate inputs

(b) the value of net indirect taxes

(c) the value of imports

(d) the value of consumption of fixed capital

Ans. (a)

38. Given:

% Change in nominal GNP = 1.8

% change in population = 0.5

% change in price level = 1.3

What is the approximate percentage change in real per -capita GNP?

(a) Zero

(b) 0.5

(c) 1.0

(d) 1.3

Ans. (a)

39. Match List- I (Concept) with List -II (Economist) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(Concept) (Economist)

A. Liquidity trap 1. M. Friedman

B. Demonstration effect 2. A.C. Pigou

C. Permanent income hypothesis 3. J. Duesenberry

D. Wealth effect 4. J.M. Keynes

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 1 2 4 3

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 1 3 4 2

Ans. (a)

40. Which one of the following statements is correct?

To derive disposable income from national income, one has to

(a) deduct income taxes and add transfer payments.

(b) deduct income taxes and deduct transfer payments

(c) add income taxes and add transfer payments

(d) add income taxes and deduct transfer payments

Ans. (a)

41. Approach paper to 11^th five plan, issued by the Planning Commission refers to the merger of which one of the following pairs of government programmes?

(a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan with Mid-day Meal Programme

(b) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana with Mid-day Meal Programme

(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan with National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme

(d) Shram Shakti Yojana with Jawahar Rojgar Yojana

Ans. (a)

42. Which one of the following statements is correct? J.M. Keynes assumed that supply of money as a function of rate of interest is

(a) perfect elastic

(b) highly elastic

(c) unitary elastic

(d) perfectly inelastic

Ans. (a)

43. Who developed the Time Preference Theory of interest?

(a) Irving Fisher

(b) N. Senior

(c) J.R. Hicks

(d) J.M. Keynes

Ans. (a)

44.

In the graph given above, what does the point B indicate?

(a) Excess supply in the goods market and excess demand in the money market

(b) Excess demand in the goods market and excess supply in the money market

(c) Excess supply in both goods and money market

(d) Excess demand in both goods and money market

Ans. (b)

45. Which one of the following is the most important determinant of speculative demand for money?

(a) Income

(b) Interest rate

(c) Profits

(d) Prices

Ans. (b)

46. Which one of the following equations was used by Fischer to exp the Quantity Theory of Money ?

(Symbols have their usual meanings)

(a) MV= PT

(b) MP = VT

(c) MP = PT

(d) PV = MT

Ans. (a)

47. If Y is the total money income of the community M is the money supply and P is the price level, than how is Vy (The income velocity of money) defined as?

(a) Vy = M/Y

(b) Vy = Y/M

(c) Vy = Y/ (MP)

(d) Vy = PY/M

Ans. (d)

48. When shall an increase in money supply have a small effect on nominal Gross Domestic Product?

(a) If the velocity is decreasing

(b) If the velocity is unchanged

(c) If the velocity is increasing

(d) If the Government spending is also increasing

Ans. (d)

49. There are a number of banks in a market. The initial total primary deposit is Rs. 1,000. Every bank is required to maintain a 10% reserve legally The transactions are completely made through cheque and no transaction is made in cash. W1{at will be the total credit creation in the market?

(a) Rs. 1,000

(b) Rs 5,000

(c) Rs. 10,000

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

50. Which one of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for governments?

(a) Import duty on cars

(b) Octroi at cheek points on roads.

(c) Entrance fee to museums,

(d) Excise duty or beverages

Ans. (c)

HALL TICKET FOR RE-EXAMINATION FOR SCREENING TEST FOR GROUP-I SERVICES (GENERAL RECRUITMENT)NOTIFICATION NO.39/2008 & SUPPLEMENTARY NOTIFICATION NO.10

HALL TICKET FOR RE-EXAMINATION FOR SCREENING TEST FOR
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CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) 2011 Syllabus

The Syllabus of CSAT 2011 is out. There is NO optional paper this time. There are two papers and syllabus and pattern of examination is as follows:
Paper I :
200 marks Duration : Two Hours

• Current events of national and international importance
• History of India and Indian national Movement
• Indian and World Geography: Physical, social, economic geography of India and World
• Indian Polity and Governnance: Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj , Public Policy, Rights issues
• Economic and Social Development: Sustainble development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social sector initiatives.
• General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity, Climate Change,- that don’t require subject specialization.
• General Science
  

Paper II : 200 marks (Duration 2 hours)

• Comprehension
• Interpersonal skills including communication Skills
• Logical reasoning and analytical ability
• Decision making and Problem solving.
• General mental ability
• Basic Numeracy (Numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) dat
• Interpretation Skills (Charts, Graphs, tables, Data Sufficiency Class X Level)
• English language Comprehension Skills.

Official Link : http://persmin.gov.in/WriteReadData/SV/13018_4_2008-AIS-1.pdf

APPSC LECTURERS IN GOVERNMENT DEGREE COLLEGES IN A.P. COLLEGIATE EDUCATION SERVICE 2010 NOTIFICATION

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APPSC DEPUTY INSPECTOR OF SURVEY IN A.P. SURVEY SETTLEMENTS AND LAND RECORDS SUB SERVICE NOTIFICATION

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Anti-Defection Law

Extract from the Constitution of India

191. Disqualifications for membership. - (1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State-

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by parliament.

Explanation.-For the purposes of this clause. a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.

(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a Member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule

TENTH SCHEDULE

Articles 102(2) and 191(2)

Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection.

1. Interpretation.- in this Schedule, unless the context otherwise requires,-

(a) “House” means either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assembly or, as the case may be, either House of the Legislature of a State;

(b) “legislature party,” in relation to a member of a House belonging to any political party in accordance with the provisions of paragraph 2 or paragraph 4, means the group consisting of all the members of that House for the time being belonging to that political party in accordance with the said provisions;

(c) “original political party,” in relation to a member of a House, means the political party to which he belongs for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2 ;

(d) “paragraph” means a paragraph of this schedule.

2. Disqualification on ground of defection.- (1) Subject to the

provisions of [paragraphs 4 & 5, a member of a House belonging to any political party shall be disqualified for being a member of the House-

(a) if he has voluntarily given up his membership of such political party; or

(b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs or by any person or authority authorized by it in this behalf, without obtaining, in either case, the prior permission of such political party, person or authority and such voting or abstention has not been condoned by such political party, person or authority within fifteen days from the date of such voting or abstention.

