Sunday, July 17, 2011

INDIAN POLITY

Constitution
The Constitution which envisages parliamentary form of government is federal in structure with unitary features. President of India is constitutional head of executive of the Union. Article 74 (1) of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as head to aid and advise president who shall in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Real executive power thus vests in Council of Ministers with Prime Minister as head. Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Similarly, in states, Governor is head of executive, but it is the Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head in whom real executive power vests. Council of Ministers of a state is collectively responsible to Legislative Assembly.
AMENDED PREAMBLE
We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integration of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION. (Words in Italics added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.)

EXECUTIVE The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.
PRESIDENT The President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the states in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. To secure uniformity among state inter se as well as parity between the states, as a whole, and the Union, suitable weightage is given to each vote.President must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age and qualified for election as member of the Lok Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible for re-election. He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him. The President summons, prorogues, addresses, sends messages to Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha; promulgates Ordinances at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session. President makes recommendations for introducing financial and money bills and gives assent to bills; grants pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or suspends, remits or commutes sentences in certain cases. During failure of the constitutional machinery in a state, he can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the government of that state.
VICE-PRESIDENT
The Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. He must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age and eligible for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible for re-election. The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause or till the election of a new President (to be held within six months) when a vacancy is caused by death, resignation or removal or otherwise of President. While so acting, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
Headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advice the President in exercise of his functions. The Prime Minister is appointed by the
President who also appoints other ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. The Council is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers comprises Ministers who are members of Cabinet, Ministers of State (independent
charge), Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.
SPEAKER
The House of the People elects a Speaker, and a Deputy Speaker from among its members. The principal function of the Speaker is to preside over the meetings of the House in addition to other duties in connection with the internal affairs of the House of the People.
Speaker’s Powers: The Speaker of India’s Lok Sabha derives his authority from the Constitution and the Rules of Procedure of the House. Briefly stated, his powers and functions are:
(i) He presides over the sittings of the Lok Sabha and regulates the conduct of the proceedings. He can also suspend or adjourn its sittings.
(ii ) He pronounces on the admissibility of all motions, resolutions and questions sought to be tabled by the Members.
(iii) He can discipline, warn, censure or suspend members for unparliamentary speech or unruly conduct. He can order that an unruly member be physically removed from the House.
(iv) He decides points of order and his ruling cannot be challenged either in the House or in a court of law.
(v) He announces the verdict of the House whenever a vote is taken or a division is called. Before a bill can be sent to the President for his assent or to the Upper House for consideration, it must be authenticated by the Speaker’s signatures.
(vi) He is the channel of communication between the two Houses, as also between the Lok Sabha and the President.
(vii) All orders of the House are executed through him and all petitions and appeals to the Lok Sabha are addressed to him.
(viii) He is the supreme head of all Parliamentary Committees set up by him or by the House.
(ix) He holds administrative charge of the Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Parliament building. He regulates entry into the visitors’ and press galleries and also the lobby.

RAJYA SABHA The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service; and not more than 238 representatives of the states and of the union territories.
Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members representing states are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the states in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and those representing union territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe.
The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire on expiry of every second year. The Rajya Sabha, at present, has 245 seats. Of these, 233 members represent the states and the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the President.

LOK  SABHA The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent States, 20 to represent Union territories and not more than two members of Anglo-Indian community to be nominated by the President, if, in his opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House). The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among States in such a way that the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same for all States.The Lok Sabha at present consists of 545 members. Of these, 530 members are directly elected from 25 States and 13 from seven Union territories while two are nominated by the President to represent the Anglo-Indian community. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based on the 1971 census and under the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (1976) will continue to be so based until figures of the first census taken after 2000 AD become available.
The term of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved, is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. However, while a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case, beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate. Fourteen Lok Sabhas have been constituted so far.
ALL INDIA SERVICES
Prior to Independence, the Indian Civil Service (ICS) was the seniormost amongst the Services of the Crown in India. A provision was made in Article 312 of the Constitution for creation of one or more All India Services common to the Union and State. Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police Service are deemed to be constituted by the Parliament in terms of Article 312 of the Constitution. After the promulgation of the Constitution, a new All India Service, namely, Indian Forest Service, was created in 1966. Of the three All India Services, namely, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS) and the Indian Forest Service (IFS), the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the cadre controlling authority for the IAS. The recruitment to all the three services is made by the UPSC through the Civil Services Examination conducted every year. These officers are recruited and trained by the Central Government and then allotted to different State cadres. There are now 21 State cadres including three Joint cadres, namely,
(i) Assam and Meghalaya,
(ii) Manipur and Tripura and
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram and the Union Territories (AGMU).
UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION The Constitution provides for an independent body known as Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for recruitment to Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ civil posts under Central Government and for advice in various service matters.
LANGUAGE OF THE UNION
Hindi, according to Article 343(1) of the Constitution, is the Official Language of the Union. But provision was also made in Article 343(2) for continuing the use of English in official work for a period of 15 years (i.e. upto 25 January 1965) from the date of commencement of the Constitution. Article 343(3) empowered Parliament to provide by law for continued use of English for official purposes even after 25 January 1965. Accordingly, the Official Languages Act, 1963 (amended in 1967) was passed for continuing the use of English in official work even after 25 January 1965. The Act also lays down that both Hindi and English shall compulsorily be used for certain specified purposes, such as resolutions, general orders, rules, notifications, press communiqués, administrative and other reports, licences, permits, contracts, agreements, etc.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS:
The Constitution offers all citizens, individually and collectively, some basic freedoms. These are guaranteed in the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of Fundamental Rights which are justiceable. Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.
 Right to equality including equality before law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and equality of opportunity in matters of employment;
 Right to freedom of speech and expression; assembly; association or union; movement; residence; and right to practice any profession or occupation (some of these rights are  subject to security of the State, friendly relations with foreign countries, public order, decency or morality);
 Right against exploitation, prohibiting all forms of forced labour, child labour and traffic in human beings;
 Right to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion;
 Right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture, language or script and right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice; and
 Right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
CEASED FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT  PROPERTY RIGHT
The Right to Property, which used to be one of the
Fundamental Rights under Article 31, ceases to be a Fundamental Right and has become only a legal right according to the Constitution 44th Amendment, 1978. It is, however, ensured that the removal of the Property Right from the list of Fundamental Rights would not affect the right of the minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Besides, a provision has been made, as before, that no person will be deprived of his property except in accordance with law.
RIGHT TO EQUALITY
Equality before the law is one of the most important fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution. Article 14 states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within Indian territory. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. No citizen can, on any of these grounds, be subjected to any disability or restriction with regard to access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained out of State funds. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public appointment.

 FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES:
By the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been enumerated. Article 51 ‘A’ contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. These enjoinupon a citizen among other things, to abide by the Constitution, to cherish and follow noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom, to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so and to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongst all people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
 The Ten Fundamental Duties of Citizens
 Respect the Constitution, the national flag and the national anthem;
 Cherish the noble ideals of the freedom struggle;
 Uphold and project the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
 Defend the country and render national service when called;
 Promote the common brotherhood of all the people of India and
 renounce any practice derogatory to the dignity of women;
 Preserve the rich heritage of the national composite culture;
 Protect the natural environment and have compassion for living creatures;
 Develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform;
 Safeguard public property and abjure violence;
 Strive for excellence in all individual and collective activity.


Directive Principles Of State Policy:

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy which though not justiceable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’ and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. These lay down that the State shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice - social, economic and political, shall inform all institutions of national life. The State shall direct its policy in such a manner as to secure the right of all men and women to an adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work and within limits of its economic capacity and development, to make effective provision for securing the right to work, education and to public assistance in the event of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement or other cases of undeserved want. The State shall also endeavour to secure to workers a living wage, humane conditions of work, a decent standard of life and full involvement of workers in management of industries. In the economic sphere, the State is to direct its policy in such a manner as to secure distribution of ownership and control of material resources of community to subserve the common good and to ensure that operation of economic system does not result in concentration of wealth and means of production of common detriment.
(1) Equitable distribution of wealth or the socialist pattern of society and equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(2) Provision of adequate means of livelihood to all its citizens, men and women.
(3) Provision of employment to all.
(4) Free and compulsory education for children.
(5) Living wage for workers.
(6) Protection of childhood and youth against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.
(7) Organization of village panchayats as units of self-government (Article 40).
(8) Prohibition of the consumption except for medical purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs injurious to health.
(9) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
(10) Promotion of international peace and security and maintenance of just and honourable relations between the nations of the world.
THE DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE
Policy in the Constitution of India have been inspired by the Constitution of Ireland. It contains ideals of a Welfare State. The Directive Principles are contained in Part-IV of the Constitution.
RIGHT TO WORK IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Article 41 in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) in the Constitution of India reads, “The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of undeserved want.” The custodian of Fundamental Rights is the Supreme Court of India.


Executive
GOVERNOR

State executive consists of Governor and Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as its head. Governor of a state is appointed by the President for a term of five years and holds office during his pleasure. Only Indian citizens above 35 years of age are eligible for appointment to this office. Executive power of the State is vested in Governor. Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head, aids and advises Governor in exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. Governor shall, after consulting Council of Ministers, exercise his individual judgement as to the action to be taken. These are, however, temporary provisions if President, on receipt of a report from governor or otherwise is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for Governor to have special responsibility with respect to law and order, he may so direct by an order. All Governors while discharging such constitutional functions as appointment of Chief Minister of a state or sending a report to President about failure of constitutional machinery in a state or in respect of matters relating to assent to a Bill passed by legislature, exercise their own judgement.
Nagaland, Governor has special responsibility under Article 371A of the Constitution with respect to law and order Arunachal Pradesh, Governor has special responsibility under Article 371H of the Constitution with respect to law and order and in discharge of his functions in relation thereto.
COUNCIL OF MINISTERS The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Council of ministers is collectively responsible to legislative assembly of the State. LEGISLATURE For every state, there is a legislature which consists of Governor and one House or, two Houses as the case may be. In Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh, there are two Houses known as legislative council and legislative assembly. In remaining states, there is only one House known as legislative assembly. Parliament may, by law, provide for abolition of an existing legislative council or for creation of one where it does not exist, if proposal is supported by a resolution of the legislative assembly concerned.
Legislature of the  Union which is called Parliament , consists of President and two Houses, known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). Each House of Parliament has to meet within six months of its previous sitting. A joint sitting of two Houses can be held in certain cases.
LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL
Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) of a state comprises not more than onethird of total number of members in legislative assembly of the state and in no case less than 40 members (Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir has 36 members vide Section 50 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir). About one-third of members of the council are elected by members of legislative assembly from amongst persons who are not its members, one-third by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state, one-twelfth by electorate consisting of persons who have been, for at least three years, engaged in teaching in educational institutions within the state not lower in standard than secondary school and a further one-twelfth by registered graduates of more than three years standing.
Remaining members are nominated by Governor from among those who have distinguished themselves in literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service. Legislative councils are not subject to dissolution but one-third of their members retire every second year.
LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
 Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) of a state consists of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members (Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 members vide Article 371F of the Constitution) chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state. Term of an assembly is five years unless it is dissolved earlier.
LOCAL GOVERNMENT:
MUNICIPALITIES
Municipal bodies have a long history in India. The first such Municipal Corporation was set up in the former Presidency Town of Madras in 1688 and was followed by similar corporations in Bombay and Calcutta in 1726. The Constitution of India has made detailed provisions for ensuring protection of democracy in Parliament and in the state legislatures.
In order to provide for a common framework for urban local bodies and help to strengthen the functioning of the bodies as effective democratic units of selfgovernment, Parliament enacted the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to muncipalities in 1992. The Act received the assent of the President on 20 April 1993. The Government of India notified the 1 June 1993 as the date from which the said Act came into force. A new part IX-A relating to the Municipalities has been incorporated in the Constitution to provide for among other things, constitution of three types of Municipalities i.e. Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition from a rural area to urban area, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas and Municipal Corporation for larger urban areas, fixed duration of municipalities, appointment of state election commission, appointment of state finance commission and constitution of metropolitan and district planning committees.
PANCHAYATS
Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
A Part IX relating to the Panchayats has been inserted in the Constitution to provide for among other things, Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages; constitution of Panchayats at village and other level or levels; direct elections to all seats in Panchayats at the village and intermediate level, if any and to the offices of Chairpersons of Panchayats at such levels; reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population for membership of Panchayats and office of Chairpersons in Panchayats at each level; reservation of not less than half of the seats for women; fixing tenure of five years for Panchayats and holding elections within a period of six months in the event of supersession of any Panchayat.