Explanation.- For the purposes of this sub-paragraph.-

(a) an elected member of a House shall be deemed to belong to the political party, if any, by which he was set up as a candidate for election as such member;

(b) a nominated member of a House shall.-

(i) where he is a member of any political party on the date of his nomination as such member, be deemed to belong to such political party;

(ii) in any other case, be deemed to belong to the political party of which he becomes, or, as the case may be, first becomes, a member before the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat after complying with the requirements of article 99 or, as the case may be, article 188.

(2) An elected member of a House who has been elected as such otherwise than as a candidate set up by any political party shall be disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.

(3) A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat after complying with the requirements of article 99 or, as the case may be, article 188.

(4) Notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing provisions of this paragraph, a person who, on the commencement of the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985, is a member of a House (whether elected or nominated as such) shall.-

(i) where he was a member of a political party immediately before such commencement, be deemed, for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of this paragraph, to have been elected as a member of such House as a candidate set up by such political party;

(ii) in any other case, be deemed to be an elected member of the House who has been elected as such otherwise than as a candidate set up by any political party for the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) of this paragraph or, as the case may be, be deemed to be a nominated member of the House for the purposes of sub-paragraph (3) of this paragraph.

4. Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of merger.- (1) A member of a House shall not be disqualified under sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2 where his original political party merges with another political party and he claims that he and any other members of his original political party-

(a) have become members of such other political party or, as the case may be, of a new political party formed by such merger; or

(b) have not accepted the merger and opted to function as a separate group, and from the time of such merger, such other political party or new political party or group, as the case may be, shall be deemed to be the political party to which he belongs for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2 and to be his original political party for the purposes of this sub-paragraph.

(2) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of this paragraph, the merger of the original political party of a member of a House shall be deemed to have taken place if, and only if, not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned have agreed to such merger.

5. Exemption.- Notwithstanding anything contained in this schedule, a person who has elected to the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People or the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States or the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State or the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State, shall not be disqualified under this Schedule,-

(a) if he, by reason of his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election and does not, so long as he continues to hold such office thereafter, rejoin that political party or become a member of another political party; or

(b) if he, having given up by reason of his election to such office his membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election, rejoins such political party after he ceases to hold such office.

6. Decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection.-(1) If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.

Provided that where the question which has arisen is as to whether the Chairman or the Speaker of a House has become subject to such disqualification, the question shall be referred for the decision of such member of the House as the House may elect in this behalf and his decision shall be final.

(2) All proceedings under sub-paragraph (1) of this paragraph in relation to any question as to disqualification of a member of a House under this schedule shall be deemed to be proceedings in Parliament within the meaning of article 122 or, as the case may be, proceedings in the Legislature of a State within the meaning of article 212.

7. Bar of jurisdiction of courts.- Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, no court shall have any jurisdiction in respect of any matter connected with the disqualification of a member of a House under this schedule.

8. Rules. – (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-paragraph (2) of this paragraph, the Chairman or the Speaker of a House may make rules for giving effect to the provisions of this Schedule, and in particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, such rules may provide for-

(a) the maintenance of registers or other records as to the political parties, if any, to which different members of the House belong;

(b) the report which the leader of a legislature party in relation to a member of a House shall furnish with regard to any condonation of the nature referred to in clause (b) of sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2 in respect of such member, the time within which and the authority to whom such report shall be furnished;

(c) the report, which a political party shall furnish with regard to admission to such political party of any members of the House and the officer of the House to whom such report shall be furnished; and

(d) the procedure for deciding any question referred to in sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 6 including the procedure for any inquiry which may be made for the purpose of deciding such question.

(2) The rules made by the Chairman or the Speaker of a House under sub-paragraph (1) of this paragraph shall be laid as soon as may be after they are made before the House for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions and shall take effect upon the expiry of the said period of thirty days unless they are sooner approved with or without modifications or disapproved by the House and where they are so approved, they shall take effect on such approval in the form in which they were laid or in such modified form, as the case may be, and where they are so disapproved, they shall be of no effect.

(3) The Chairman or the Speaker of a House may, without prejudice to the provisions of article 105or,as the case may be, article 194, and to any other power which he may have under this Constitution direct that any wilful contravention by any person of the rules made under this paragraph may be dealt with in the same manner as a breach of privilege of the House.