RURAL - URBAN POPULATION DISTRIBUTION

Vasuki Sunkavalli is Miss Universe India 2011


Vasuki Sunkavalli, popularly known as Vasuki in the Indian modelling industry, has been chosen to represent India at the Miss Universe contest this year. Vasuki Sunkavalli spends most of her time in Delhi and is a popular model, and is confident that she will make India proud at the Miss Universe contest. 

Former Miss Universe Sushmita Sen’s production company Tantra Entertainment holds the I Am She contest to select the Indian representative to the Miss Universe contest. Starting this year the 'I Am She' pageant will also select the contestants for Miss Globe International and Miss Asia Pacific.

23-year-old fashion designer Parul Duggal was crowned the I Am She Globe International 2011, and 19-year-old Tanvi Singla was crowned the I Am She Asia Pacific 2011

With the title, Vasuki has won a cash prize of Rs.200,000, while the other two title holders have been awarded Rs.100,000 each.

I Am She 2011

The second edition of I Am She pageant was held on 15th July 2011 in Mumbai. The winner will represent India in Miss Universe 2011 to be held in Sao Paulo, Brazil. 20 contestants from different parts of the country participated. In the preliminary the contestants will go through swimsuits, evening gowns and preliminary interviews. In final after the 1st round, the top 10 will be announced. Later, from the top 5 contestants the 2011 Miss Universe India will be chosen. A whole lot of famous personalities from social, cultural and film fields are expected to attend the show. The winner of 2010 I Am She - Miss Universe India, Ushoshi Sengupta crowned Vasuki Sunkavalli of Hyderabad as Miss Universe India 2011 at the end of the event. The pageant will be telecasted on 31st July on Star World.

Friday, July 15, 2011

India successfully launches GSAT-12

 
India on July 15 successfully launched its latest communication satellite GSAT-12 onboard a powerful variant of homegrown Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C17, from the spaceport in Sriharikota.
In a textbook launch, Indian Space Research Organisation’s workhorse PSLV lifted off from the second launch pad of the Satish Dhawan Space Centre here at 4.48 pm at the end of the 53-hour countdown and placed the 1,410 kg GSAT-12 into orbit about 20 minutes later.
“I am extremely happy to state that the PSVL-C17 GSAT12 mission is successful. The launch vehicle injected the satellite very precisely into the intended orbit,” a beaming ISRO Chairman K. Radhakrishnan announced.
On its 18th successful mission in a row, the PSLV zoomed into cloudy skies as scientists broke into cheers at the mission control centre here, 90 km from Chennai.
GSAT-12 was injected into an elliptical Transfer Orbit of 284 km perigee (closest point to Earth) and 21,000 km apogee (farthest point to Earth).
Subsequently, the onboard Liquid Apogee Motor would be used to place the satellite in a circular orbit.
GSAT-12, aimed at augmenting the capacity in the INSAT system for various communication services like tele-education, tele-medicine and Village Resource Centres, would be co-located with INSAT-2E and INSAT-4A satellites.
This was the second time in its 19 flights that the PSLV has been used for launching a communication satellite after Kalpana-1 in 2002.
ISRO used the most powerful XL configuration with six extended solid strap-on motors carrying 12 tonnes of solid propellant as against nine tonnes for the standard PSLV for Friday’s flight. A similar configuration was used for launching India’s maiden Chandrayaan-1 lunar mission in 2008.
ISRO chose its reliable launch vehicle PSLV in the face of failures of two previous GSLV flights in April and December 2010 that dealt a blow to the missions to place GSAT-5 and GSAT-5P into orbit causing transponder shortage.
Launch of GSAT-12, equipped with 12 Extended C-band transponders, is expected to partly meet the country’s growing demand for transponders in a short turnaround time. 
 
PSLV-C17:
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C17), in its nineteenth flight, launches India's communication satellite GSAT-12 from the Second Launch Pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre, SHAR, Sriharikota, India. PSLV-C17 measuring 44.5 m height, with a lift off weight of 320 tonnes has four stages of solid and liquid propulsion systems alternately. In its XL Version, PSLV-XL uses six extended solid strap-on motors wherein each strap-on carries 12 tonnes of solid propellant. This is a second time such a configuration is being flown, earlier one being the PSLV-C11/Chandrayaan-I mission.

Salient feature of PSLV-C17/GSAT-12 Mission:

  • For the first time, use of indigenously designed and developed On-Board computer (OBC) with Vikram 1601 processor in both primary and redundant chains of the vehicle. The OBC performs the functions of Navigation, Guidance and Control processing for the vehicle.
  • Use of extended solid strap-on configuration
  • Satellite injection in elliptical transfer orbit sub-Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO)
  • Five burn strategy (2 perigee burn and 3 apogee burn) for placing the GSAT-12 satellite from its sub-GTO to Geostationary Orbit

PSLV- C17 Stages at a Glance
 
STAGE-1
STAGE-2
STAGE-3
STAGE-4
Nomenclature
Core Stage(PSI) + 6 Strap-on Motors
PS2
PS3
PS4
Propellant
Solid
(HTPB Based)
Liquid
(UH25+N2O4)
Solid
(HTPB Based)
Liquid
(MMH + MON-3)
Mass (Tonne)
138.0 (Core) + 6 x 12.0 (Strap-on)
41.0
7.6
2.5
Max Thrust (kN)
4703 (Core)
6 x 670(Strap-on)
804
244
7.3 x 2
Burn Time (sec)
107 (Core)
55 (Strap-on)
151
116
510
Stage Dia (m)
2.8 (Core)
1.0 (Strap-on)
2.8
2.0
2.8
Stage Length  (m)
20 (Core)
14.7 (Strap-on)
12.8
3.6
2.6

GSAT-12:
GSAT-12, the latest communication satellite built by ISRO, weighs about 1410 kg at lift-off. GSAT-12 is configured to carry 12 Extended C-band transponders to meet the country's growing demand for transponders in a short turn-around-time. The 12 Extended C-band transponders of GSAT-12 will augment the capacity in the INSAT system for various communication services like Tele-education, Telemedicine and for Village Resource Centres (VRC).

Thursday, July 14, 2011

UPPSC General Studies Solved Paper with Explanations

General Studies

(Exam Held on 26-06-2011)

1. Gautam Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Malla
(d) Vatsa
Answer- c
Explanation: After the Buddha passed away, prominent monks spent the rest of the night discussing the teachings. At dawn, the Venerable Ananda informed the Mallas of Kusinara of the Mahaparinibbana (death) of the Master. For seven days the Mallas and throngs of people paid respect to the body of the Blessed One with lights, incense, garlands of flowers, instrumental music and religious songs. For the cremation ceremonies, a pyre of perfumed wood and flowers was prepared. The body of the Buddha was cremated with honor due the Greatest King.

2. Buddha had delivered maximum sermons at
(a) Vaishali
(b) Sravasti
(b) Kaushambi
(d) Rajgriha
Answer-b
Explanation: It was at Sarnath Lord Buddha delivered his first sermon to his disciples for whom he left Bodh Gaya. In this sermon he had preached the middle path of attaining the "Nirvana" that avoids the extremes of pleasure and austerity, the four noble truths and the eightfold path. Buddha had delivered maximum sermons at Sravasti.

3. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was
(a) Srigupta
(b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta II
Answer-b
Explanation: Chandragupta- I introduced a new era, the Gupta era and the first Gupta king to adapt the title Maharajadhiraja and issued gold coins.

4. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was
(a) Ajatsatru
(b) Chandapradyota
(c) Prasenjit
(d) Udayana
Answer-a
Explanation: Ajātashatru was a king of the Magadha empire in north India. He was the son of King Bimbisara, the Great Monarch of Magadha. He was contemporary to Lord Mahavira and Lord Buddha. He took over the kingdom of Magadha from his father forcefully by imprisoning him who is said to have starved him to death. He fought a terrible war against the Vajjis/Lichhvis and conquered the once considered invincible democratic Vaishali Republic.

5. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer?
(a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki
(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
Answer-a
Explanation: Mu'īnuddīn Chishtī reached Ajmer along with Mohammad of Ghori, and settled down there. In Ajmer, he attracted a substantial following, acquiring a great deal of respect amongst the residents of the city. Mu'īnuddīn Chishtī practiced the Sufi Sulh-e-Kul (peace to all) concept to promote understanding between Muslims and non-Muslims. Mu'īnuddīn Chishtī, Bakhtiyar Kaki, Baba Farid and Nizamuddin Auliya (each successive person being the disciple of the previous one), constitutes the great Sufi saints of Indian history.
Shaikh Salim was Sufi saint during Mughal Empire in South Asia. Salim Chishti was one of the famous Sufi saints of the Chishti Order in India. Salim Chishti was the descendant of the famous Khawaja Moinuddin Chishti whose tomb is in Ajmer, Rajasthan.

6. With which Mughal General did Shivaji singh the famous Treaty of Purandhar' in 1665 A.D.?
(a) Jaswant Singh
(b) Jai Singh
(c) Shaishta Khan
(d) Diler Khan
Answer-b
Explanation: The Treaty of Purandar was signed on June 11, 1665, between the Rajput ruler Jai Singh I, who was commander of the Mughal Empire, and Maratha Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. Shivaji was forced to sign the agreement after Jai Singh besieged Purandar fort. When Shivaji realised that war with the Mughal Empire would only cause damage to the empire and that his men would suffer heavy losses, he chose to make a treaty instead of leaving his men under the Mughals.

7. During the 13th and 14th centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate.
(a) Wheat
(b) Bareley
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer-d
Explanation: Maize in India is a post-Columbian introduction by the Portuguese in the 16th century or later.

8. The writer of Mahabhasya 'Patanjali' was a contemporary of
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Chandragupta I
Answer-c
Explanation: The Sunga Empire played an imperative role in patronizing Indian culture at a time when some of the most important developments in Hindu thought were taking place. Patanjali`s Yoga Sutras and Mahabhasya were composed in this period. Panini composed the first Sanskrit grammarian Ashtadayai during the reign of the Sunga dynasty. Artistry also progressed with the rise of the Mathura school of art.

9. Who among the following was the founder of Agra
(a) Balban
(b) Bahlol Lodhi
(c) Sikandar Lodhi
(d)Firoz Tughlaq
Answer-c
Explanation: Sikandar Lodi seized Agra and during his reign, the city flourished as an important cultural centre. However, the claims of Niamatullah, the chronicler of the Lodhi dynasty, that Sikandar founded the city are unacceptable, as it had been mentioned in earlier records. The only claim that could be justified was that Agra came to be known as the Shiraz of India during Sikandar Lodi's time.

10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
(a) Ajmer- Quuwal-al-Islam
(b) Jaunpur- Atala Mosque
(c) Malwa- Jahaz Mahal
(d) Gulbarga- Jama Masjid
Answer-a
Explanation: Jama Masjid Gulbarga, reputed to have been built by a Moorish architect during the late 14th or early 15th century who imitated the great mosque in Cordoba, Spain. The Jaunpur Atala Masjid was built by Sultan Ibrahim (1401–1440), Sharqi Sultan of Jaunpur on foundations laid during the reign of Tughluq Sultan Firuz Shah III (1351–1388). Jahaz Mahal is believed to have been constructed during the reign of Mahmud Shah Khalji. It was commissioned by Ghiyas al-Din. The Jahaz Mahal in Mandu, Malwa is located on a narrow strip of land between the two lakes.

11. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1) Vikram Samvat began in 58 BC
2) Saka Samvat began in 78 AD.
3) Gupta era began in 319 AD.
4) The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer-c
Explanation: Vikram Samvat was introduced in 57 B.C. and hence if 57 is deducted from Vikram Samvat
year we get Christian year. e.g. V.S. 2054 – 57 = A.D. 1997. The Saka Samvat or Era commenced in B.C. 78 during Saka Kshatrap Nahpan’s time. By adding 78 to Saka year, we get Christian year. e.g. Saka 1752 + 78 = A.D. 1830. In A.D. 320 Chandragupta I succeeded his father Ghatotkacha. It is said that he laid the
foundation of great Gupta Empire. In the 8th century, the province of Sindh (in present day Pakistan) was conquered by an Arab army led by Muhammad bin Qasim. Sindh became the easternmost province of the Umayyad Caliphate. In the first half of the 10th century, Mahmud of Ghazni added the Punjab to the Ghaznavid Empire and conducted several raids deeper into modern day India.

12. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qusim
(c) ShahAlam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Answer-d
Explanation: Tipu Sultan external relations aimed at seeking support of the foreign power for a concerted action against the English, whose commercial company had become the most dominating political authority in India. His embassies to distant places like Paris and Constantinople, his numerous letters to France and Turkey, his invitation to Zaman Shah of Afghanistan to rescue the Mughals from English hands, and his correspondence with Napoleon, were all focused on the single point of his confrontation with the English.

13. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the 'Kakori Conspiracy Case'?
(a) Ashfaquallah Khan
(b) Rajendra Lahiri
(c) Ram Prasad Bismil
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Answer-d
Explanation: Swaran Singh (uncle of Bhagat Singh), Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqullah Khan, Rajendra Lahiri and Roshan Singh were sentenced to death by the Court of Justice in the 'Kakori Conspiracy Case'.

14. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer-b
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was elected as the chairman of the drafting committee that was constituted by the Constituent Assembly to draft a constitution for the independent India; he was the first Law Minister of India; conferred Bharat Ratna in 1990. Dr. Ambedkar attended all the three Round Table Conferences in London and forcefully argued for the welfare of the "untouchables".

15. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also?
(a) Balban
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Allauddin Khilji
(d) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Answer-b
Explanation: He refused to exempt the Brahmins from the payment of Jaziya. He persecuted a number of
heretical Muslim sects. He banned inhuman punishments. He prohibited Muslim women from going to worship in the grave of Saints. A brahmin was burnt publicly for questioning the Quran.

16. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
(a) Champaran
(b) Chauri Chaura
(c) Bardoli
(d) Dandi
Answer-a
Explanation: First civil disobedience Gandhi was requested by Raj kumar Shukla to look into The problem of the indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. Gandhi had won the first battle of civil disobedience in India.

17. The only session of the Indian National Congress which was addressed by Mahatma Gandhi
was held at
(a) Amravati
(b) Belgaum
(c) Karachi
(d) Nagpur
Answer-b
Explanation: Belgaum was chosen as the venue of the 39th session of Indian National Congress in December 1924 under the Presidentship of Mahatma Gandhiji. The city served as a major military installation for the British Raj, primarily due to its proximity to Goa, which was then a Portuguese territory. Once the British left India, the Indian Government continued and still continues to have Armed forces installations in Belgaum.

18. Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang?
(a) Kunwar Singh
(b) Nana Saheb
(c) Tatiya Tope
(d) Mangal Pandey
Answer-c
Explanation: Tatya Tope alias Ram Chandra Pandurang was born around 1813 in an orthodox Deshasth Brahmin family in Poona. His father, Pandurang Rao Tope, was an important noble at the court of the Peshwa Baji Rao II. He shifted his family with the ill-fated Peshwa to Bithur where his son became the most intimate friend of the Peshwa’s adopted son, Nana Dhundu Pant. The other associates of Tatya Tope were Rao Sahib and Rani Lakshmi Bai.

19. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Answer-a
Explanation-
Moderate-led Anti-Partition Movement (1903-05)-Under Surendranath Banerjee,
K.K.Mitra. Prithwish Chandra Kay.
Movement under Extremists (1905-08)
Led by Tilak. Bipin Chandra Pal. Lajpat Rai, and Aurobindo Ghosh.

20. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground
activities during the 'Quit India Movement'?
(a) J.B. Kriplani
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Achyut Patwardhan
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan
Answer-d
Explanation-
Jai Prakash Narayan was arrested in 1942 for participating in the Quit India movement. In
November 1942, Jayaprakash along with five others escaped the prison and organized
underground activities during the 'Quit India Movement'.

21. Arrange the following in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the code
given below.
1. The August Offer
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan
3. The Cripps Mission Plan
4. The Wavell Plan
Code:
(a) 1,2,4, 3
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 1,3,4,2
(d) 3,4,1,2
Answer-c
Explanation-
August Offer -August 1940
Cripps Mission -1942
Wavell Plan-1945
Cabinet Mission-1946

22. The statement "I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer in Kings and Princes" is associated with
(a) Narendra Dev
(b) Achyut Patwardhan
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Answer-d
Explanation-
“I must frankly confess that I am a socialist and a republican, and am no believer in kings
and princes, or in the order which produces the modern kings of industry, who have greater
power over the lives and fortunes of men than even the kings of old, and whose methods are
as predatory as those of the old feudal aristocracy”.- Jawahar Lal Nehru
23. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi?
(a) Balgangadhar Tilak
(b) Ajit Singh
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Syed Haider Raza
Answer-d
Explanationmore
powerful the Swadeshi and Boycott movement was launched. Mass meetings were held
all over Bengal where Swadeshi or the use of Indian goods and the boycott of British goods
were proclaimed and pledged. In many places public burning of foreign cloth were organized
and shops selling foreign cloth were picketed. Soon the movement spread to other parts of
the country- in Poona and Bombay under Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, in Delhi, under
Syed Haider Raza and in Madras under Chidambaram Pillai.

24. Who among the following had moved the Non co-operation resolution in the Nagpur session
of the Indian National Congress in 1920?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) Annie Besant
(c) B.C. Pal
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
Answer-a
Explanation-
By December, when the congress met for its annual session at Nagpur, it was C. R. Das who moved the main resolution on non-cooperation.

25. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Durga Das: The Life of Mahatma
(b) Louis Fischer: India From Curzon to Nehru and After
(c) Frank Moraes : Jawahar Lal Nehru- A Biography.
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad : India Divided
Answer-c
Explanation-
India From Curzon to Nehru and After- Durga Das
Jawahar Lal Nehru- A Biography- Frank Moraes
The Life of Mahatma- Louis Fischer

26. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) James Watt: Steam Engine
(b) A.G. Bell : Telephone
(c) J.L. Baird : Television
(d) J. Perkins : Penicillin
Answer-d
Explanation-
Edward Joseph Perkins is a former American diplomat. He served as U.S. Ambassador to
Liberia, South Africa, and the United Nations 1992-1993. He was later Director of the US
State Department's Diplomatic Corps.
In 1928, Sir Alexander Fleming observed that colonies of the bacterium Staphylococcus
aureus could be destroyed by the mold Penicillium notatum, proving that there was an
antibacterial agent there in principle.

27. Who among the following had started 'Mitra Mela' Association?
(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakna
Answer-b
Explanation-
Veer Savarkar established an organization by the name of 'Mitra Mela' which influenced the
members to fight for "absolute political independence" of India. The Mitra Mela members
served the victims of plague in Nasik. He later called the "Mitra Mela" as "Abhinav Bharat"
and declared "India must be independent".

28. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it
(a) is cheaper
(b) is less dense
(c) has greater lifting power
(d) does not form an explosive mixture with air.
Answer-d
Explanation-
A gas balloon is any balloon that stays aloft due to being filled with a gas less dense than air
or lighter than air (such as helium or hydrogen). It does not form an explosive mixture with
air. Although helium is twice as heavy as (diatomic) hydrogen and costlier, they are both so
much lighter than air that this difference is inconsequential. Hydrogen has about 8% more
buoyancy than helium

29. Which one of the following is NOT formed in our body?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Protein
(c) Enzyme
(d) Hormone
Answer-a
Explanation- Vitamin A is NOT formed in our body but comes from dietary sources. Protein,
enzyme and hormone are synthesized in our body.

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Silver iodide - Horm Silver
(b) Silver chloride- Artificial rain
(c) Zinc phosphide- Rat poison
(d) Zinc sulphide- Philosopher's wool
Answer-c
Explanation:
Rat poison is made with zinc phosphide. The zinc phosphide reacts with the rodent's stomach acid to form a gas called phosphine. Artificial rain is produced by spraying clouds with substances like Silver Iodide (costly) or cheaper ones like solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) or even finely powdered Sodium Chloride. This process is called seeding.

31. Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process?
(a) CO (b) CO2
(c) N2 (d) O2
Answer-b
Explanation-In photosynthesis, solar energy is converted to chemical energy. The chemical
energy is stored in the form of glucose (sugar). Carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight are used
to produce glucose, oxygen, and water.

32. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:-
List-I List-II
A. Morphinhe 1. Antiseptic
B. Sodium 2. Alloy
C. Boric Acid 3. Analgesic
D. German Silver 4. Kerosene oil
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer-d
Explanation-
Morphine- Analgesic
Sodium- Kerosene oil
Boric Acid- Antiseptic
German Silver- German silver has a color resembling silver, but is an alloy of primarily
copper, nickel and zinc.

33. Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations?
(a) Eyes
(b) Heart
(c) Brain
(d) Lungs
Answer- d
Explanation-Not all living cells are equally sensitive to radiation. Those cells which are actively reproducing are more sensitive than those which are not. Lymphocytes (white blood cells) and cells which produce blood are constantly regenerating, and are, therefore, the most sensitive. Reproductive and gastrointestinal cells are not regenerating as quickly and are less sensitive. The nerve and muscle cells are the slowest to regenerate and are the least sensitive cells.When radiation interacts with water, it may break the bonds that hold the water molecule together, producing fragments such as hydrogen (H) and hydroxyls (OH). These
fragments may recombine or may interact with other fragments or ions to form compounds, such as water, which would not harm the cell. However, they could combine to form toxic substances, such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), which can contribute to the destruction of the cell.Cataracts (a clouding of the lens of the eye) appear to have a threshold of about 200 rad. Neutrons are especially effective in producing cataracts, because the eye has a high water content, which is particularly effective in stopping neutrons.

34. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full size image of a person is equal to
(a) the height of the person
(b) half the height of the person.
(c) one-fourth the height of the person
(d) double the height of the person
Answer-b
Explanation-
In order to see full length of a person, requires a plane mirror, which is half of its own height. This relation is true for any distance of object from plane mirror.

35. Which of the following is NOT the normal function of the human kidney?
(a) Regulation of water level in the blood.
(b) Regulation of sugar level in the blood.
(c) Filter out urea.
(d) Secretion of several hormones.
Answer-b
Explanation-
Functions
1. Excretion of wastes
2. Acid-base homeostasis
3. Osmolality regulation
4. Blood pressure regulation
5. Hormone secretion

36. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera?
(a) Film
(b) Lens
(c) Shutter
(d) Cover
Answer-b
Explanation-
There is a lens on the front of the camera, which is responsible for focusing the incoming light
on the image-capturing surface. This is much like the way the lens of an eye focuses light onto
the retina. In traditional cameras, the surface is film. In digital cameras, the incoming light is
focused onto a chip called a digital sensor.

37. Anosmia is
(a) loss of the sense of taste.
(b) loss of the sense of smell.
(c) loss of the sense of touch.
(d) loss of the sense of heat.
Answer-b
Explanation-
Anosmia is a lack of functioning olfaction, or in other words, an inability to perceive odours. Anosmia may be either temporary or permanent. A related term, hyposmia, refers to a decreased ability to smell, while hyperosmia refers to an increased ability to smell. Some people may be anosmic for one particular odor. This is known as "specific anosmia".

38. Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R) : He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer-a
Explanation-
Vitamin A prevents eye problems, promotes a healthy immune system, is essential for the
growth and development of cells, and keeps skin healthy. Good sources of vitamin A are
milk, eggs, liver, fortified cereals, darkly colored orange or green vegetables (such as carrots,
sweet potatoes, pumpkin, and kale), and orange fruits such as cantaloupe, apricots, peaches,
papayas, and mangos.

39. Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is
(a) Hilsa
(b) Labeo
(c) Gambusia
(d) Mystus
Answer-c
Explanation-
The two well-known larvivorous fish used extensively by the Centre are exotic. The guppy, a
native of south America, was introduced in India in 1908 and Gambusia affinis, a native of
Texas and widely distributed in the world, was imported from Italy in 1928. Guppy (Poecilia
reticulata) and Gambusia affinis have been used in vector control programmes for 5 to 6
decades and could be found widely occurring in nature almost all over the country.