Tips for General Studies For Civil Services Main Exam

The first papers will be that of General Studies which is a compulsory subject for all candidates.
General Studies in Main Examination comprises two papers of three hundred marls each. The duration of each paper is three hourse.
Paper-I has four segments, namely :
1.History of Modern India and Indian Culture
2.Geography of India
3.Constitution of India and Indian Polity
4.Current National Issues and Topics of Social Relevance
Paper-II has five segments , which are as follows :
1.India and the World
2.India’s Economic Interaction with the World
3.Development in the field of Science and Technology, IT and Space
4.International Affairs and Institutions
5.Statistical Analysis , Graphs and Diagrams
The syllabus as provided by UPSC, does not have much explanation regarding the details for the segments . It is therefore, advised to refer to previous years’ questions to get an idea about the explanation . The following observations have been made on the bases of analysis of previous years’ question papers:
The temporal reference to the History of Modern India and Indian Culture is up to the middle of 19th century. Thematic reference includes major events of the time, personalities,Facts and events associated with it. A majority of question pertain to the issues associated with the freedom struggle. Along with this there are question which deal with the cultural diversity of the country. However , the marks contained in culture segment are relatively less. This segment of History of Modern India and Indian Culture accounts for almost 30% of the total score of 300 marks.
Geography of India (physical , economic and social ) is a wide ranging segment of the syllabus. However , in terms of marks the total share is not so impressive . This segment accounts for approximately 10% of the total marks of Paper- I To prepare for this segment the candidates are advised to collect information about latest geographical events concerning India.
Constitution of India and Indian Policy is the most vital segment of Paper-I since its share of marks is almost one third. Students are advised to take note of it and accordingly give more time for its preparation . Here mainly the question are asked from the Indian political system and the Constitution of India. Students are required to collect information about various Government institutions and their functions, and also the relationship between them.
Current National Issues and Topics of Social Relevance include such events that are expected of an educated person to be aware about . They primarily include contemporary social problems that the Indian society is facing Some of the major issues include Human Rights, Human Resources, Corruption, Health, Environment and Preservation of Ecology, Pollution etc. The weightage of this segment in terms of marks is approximately one fourth.
The first segment of Paper-II is ‘India and the World’. In this segment candidate’s awareness is tested with regard to the country and the rest of the world. Here questions on issues such as foreign affairs, external security , nuclear debate, etc. are asked Further, another import area is with regard to Non- Resident Indians and the issues related to them . International position of India vis –a-vis various issues should also be kept in orientation while preparing for this segment . The share of this segment in Paper- II is about 15%.
Economic consciousness is on the rise. There have been more changes in the Indian Economy in last ten years than the change that occtrred in the firrt fnur decades `fter independenbe . Questions on Indian Economy (about 30% of Paper II, as regards marks) have reference not only to the Indian planning commitment and issues , programmes and priorities of economic development, but also about the international economic and financial institutions . Students should gather information on WTO, IMF and other international institutions , particularly with regard to their relationship with India, Here, keeping abreast of the changing economic scenario is also very helpful.
Development in the field of Science and Technology, IT and Space is also a major component of Paper-II . In terms of participation of marks , about 25% of question are asked from this segment. While preparing the same those issues that have a bearing on the socio-economic development of the country , must be given more importance.
International Affairs and Institutions accounts for about 15% of the marks in Paper-II . It contains questions on major global changes that are taking place . It also includes questions on such relationship that develop between different countries which have their impact not only on India but on the world as a whole.
The last segment of Statistical Analysis, Graph and Diagrams’ with the participations of about 15% marks. Is significant . It is the only part of General Studies where students have a chance to score close to hundred percent . Here speed is vital, which can be achieved by practicing previous years’ questions.
The approach to the above mentioned segments of General Studies may very from student to student, depending upon his/ her comfort level in each area. Since General Studies can be more scoring than your optional subjects you cannot afford to ignore any of these.
In the examination hall read all the questions quickly in the first go and select those where you feel more confident and comfortable . Start with those questions where you can give your best. Apart from making a good impression on the examiner , this will give you an extra bnost of bonfhdenbe.
Read each and evdry puestion verx carefully before attempting it. See what the examiner wants in your answer. He will be more interested in your approach to a given problem than your knowledge as such . Hit the question directly and stick to the basics. Try to present your answer in a simple and lucid manner. You may use pointers, diagrams, and illustrations to make your answer ‘examiner-friendly’ Your paper must stand out from those of the others in order to get good marks . Believe it or not, many have done this in the past . Maintain a reasonable speed without making avoidable errors.
Do not cross the word limit prescribed for each question. You may be penalized for writing more than what has been asked for. Economical use of words comes with a lot of writing practice before the examination. Also, avoid common mistakes, like giving incorrect facts, wrong spellings and careless presentation of answer. Unless you take care of each one of these common mistakes as well as the pitfalls mentioned above, you cannot expect of get the marks that you may otherwise deserve. Therefore, take up the task of preparation in an organized and intensive manner. Do spend some time to think over how to handle questions by taking examples from the previous years’ question papers. However it is important to enjoy the journey.

APPSC GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS

The Locational and Spatial Setting of India
1. The_____runs half way through the country.
2. The English name of Sindhu river is _____.
3. In Geographical area, India occupies _____ place in the world.
4. In India,_____state gets the earliest Sunrise.
5. Difference between Greenwich Meantime and the Indian Standard time is _____
6. India’s total land frontier is _____ kms.
7. India’s total Coastline is _____ kms.
8. The Indian island closest to the Equator is _____.
9. India is separated from Srilanka by _____
10. The smallest state in area is _____.
11. The state stands on three seas is _____.
12. The border country sharing the longest boundary with India is _____.
13. The boundary line between china and India is _____.
14. The biggest state in area is _____.
15. The longest coastal state is _____.
16. The total islands in India are _____.
17. Indian Union consists of _____ states _____ Union territories.
18. The _____ island located between India and Srilanka.
19. _____ longitude is identified as the basis for standard meridian in our country. 20. The capital of Nepal is _____.
21. The number of coastal states in India is _____.
22. Andhra Pradesh has the coastline of____.
23. The number of countries that share the common land frontiers with India _____.
24. Our nearest neighbour across the ocean waters is _____.
25. The Minicoy island is the part of _____ Islands.

Answers:
1. Tropic of Cancer;
2. Indus;
3. Seventh;
4.Arunachal Pradesh;
5. 51/2hours;
6. 15,200;
7.6,100;
8. The Great Nicobar;
9. The Gulf of Mannar and the Palk strait;
10. Goa;
11.Tamilnadu;
12. China;
13. MacMohan Line;
14. Rajasthan;
15. Gujarat;
16. 247; 17. 28, 7;
18. Pamban;
19. 82 1/2° East;
20.Kathmandu;
21. 9; 22. 972 kms; 23.7;
24.SriLanka;
25. Lakshadweep.

Physical Features- Relief and Drainage
1. The Himalaya mountains are the young ____ mountains.
2. The Himalayas, Indo-Gangetic plains were occupied by the ____ sea.
3. The Himalayas form India’s northern frontier from ____ state to ____ state.
4. The longitudinal distance of Himalayas is____kms.
5. Greater Himalayas are also known as___
6. K2 mountain peak is in ____.
7. The highest mountain peak of the Himalayas in India is ____.
8. Pamir Plateau is located in ____.
9. The longitudinal extent of the great plains in India is ____.
10. The younger alluvium is known as ____.
11. Terai is a ____.
12. Bundelkhand upland is an extension of ____ plateau.
13. The peninsular plateau is slightly tilting towards ____.
14. The highest peak of peninsular in India ____.
15. The Deccan plateau is bounded on north by ____.
16. ____ river flows through a rift valley.
17. ____ river and ____river head streams formed the main stream of Ganga.
18. The highest peak in India is ____
19. The height of Everest mountain is ____.
20. The longest range in Himachal range is ____.
21. The south-west ward extension of Pir Panjal range is ____.
22. The popularise hill stations are situated in____range.
23. The outer Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh are called as ____
24. The valleys which are separate the Siwalik range from the Himachal mountains are called as ____.
25. The ____ are responsible for causing rainfall in the plain during summer and monsoon type of climate in the country.
26. The pebble studded zone porous beds is known as ____.
27. The older alluvium of the flood plain is called the ____.
28. The tidal forests are called ____.
29. The highest peak in the Aravalli range is ____.
30. The eastern part of Satpura range is called the ____ plateau.

Answers:
1. Fold;
2. Tethys;
3. Jammu Kashmir, ArunachalPradesh;
4. 2400;
5. Himadri ranges;
6.Karakoram range;
7. K2;
8. Trans Himalayas;
9. 3200 kms;
10. Khadar;
11. Marshy land under the Bhabar Zone;
12. Malwa;
13. East;
14. Anaimudi;
15. Satpura mountain range;
16. The Narmada;
17. Alakananda Bhagirathi;
18. Mt. Everest;
19. 8,848 mts;
20. Pir Panjal;
21. Dhula Dhar range;
22. Himachal;
23.Mishmi hills;
24. Duns;
25. Himalayas;
26.Bhabar;
27. Bhangar;
28. Sundarbans;
29.Gurusikhar;
30. Maikal.

Climate
1. India receives bulk of its rainfall from _____ monsoon gives
2. The retreating monsoon gives abundant rainfall to _____ coast
3. The monsoon burst first takes place in coastal areas in _____
4. The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word _____
5. The highest temperature recorded in _____ state.
6. In summer _____ pressure system develops on the land surface of India.
7. The Indian agriculture is referred to as a gamble in the _____.
8. The rainfall is less than 75 percent of the
normal is called _____. 9. DPAP is the abbreviation of _____
10. The Government of India launched the National flood control programme in _____.

Answers:
1.South-West;2.Western;3.Kerala; 4.Mausam;
5.Rajasthan; 6.Low; 7.Monsoons; 8.drou gh;
9. Drought Prone Area Programme; 10. 1954

Natural Vegetation
1. _____ State is having the largest area under forest
2. Sandal wood is produced mainly in _____ forests.
3. The tidal forests are also known as _____ forests.
4. Sundarbans are named after the _____ tree.
5. Teak is abundantly grown in _____ forests.
6. Alpine vegetation is found in _____
7. _____ percentage of land is required to maintain ecological balance.
8. The forest area in the country accounted for _____percent in the total geographical area.
9. Economically, most important- forests in India is _____.
10. The highest concentration of forest land is in _____.

Answers:
1. Madhya Pradesh;
2. Tropical Moist Deciduous;
3. Sundarbans/Mangrove;
4.Sundari;
5.Karnataka;
6. Upper Himalayas;
7.33;
8. 20.55;
9. Tropical moist deciduous forests;
10. Arunachal Pradesh

.

APPSC BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE QUESTIONS

PHOTO SYNTHESIS
1. ____ helps in the survival and perpetuation of its race.
2. ____ are required for the synthesis of proteins.
3. The wavelength of visible light is ____
4. The energy present in the light rays is called ____
5. The energy particles of light rays are called ____
6. Green light is ____ by the chlorophyll pigments.
7. ____ regulate the exchange of gases and loss of water vapour in plants.
8. ____ can be used to test the presence of starch.
9. Grana are stacks of ____ membrane.
10. During photosynthesis chlorophyll molecules gets ____
11. ____ and ____are the end products of light reactions in photosynthesis.
12. ____ won the nobel prize for his work on photosynthesis.
13. First stable product formed in photosynthesis is ____
14. Examples of electron acceptors ____
15. The upper layer of cells in leaf is called ____
16. Stacks of thylakoid membranes is stroma are called ____
17. ____ is the life process that depend on light.
18. ____ is the process that helps in release of energy stored in carbohydrates.
19. Melvin Calvin got nobel prize for his studies on ____
20. Photosynthesis occurs in ____ part of the cell.
21. ____ process releases O2 into the atmosphere.
22. Green pigment is called ____
23. The end products of dark reaction ____
24. The kidney shaped cells which surround the stroma are called ____
25. The external factors that help photosynthesis are ____
26. The internal factors that help photosynthesis are ____
27. ____ is reduced in dark reaction.
28. ____ accepts CO2 in dark reaction.
29. The volume of CO2 present in the atmosphere is ____
30. Photosynthetic activity in green plants has to be tested ____
31. Green pigment is called ____
32. ____ organisms synthesize their own food.
33. The entire series of reactions which are involved in the conversion of CO2 to glucose is called ____
34. The electro magnetic radiation, has greater wavelength than visible light.

Photosynthesis – Answers
1. Reproduction 2. Amino acids
3. 400-700 nm 4. Quantum
5. Photons 6. Reflected
7. Stomata 8. Iodine
9. Thylokoid 10. Oxidised
11. ATP, NADPH 12. Melvin Calvin
13. PGA – Phospho Glyceric Acid
14. NAD/NADP/Cytochrome
15. Upper Epidermis 16. Grana
17. Photosynthesis 18. Respiration
19.Carbon fixation/Dark reaction
20. Chloroplast
21. Photosynthesis
22. Chlorophyll

23. Glucose
24. Guard cells
25. Light, CO2
26. Water, chlorophyll
27. Carbondioxide
28. Ribulose diphosphate
29. 0-03%
30. After exposing the plant to the light for 2-3 hours.
31. Chlorophyll
32. Autotrophic
33. Calvin cycle
34. Infra red rays

RESPIRATION
1. Substance that undergoes respiration is called ____
2. Fermentation produces ____ and ____
3. Inner folds of mitochondria are called ____
4. Inner compartment of mitochondria is called ____
5. Respiration in the absence of oxygen by micro organisms is called ____
6. The first stage of respiration is called ____
7. Simplest form of carbohydrates ready to undergo respiration is ____
8. Rate of ____ decreases when fruits are kept in cold storage.
9. Fruits can be ripened early by keeping them in a room at a temperature between ____
10. The scientist who studied the sequences of changes in citric acid cycle is ____
11. In citric acid cycle, acetyl CO-A combines with a four carbon compounds ____
12. The products formed in aerobic respiration are ____
13. In ATP, energy is stored in organic ____
14. The addition of high energy phosphate to ADP is called ____
15. The first phase in glucose oxidation is ____
16. Bacteria convert pyruvic acid to ____ in the absence of oxygen.
17. Maximum rate of respiration takes place at ____
18. Expand ATP ____
19. Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid yields a net gain of ____
20. In germinating seeds ____ respiration is observed.
21. Cellular respiration takes place in ____
22. The carboxylic acid formed at the end of glycolysis is ____
23. The number of phosphate molecules present in ATP is ____
24. Synthesis of new molecules in a cell get energy from ____
25. Yeast cells convert pyruvic acid to ethanol in the absence of oxygen. This process is called ____
26. Kreb’s cycle is also called ____
27. The energy liberated from one ATP is ____ calories.
28. The net gain of ATP in the complete oxidation of one glucose are ____
29. The first stable compound in Kreb’s cycle is ____
30. In prokaryotes ____ takes care of energy production liberated.
31. ____ is life process in which energy is liberated.
32. Mitochondria are also called ____
33. The factors that control respiration are ____ and ____
34. The temperature at which respiration takes place is called ____
35. The gas which turns lime water milky is ____