40. With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated?
(a) Excretion
(b) Blood clotting
(c) Reproduction
(d) Growth
Answer-b
Explanation-
Thrombin is a "trypsin-like" serine protease protein. Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is
proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the first step of the coagulation cascade, which
ultimately results in the stemming of blood loss. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease
that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalyzing many
other coagulation-related reactions.

41. AIDS is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Helminth
(d) Virus
Answer-d
Explanation-
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a
disease of the human immune system caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
This condition progressively reduces the effectiveness of the immune system and leaves
individuals susceptible to opportunistic infections and tumors.

42. BMD testing is done to diagnose
(a) Dengue
(b) Malaria
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) AIDS
Answer-c
Explanation-
Bone density (or bone mineral density) is a medical term referring to the amount of matter
per cubic centimeter of bones. Bone density (or BMD) is used in clinical medicine as an
indirect indicator of osteoporosis and fracture risk.

43. The principle of 'Black hole' was enunciated by
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) H.J. Bhabha
(c) S. Chandrashekhar
(d) H. Khurana
Answer-c
Explanation-
Chandrasekhar's most notable work was the astrophysical Chandrasekhar limit. The limit describes the maximum mass of a white dwarf star, ~1.44 solar masses, or equivalently, the minimum mass, above which a star will ultimately collapse into a neutron star or black hole (following a supernova)

44. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?
(a) Thorium
(b) Graphite
(c) Radium
(d) Ordinary water
Answer-d
Explanation-
The reaction can be controlled by using neutron poisons, which absorb excess neutrons, and neutron moderators, which reduce the velocity of fast neutrons, thereby turning them into thermal neutrons, which are more likely to be absorbed by other nuclei. Increasing or decreasing the rate of fission has a corresponding effect on the energy output of the reactor.Commonly used moderators include regular (light) water (75% of the world's reactors), solid graphite (20% of reactors) and heavy water (5% of reactors). Beryllium has
also been used in some experimental types, and hydrocarbons have been suggested as another possibility.

45. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
(a) killing the germs
(b) Reducing the rate of biochemical reactions.
(c) destroying enzyme action.
(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice.
Answer-b
Explanation-
Refrigeration preserves food by slowing down the growth and reproduction of microorganisms and the action of enzymes which cause food to rot.

46. Electric bulb filament is made of
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Lead
(d) Tungsten
Answer-d
Explanation-
Incandescent light bulbs consist of a glass enclosure (the envelope, or bulb) with a filament of
tungsten wire inside the bulb, through which an electric current is passed. The bulb is filled
with an inert gas such as argon to reduce evaporation and prevent oxidation of the filament.

47. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles?
(a) Plane
(b) Convex
(c) Concave
(d) Inverted
Answer-b
Explanation-
A rear-view mirror is a mirror in automobiles and other vehicles, designed to allow the
driver to see rearward through the vehicle's backlight (rear windscreen). Because of the
distance from the driver's eye to the passenger side mirror, a useful field of view can only be
achieved with a convex or aspheric mirror. However, the convexity also minifies the objects
shown. Since minified objects seem farther away than they actually are, a driver might make
a maneuver such as a lane change assuming an adjacent vehicle is a safe distance behind,
when in fact it is quite a bit closer.

48. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech Terminology?
(a) Protocol
(b) Login
(c) Archie
(d) All the above
Answer-d
Explanation-
Archie is a tool for indexing FTP archives, allowing people to find specific files. It is considered to be the first Internet search engine. In information technology, a Protocol is the special set of rules that end points in a telecommunication connection use when they communicate. Protocols exist at several levels in a telecommunication connection. For example, there are protocols for the data interchange at the hardware device level and protocols for data interchange at the application program level. In computer security, a login
or logon is the process by which individual access to a computer system is controlled by identification of the user using credentials provided by the user.

49. Inventor and founder of www is
(a) Timoernrus
(b) N. Russel
(c) Lee N. Fiyong
(d) Bill Gates
Answer-a
Explanation-
Sir Timothy John "Tim" Berners-Lee, also known as "TimBL", is a British physicist, computer scientist and MIT professor, credited for his invention of the World Wide Web (not the Internet), making the first proposal for it in March 1989. On 25 December 1990, with the help of Robert Cailliau and a young student at CERN, he implemented the first successful communication between a Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) client and server via the Internet.

50. Amniocentosis is a method used to determine the
(a) foetal sex
(b) kind of Amino acids
(c) sequence of Amino acids in protein
(d) type of hormones
Answer-a
Explanation-
Amniocentesis (also referred to as amniotic fluid test or AFT), is a medical procedure used in
prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections in which a small
amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is extracted from the amnion or
amniotic sac surrounding a developing fetus, and the fetal DNA is examined for genetic
abnormalities. Besides these specific conditions for use of amniocentesis it is being used, or
rather grossly misused, for doing antenatal sex determination (ASD).

51. Indane gas is a mixture of
(a) butane and hydrogen
(b) butane and oxygen
(c) butane and propane
(d) methane and oxygen
Answer- c
Explanation- Indane Gas A mixture of propane and butane is commonly known as liquefied
petroleum gas (LPG or LP gas). It may also contain small amounts of propylene and/or
butylene. An odorant such as ethanethiol or thiophene is added so that people can easily
smell the gas in case of a leak.

52. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second
official language of the State?
(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer-d
Explanation-
The Uttarakhand Government has declared Sanskrit as the second official language of the
State. The hill State becomes the first to take such a step.The Vidhan Sabha had passed the
relevant legislation recently.Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank said the step had
been taken to promote the ancient language so that the children could understand it and
translate or co-relate traditional and Vedic wisdom with current day science, economics and
polity.

53. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) National Security Advisor
Answer-a
Explanation-
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution of India and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to
vote.

54. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
(a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government.
(b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet.
(c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.
(d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber.
Answer-c
Explanation-
The Cabinet of India is the collective decision-making body of the Government of India, composed of the Prime Minister and 35 Cabinet Ministers, the most senior of the government ministers. The Cabinet is the ultimate decision-making body of the executive within the Westminster system of government in traditional constitutional theory. The membership of the Cabinet is not restricted to the Lower House.