Respiration – Answers
1. Respiratory substrates
2. Ethyl alcohol, Energy
3. Cristae
4. Matrix
5. Anaerobic Respiration
6. Glycolysis
7. Glucose
8. Respiration
9. 30°C – 40°C
10. Sir Hans Krebs
11. Oxalo Acetic Acid (OAA)
12. Carbondioxide, Water, Energy
13. Terminal Phosphate bond
14. Phosphorylation
15. Glycolysis
16. Lactic acid
17. 45°C
18. Adenosine Tri Phosphate
19. 2 ATP
20. Aerobic
21. Mitochondria
22. Pyruvic acid
23. 3
24. ATP
25. Fermentation
26. Citric acid cycle
27. 7200
28. 38
29. Citric acid
30. Cell membrane
31. Respiration
32. Power house of cells
33. Oxygen, Temperature
34. Optimal temperature
35. Carbon dioxide

RESPIRATORY ORGANS IN ANIMALS
1. Respiration in amoeba occurs by ____
2. The common name of larynx is ____
3. The scientific name for wind pipe of man is ____
4. In women ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.
5. In frog nostrils open into ____
6. In earthworm haemoglobin is present in ____
7. Cutaneous respiration occurs in ____
8. Coelomic fluid in earthworm comes out through ____
9. Respiratory organs in cockroach are ____
10. Operculum present in ____
11. The structure that acts as a lid over glottis is ____
12. The shape of cartilaginous rings that support the trachea is ____
13. The rate of respiration per minute in a new born baby is ____
14. In man ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.
15. Haemoglobin of blood transports both ____ and ____
16. The respiratory organs in animals that shows pulmonary respiration are ____
17. In earthworm, leech and salamander respiratory organ is ____
18. Dorsal pores occur in ____
19. The structural and functional units of lungs are ____
20. In man oral cavity and nasal cavity are separated by ____
21. In man, epiglottis is present in ____
22. In man larynx opens into ____
23. ____ surround and protect the lungs in man.
24. In lungs gaseous exchange occurs in ____
25. In man, air is humidified in ____
26. During ____ air enters the lungs.
27. Palate in man separates ____ from ____
28. In man epiglottis covers ____ as a lid.
29. In man, internal nares open into ____
30. Hibernation means ____ sleep.
31. In fishes ____ apertures open into pharynx.
32. During hibernation, a frog respires through ____
33. If the skin of frog dries up it ____
34. Earthworm lives in ____ soil.
35. In man trachea divides as ____
36. Single celled organisms take in oxygen from ____
37. Terrestrial animals take in oxygen from ____
38. In cockroach, the tracheal system opens to outside through ____
39. Number of stigmata in cockroach are ____
40. The first part of wind pipe is ____
41. The respiratory organs in aquatic respiration is ____
42. Respiration through gills is called ____
43. Respiration through lungs is called ____
44. Respiration through skin is called ____
45. Respiratory pigment is ____
46. External skeleton can be seen in ____
47. External branchial apertures can be seen in ____ fishes.
48. Respiratory rate per minute in 5 years child ____
49. Respiratory rate per minute in 25 years man ____
50. Respiratory rate per minute in 50 years man ____
51. ____ glands on the skin of earthworm and frog keep their skin moist.

Respiratory Organs in Animals – Answers
1. Diffusion
2. Voice box
3. Trachea
4. Ribs
5. Buccal cavity
6. Plasma
7. Earthworm/Frog/Salamander
8. Dorsal pores
9. Trachea
10. Bony fish
11. Epiglottis
12. ‘C’
13. 32 times
14. Diaphragm
15. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
16. Lungs
17. Skin
18. Earthworm
19. Alveoli
20. Palate
21. Pharynx
22. Trachea
23. Pleura
24. Alveoli
25. Nasal cavity
26. Inspiration
27. Nasal cavity, oral cavity
28. Glottis
29. Pharynx
30. Winter
31. Internal brancheal aperture
32. Skin
33. Dies
34. Moist
35. Left and right brancheoles
36. Water
37. Air
38. Stigmata
39. 10 pairs
40. Voice box/Larynx
41. Gills
42. Brachial respiration
43. Pulmonary respiration
44. Cutaneous respiration
45. Haemoglobin
46. Cockroach
47. Cartaginous
48. 26 times
49. 15 times
50. 18 times
51. Mucus

TRANSPORT SYSTEMS – TRANSPORT SYSTEMS IN VARIOUS ANIMALS
1. In unicellular organisms transport of substances occurs by ____
2. The pumping device in the transport system is ____
3. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in ____ of blood.
4. In frog, the chamber that lies behind the auricle is ____
5. The chamber that is incompletely divided in the heart of reptiles is ____
6. The heart that pumps blood to lungs is called ____ heart.
7. A single circuit heart is found in ____
8. The colour of the blood in crabs and snails is ____
9. Lymph is a part of ____ system.
10. Animal without red blood cells is ____
11. In cockroach ____ muscles help in sending the blood into heart.
12. Caval veins in amphibians arise from ____
13. Blood sinuses occur in ____
14. A 13 chambered heart is present in ____
15. For the cell to grow it needs ____ along with food material.
16. In course of evolution special fluids like ____ and ____ have been developed for transport of substances.
17. Blood vessels are absent in metazoan animals like ____ and ____
18. The hearts of Megascolex connect ____ vessel and ____ vessel.
19. In Megascolex, in addition to blood ____ also transport substances.
20. From first chamber of cockroach heart arises the ____
21. Head sinus of cockroach receives blood from ____
22. Heart of cockroach is present in ____
23. In fishes, blood from ____ of heart goes to gills.
24. The chambers that lie side by side in frog are ____
25. In man aorta that supplies blood to all parts of the body is ____
26. The two chambers that are infront of ventricle in the heart of frog are ____
27. In birds and mammals ____ is sent to lungs for oxygenation.
28. The right auricle of frog receives ____ blood.
29. The left auricle of frog receives ____blood.
30. A double circuit circulation is present in ____
31. In closed type of circulation, blood flows in ____
32. In fishes the heart sends blood to gills, but in birds, reptiles and mammals it sends to ____
33. In cockroach the blood is ____ in colour.
34. The substance produced in one part of the body and taken to another part is called ____
35. Sinus venosus is associated with ____
36. Example for open type of circulatory system is ____
37. The blood vessel that gathers blood in earthworm is ____
38. The blood vessel that distributes blood in earthworm is ____
39. The ventral blood vessel in earthworm is present ____
40. Number of chambers in fish heart are ____
41. Number of chambers in frog heart are ____
42. Incompletely divided ventricle present in ____
43. The number of hearts in Megascolex are ____
44. The glands that secrete hormones are called ____
45. The blood vessel that acts as main vein in earthworm is ____
46. The blood vessel that acts as main artery in earthworm is ____
47. Branchial heart present in ____
48. In cockroach alary muscles are in ____ shape.
49. The scientific name of earthworm is ____
50. Number of hearts in birds and mammals are ____

Transport Systems – Transport Systems in Various Animals – Answers
1. Diffusion
2. Heart
3. Plasma
4. Ventricle
5. Ventricle
6. Pulmonary heart
7. Fish
8. Blue
9. Transport
10. Earthworm
11. Alary
12. Sinus venosus
13. Cockroach/Butterfly (Insects)
14. Cockroach
15. Water and oxygen
16. Blood, lymph
17. Insects, Molluscs
18. Dorsal and ventral blood vessels
19. Coelomic fluid
20. Head sinus
21. First chamber of heart
22. Pericardial sinus
23. Ventricle
24. Auricles
25. Oxygenated blood
26. Auricles
27. Blood
28. Deoxygenated blood
29. Oxygenated blood
30. Amphibians, reptiles, mammals
31. Blood vessels
32. Lungs and body parts
33. White
34. Hormones
35. Heart
36. Insects (Cockroach, Butterfly)
37. Dorsal blood vessel
38. Ventral blood vessel
39. Below the alimentary canal
40. 2
41. 3
42. Garden Lizard (reptiles)
43. 8 pairs
44. Endocrine glands
45. Dorsal blood vessel
46. Ventral blood vessel
47. Fish
48. Fan
49. Megascolex
50. 4

APPSC PREVIOUS EXAMS GENERAL SCIENCE QUESTIONS

GUAGE

1. The Screw gauge works

on the principle of _____ (March 04, June 04)
2. The Scale present on index line of screw gauge is called as ____ (Oct-99)
3. Screw guage consists of _____ scale and ____ scale.
4. Pitch of the screw P = _____ / No.of revolutions made.
5. L.C. of a Screw guage = pitch of the screw / ____
6. If the Zeroth division of the head scale in below the indexline of the pitch scale, the error is said to be _____ and the correction is _____
7. If ‘p’ is the pitch of the scale and ‘N’ is no.of head scale divisions them L.C.= _____
8. If screw moves 5mm for 5 revolutions, the pitch of the screw is _____
9. If a screw consists 200 head scale divisions which contains pitch as 1mm then the least count is _____
10. If the L.C. is 0.01 mm, Pitch scale reading is 1.5 mm and the headscale reading is 18, then the diametre of the object is ____

Answers:
1. Screw
2. Pitch Scale
3. Pitch, head
4. Distance travelled by the Screw
5. No.of head scale divisions
6. Positive, negative
7. P/N 8. 1 mm
9. 0.005mm
10. 1.68 mm

DYNAMICS

1. A car moves on a curved but level road. The necessary centripetal force on the carif provided by _____ (March 2009, 04, June – 2003)
2. In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of the particle is directly proportional to _____ (March, 09)
3. _____ is a machine used to separate particles of higher mass from those of lower mass in a given mixture (March, 01)
4. The force of attraction of a particle radially towards the centre of circle is _____ (March, 1999)
5. An imaginary co-ordinate system which
is either at rest or in uniform motion and where Newton’s laws are valid is called as _____ (June, 03)
6. Circular motion is a variety type of _____ motion.
7. If the stone tie up with a thread rotating in
a circular motion is untied the motion direction of the stone is ____
8. In uniform circular motion _____ is constant.
9. The force acting towards centre is called as ____
10. If the angle of banking is ?, the tan? = ____
11. The angular velocity of a hours hand in clock is ____
12. The machine which dries wet clothes is ____
13. The angualr velocity of a minutes hand in a clock is ____
14. The force found only in fixed rotational frame is ____
15. The bend of a cyclist moving on edges depend on ____
16. The realationship among ‘r’, v and ”w” is ____
17. One radian = ____
18. Relation between time of oscillation ‘T’ and frequency f is ____
19. One revolution = _____ radians.
20. The angular momentum of a body L = ____
21. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration a = ____
22. Centripetal force F = ____
23. In a uniform circualr motion if the radius is doubled then the centripetal force ____
24. The angle made by a body with respect to time is ____
25. Units for angualr velocity is ____
26. Centrifugal force acting on a car which has 1200 kg mass, moving with 6m/sec velocity along a road have 180m. circular radius is ____
27. The angle subtended by an arc of length equal to its radius at its centre is defined as ____
28. The rate of angular displacement is called ____ 29. 2p radians = _____ degrees
30. Time taken by a body for one complete revolution is called ____ 31. Ball left by a bowler attains _____ motion before reaching a batsman.
32. d?/dt = ____
33. Angular velocity w = 2p ÷ _____ Radians
34. ____ separates molases from sugar crystals.
35. Systems which do not obey Newtons laws of motion are called as ____

Answers:
1. Abrasion between Car tyres and road
2. Displacement 3. Centrifuge
4. Centripetal force
5. Inertial frame of reference
6. Rotation 7. Along contact line
8. Angular Velocity 9. Centripetal Force
10. v2/rg 11. p/6 radians/hour
12. Laundry drier 13. p/1800 Radians/Sec
14. Centrifugal force 15. Speed
16. V = r? 17. 57°291 18. T= 1/f
19. 2p 20. m?r2 21. v2/r
22. mv2/r 23. Increases twice
24. Angular displacement
25. Radians/sec 26. 147 N
27. Radian 28. Angular Velocity
29. 360 30. Periodic Motion
31. Rotation 32. ? 33. T
34. Centrifuge
35. Non – inertial frame of reference

Our Universe & Gravity

1. The value of the universal gravitational constant is ____ (March-2009, April-2009)
2. The weight of 400g stone is _____ N (June-08, April-08, June-06, March-2000)
3. Units for ‘G’ in SI System ____ (March, 2008)
4. Ptolemaic theory is also known as ____ (March-2007)
5. As per Kepler’s theory, the planet revolves around sun in_____ path. (March06)
6. Universal law of gravitation is applicable at _____ (March 2005)
7. Kepler’s law supports _____ theory (March 1999)
8. Heliocentric theory is proposed by _____ (June – 2000)
9. Units of acceleration due to gravity is _____ (March – 2001)
10. Acceleration due to gravity at poles is _____ and at equator it is _____ (March – 2003)
11. Acceleration due to gravity is highest at _____ (March-03, 02, June-03)
12. Example for sensitive instruments used to measure small changes in the value of g at given place is _____ (June – 05, 02, 01, March – 04)
13. Numerical value of the universal gravitational constant is _____(June-07)
14. The weight of a substance in the force ____
15. The gravitational force of earth over moon is _____ than the gravitational force of moon over earth. 16. As the altitude increases the ‘g’ value ____ 17. As the depth increases the ‘g’ value ____
18. Relationship among g, G, M and r is ____
19. If the mass of an object is ‘m’, then the weight of the same w = _____
20. The mass of an object at anywhere in the world is ____
21. The principle used to determine the force of attraction between two objects ‘F’ = ____
22. When Kepler modernised Copernicus system, the shape of the path of orbit is stated as ____
23. As per Copernicus solar system earth revolves around its axis and also revolves in circular orbit around ____
24. The acceleration attained by a body due to the gravitational force of attraction of earth is called as ____
25. The distance between the earth and the moon is _____ k.m.
26. The acceleration of moon towards earth is _____ km/sec²
27. Gravitational force of attraction on a body of 10 kg is ____

Answers:
1. 6.67×10^{– 11}Nm²Kg^–2
2. 3.9 N
3. Nm^2/Kg–2
4. Geocentric theory
5. Elliptical
6. Anywhere in the universe
7. Heliocentric theory 8. Copornicus
9. mg–2 10. Maximum, Minimum
11. Poles 12. Gravity Metre
13. 6.67×10–11
14. Of attraction of earth on it
15. Low 16. Decreases
17. Decreases 18. g = GM/r2
19. mg’ 20. Constant
21. F = GMm/r2
22. Elliptical
23. Sun 24. Acceleration
25. 3.85×105
26. 0.0027m/sec2
27. 98N

KINEMATICS

1. If a ball which is thrown up attains a maximum height of 80m the initial speed of it is _____ (June 2008, March 04, 02)
2. The uniform acceleration produced in a freely falling body due to the gravitational pull of the earth is _____ (June 2008)
3. The time for which a body remains in air is called _____ (March 08, June 07)
4. The maximum height reached by a body when it is projected upwards with a initial velocity ‘u’ is _____ (April 08, June 06, 05, 00, March 04)
5. The time of ascent is directly proportional to _____ (April 08, june 08) 6. When a body is dropped from a height ‘h’, then the velocity of the body on reaching the earth is _____ (March 2007)
7. For a body moving under the influence of gravity, time of ascent is equal to _____ (March 2006, 08)
8. When a body is projected upwards, the accleration due to gravity is taken _____ (March, 08) 9. The maximum height reached by a body thrown with initial velocity 10m/sec is _____ (June 02)
10. The time taken by a body to reach maximum height is _____ (March-03, June-07)
11. Maximum height reached by a body thrown with initial velocity 40 m/g is _____ (March-04, 02)
12. The time for which a body remains in air is called _____ (March-08)
13. The acceleration of a falling body a = ___
14. The initial velocity of a freely falling body is ____
15. The time taken by a freely falling body to reach earth is ____
16. Ascending time = Descending time = ___
17. The acceleration of a body ”a” at the time of ascending ____
18. Time of flight t = ____
19. Ascending velocity and descending velocity of a body at a fixed point in air is ____
20. If a body takes one second to reach ground when it is dropped from a building, the height of the building is ____

How to score Marks in Group 2 exam

As the date for the exam is not given, the candidates are not preparing seriously and 4 lakh members may write the exam. To get success in this exam, it is better to prepare seriously from the beginning only.

General studies important subjects:

Geography:

The questions asked in the exam are mainly from the 6,7,8,9 chapters. Few questions will be in the top level and the Telugu academy competitive books will be useful.

General science:

The physical science books from 6th to 10th classes help and the new developments in the science and technology are important.

Indian history:

The graduation level books are important and the previous question papers help a lot.

Mental ability:

The preparation of previous question papers is helpful and the books based on the mental ability in the market should be studied.

Scoring target:

Paper Extent Preparation process Attainable marks
Paper 1 (general studies) Extendable medium level preparation 110 – 120
Paper 2 (politics + AP history) Up to some extent Medium level 130-140
Paper 3 (Indian, AP economy) More More preparation 115 -125


The candidates should practice the previous question papers and test papers for more time. By preparing the APPSC previous question papers, they can attempt 30 to 40 questions exactly.

* Due to some reasons, few people won’t get grip on the subject. They should be tensed and they should prepare with confidence and systematically.
* They should divide the time by 70:30 ratio.
* They should prepare the topics which can be scored easily in 70% of the time.

There is another option:

When there is a short period of time, they can follow the below tips.

* They should get 90% marks in the mental ability and current affairs.
* The questions are Indian geography can be attempted and we should concentrate on the planetary system.
* They should combine the economics and politics with current affairs.
* They should prepare the test papers and previous question papers in the 30% of the time.

In next 7 days:

* They should concentrate on the important topics.
* They should concentrate on all the topics in every subject.
* They should keep concentration on the current affairs and mental ability.
* If they have own notes, they should revise it or they should stick to only one book.
* They should read the known topics only.
* They should concentrate on the inner topics also.
* They should not spend time for searching new topics.
* They should not practice the question papers.

Last two days:

* They should concentrate on the subject which they feel they don’t have grip.
* They should prepare physically and mentally for the exam.
* They should believe in themselves and they should not discuss with the friends.

Patience:

As the group exams are not conducted in a proper schedule like the civils, many students are quitting these exams. Patience is very important for the government posts and those who entered the groups now can get irritation. Almost all the group exams are conducted by postponing them and so the candidates should prepare with patience and expectation. By thinking they waiting is a part of the exam, the stress can be reduced. They should prepare mentally also and they need to have patience and expectation.

Mental preparation is also important:

* They should not feel that the preparation is not done properly or they did not prepare. They should just keep on going whatever happens.
* They should not think that the exam will be tuff and they prepare the APPSC, UPSC exam papers with normal level questions. Only few questions will be difficult.
* They should remember that many people are attempting the exam along with tem and they should prepare seriously. They should remember that the candidates write group 1 prelims for practice. And few candidates are only selected for mains.
* They should concentrate on the prelims and prepare. They should not prepare for the mains.
* This is not the time for group discussions and it will be wastage of time.

Main topics according to the subject wise:

Geography: Planetary system, Indian geography, Andhra Pradesh geography

General science: Changes in the humans, animal species and origin, digestive system, breathing process, diseases and modern technology.

Indian history : Indian history, sultans, independence fight, satavahanas, kakatiyas, vijayanagara kings struggle for Andhra Pradesh.

Politics: Rights, central and state ministries, central and state working departments, political departments.

Current affairs: The changes in the national and international affairs from October 2009 to till exam date announcement.

Economy: 2010-11 budget details, rural development, census, economic survey etc. changes in the seed and oil departments.

Mental ability: Based on the candidate ability, they should concentrate on the topics.

Preparation of A.P. History for Group - 2

* In this division of 150 marks, questions from polity subject will be asked for 75 marks while the remaining 75 marks are asked about the questions on Andhra Pradesh History. This is the paper which provides better scope to score highest marks, in Group-2 exam. Toppers of previous years’ group -2 exam have scored maximum marks in this division. Subject wise instructions are as follows.

* Subject wise instructions in the subject of Andhra Pradesh History:
* In the paper-2, 75 questions will be from Andhra Pradesh History.
* Coverage of this subject is less, but more number of questions will be coming from this subject. Hence it is considered as advantageous. There is much scope to score maximum marks in paper-2. 70 of the 75 questions can be answered easily.
* Preparation should be done not only in objective manner, but also in analyzing method, to ease the process of winning in this subject.
* Syllabus pertaining to Andhra Pradesh History should be divided into three – ancient period, medieval period and modern period, for learning.
* There will be equal weightage for each of the three divisions and hence no part should be neglected. For example: There were more than ten questions about Satavahana’s and their history in the last year Group-2. Also, there will be two questions on Nasik Science.

* Some questions, which are out of syllabus, are also being asked.

For instance: In the part-2 of paper-2, which is called as AP history paper, some questions from the subject of Andhra Pradesh Politics are also asked.

* In the same way, some questions are also asked on Vijayanagara Empire, which is not included in the syllabus.
* So, it is better for group-2 aspirants to study total AP History regardless of syllabus.
* But many number of candidates are not paying attention to it.
* Important point to be kept in mind is that, Telugu medium students should gain command over English terminology in history subject, even though they continue their preparation in Telugu.
* In the bi-lingual question papers, due to own translation of English words in to Telugu, some questions are misunderstood by candidates.
* In yester years’, some candidates even though they know the correct answer, have opted wrong answer because they didn’t understand the question well. For instance: ‘Rajyasankramana siddantaanni pravesapettinadi evaru?’ In the same way, Home Rule League, when translated in a wrong way, might have total meaning changed in it. Home rule league revolution was named as Swadesi revolution.
* Hence, one should be attentive while answering the question paper.

Reference books:

* Andhrula Charitra: BSL Hanumantha Rao
* Andhrula Charitra:: P. Raghunadha Rao
* Ambedkar Open University MA Books

Group - 2 Indian & AP Economy questions paper analysis

In this paper, economic systems of India and Andhra Pradesh are given as syllabus. First of all, one has to study the outline and features of both of these aspects.

Major events that took place before and after amendments, pertaining to the topics mentioned in the syllabus have to be studied.

It is better to study as application oriented and to develop complete awareness on the topic rather than studying in the point of questions and answers.

Financial planning in India and economic system of India:

* In the first unit, topics related to planning, financial goals and amendments have been included. For this, candidates have to focus on:
* Bombay Plan, Gandhian Plan and People’s plan
* Financial planning since 1951, their goals, ways followed to reach them, reasons to witness failure.
* Government investments on these plans—functioning between different fields.
* Implementation of financial amendments, (from the time of 8th planning time), and changes in government and private investments, methods; industrial, agricultural, tax systems, gross capital market, banking, insurance.
* For second unit….. RBI money regulation act, goals, government taxes-income; and related information.
* Money regulation, growth of different industrial products, production in international market- income.
* Agricultural plan announced in India in the year 2000. Problems arising in reaching that goal (contract farming, regulations on agricultural product movement), details of growth which has recorded due to implementation of this plan.
* Geographical dimensions, natural resources, population, growth trends, division of population bases on niche, free trade policy, and important aspects related to impact of British rule, and its statistics.
* Percentage of population depending on agricultural, industrial, services field; division of population based on 0-4, 4-16, 16-60 and above 60 years age; future changes related to them, their impact on nation’s economic system.
* Main aspects are banking, taxes and inflation.
* Changes seen before and after 1969 in the field of banking.
* Evolutionary and characteristic implementations taken by RBI for reputation management. Obstacles to the reputation created by commercial banks.
* Method of using tools to prevent inflation, tax income and non tax income as a part of domestic budget resources, commercial income and income through governance.
* For fifth unit, features of nations that have slower growth rates; difference between economic growth and economic development and the method of calculating them.
* Main points in the theories of Harad Domar, Robinson, Feghrani, Coldar, Hicks and Hanson, Lebansteen, as a part of growth strategies.
* Laspain, Pashe, Bowli, Fisher, Marshall Edjworth index numbers calculation formulas.

Contemporary problems and consequences in rural society, giving preference to Andhra Pradesh

* GNP, GDP, NNP, NDP, NNP at factor cost, income that can be spent, per capita income concepts in National Income topic have to be studied.
* Important points about changes seen in different fields, human resource index, poverty index, sex based developmental index, sex based empowerment index and position of India in these aspects.
* Compare different indicators of human resource indexes district wise in Andhra Pradesh. Income in the recent four decades, increase in employment rate and growth of agricultural field and growth that has been recorded as a result of these aspects.
* In the second unit, method of implementation of plans in Andhra Pradesh, real expenditures, allocation of funds in different fields and their importance have to be learnt.
* Way of gathering government resources for the implementation of plans; success of tenth five year plans; goals of eleventh five year plans have to be studied.
* Growth recorded in the state in the planning era.
* In the third unit, statistics related to land allocations, forests and agriculture.
* Statistics related to land regulations, forests and water supply for agriculture.
* Changes in types of crops, reputational bases constitutional and non constitutional, pertaining to agricultural field has also to be studied.
* Increase in the role of commercial banks in constitutional reputation, and thereby weakening of cooperative system, subsidies given in the agricultural field since few years, have to focused.
* In the fourth unit, factories, small and medium scaled industries and their necessity, their problems; basic points of cooperative system and reasons for their decline.
* Condition of agricultural products after formation of the state; comparing other states, productivity is low in Andhra Pradesh. Analysis of this issue, crop wise should be learnt.
* It is necessary to have command on topics like support, gathering and prices.
* Public distribution system goals, limits on the income pertaining to ration cards; targeted public distribution and remodeled public distribution system have to be studied.
* One has to study touristic, transport fields and changes in biological and technological sciences.

Reference books:

* Indian Economy- Misra and Puri
* Indian Economy – Agarwal
* Andhra Pradesh Economic System- Telugu Akademi
* Indian Economic System- Telugu Akademi
* Indian & A.P. Economic Surveys