55. Voting right by the youths as the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General
Election of
(a) 1987
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(c) 1990
Answer-c
Explanation-
Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989: It lowers the voting age from 21 to 18 to give wider representation and involve the present day literate youth, in the mainstream of political life of the nation. Voting right by the youths as the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of 1989. General elections were held in India in 1989 to elect the members of the 9th Lok Sabha. The result was a loss for the Indian National Congress and Rajiv Gandhi, because all the opposition parties formed together a minority government under V. P. Singh and the National Front. The National Front was able to secure the first
 minority government, since 1947 Independence, with the help of the Left Parties and Bharatiya Janata Party. The Communists and the BJP declined to serve in the government, preferring to support it from outside.

56. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly
is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council?
(a)168
(b) 169
(c) 170
(d) 171
Answer-b
Explanation-
Article 169 Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States- Notwithstanding anything in article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in as State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.

57. Missile 'Astra' is a
(a) land to land missile
(b) land to air missile
(c) air to air missile
(d) waster to land missile
Answer-c
Explanation-
Astra is an active radar homing beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), India. This is the first airto- air missile developed by India- an advanced missile that enables fighter pilots to lock-on and shoot down enemy aircraft from a distance of more than 80 km away.

58. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I List-II
A. Pandit Durgalal 1. Instrumental
Music
B. Lalgudi 2. Dance
Jayaraman
C. Bala Murali 3. Painting
Krishna
D. Amrita Shergil 4. Vocal Music
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 3 1
Answer-a
Explanation-
Durga Lal was a renowned Kathak dancer from Jaipur in Indian state of Rajasthan. Lalgudi Jayarama Iyer is a well-known Carnatic violinist, vocalist and composer. Mangalampalli Balamuralikrishna is a Carnatic vocalist, multi-instrumentalist and a playback singer. He is also acclaimed as a poet, composer and respected by all Indian classical musicians for his knowledge of Carnatic Music. Amrita Sher-Gil, was an eminent Indian painter, sometimes known as India's Frida Kahlo, and today considered an important woman painter of 20th century India, whose legacy stands at par with that of the Masters of Bengal Renaissance; she is also the 'most expensive' woman painter of India.

59. South Indian festival of 'Onam' is associated with which of the following?
(a) Ram's victory over Rawan
(b) Durga's killing of Mahishasur
(c) Shiva Shakti
(d) Mahabali
Answer-d
Explanation-
Onam is the largest festival in the Indian state of Kerala. It marks the homecoming of the legendary King Maveli/ Mahabali. Mahabali was the grandson of Prahlad (son of Hiranyakashyap who was slain by Vishnu in his Narasimha Avataram). Prahlad, despite being an Asura, had great faith in Vishnu. Mahabali learned the act of love and devotion to Lord Vishnu as a child, from Prahlad.

60. Which among the following is the largest software company in India?
(a) Infosys (b) TCS
(c) WIPRO (d) HCL Tech
Answer-b
Explanation-
Top 5 Software Companies in India
Rank Company
1 Tata Consultancy Services Ltd.
2 Infosys Technologies Ltd.
3 Wipro Technologies Ltd.
4 Satyam Computer Services Ltd.
5 HCL Technologies Ltd.

61. Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership?
(a) LIC Policy
(b) Bank Fixed Deposit
(c) Kisan Vikas Patra
(d) Debenture of a Company
Answer- a

62. In the Union Budget-2011- 12, the effective rate of interest for farmers on timely repayment of
the bank loan is
(a) 7 percent (b) 6 percent
(c) 4 percent (d) 3 percent
Answer-c
Explanation-
In the Union Budget-2011- 12, the effective rate of interest for farmers on timely repayment of the bank loan is 4%. "In the last Budget, Budget provided an additional two per cent interest subvention to those farmers who repay their crop loans on time. In order to provide further incentive to these farmers, Union Budget-2011- 12 enhance the additional subvention to three per cent in 2011-12. The effective rate of interest for such farmers would be four per cent.

63. 'Athapoo' is associated with which of the following festivals?
(a) Dol Yatra
(b) Onam
(c) Pongal
(d) Vishwakarma Puja
Answer-b
Explanation-
Pookalam, also known as 'Atha-Poo' is an intricate and colorful arrangement of flowers laid on the floor. Tradition of decorating Pookalam is extremely popular in Kerala and is followed as a ritual in every household during ten-day-long Onam celebrations.

64. Golden rice has the highest quantity of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Answer-a
Explanation-
Golden rice is a variety of Oryza sativa rice produced through genetic engineering to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of pro-vitamin A in the edible parts of rice.

65. Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease?
(a) Mango (b) Papaya
(c) Aonla (d) Ber
Answer-c
Explanation-
Scurvy is a disease resulting from a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in humans. Most animals manufacture their own vitamin C. Primates, such as humans, gorillas, and monkeys, have somehow lost this ability. It is well known that citrus fruits, such as oranges, lemons, grapefruits, tangerines, limes, mandarins and others contain vitamin C. Indian gooseberry, or aamla', is richest sores of
vitamin C.

66. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid?
(a) Arhar and Gram
(b) Moong and Urad
(c) Rice and Millets
(d) Maize and Groundnut
Answer-b
Explanation-
Moong and Urad are Kharif crop but it also can be grown in the irrigated areas during Zaid.

67. The largest producer of Sugar in India is
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer-c
Explanation-
India's western Maharashtra state, the biggest sugar producer in the country, has revised downward its 2010/11 sugar output forecast to 9 million tonnes from the previous 9.1 million tonnes.

68. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods?
(a) Any Nationalised Bank
(b) Exchange Bank
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Ministry of Finance
Answer-c
Explanation-
Manager of exchange control. The central bank manages to reach the goals of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.

69. A letter of credit has to be produced by
(a) an exporter
(b) an importer
(c) custom authorities
(d) shipping company
Answer-b
Explanation-
A Letter of Credit is a written undertaking by the Importer’s bank, known as the Issuing Bank, on behalf of its customer, the Importer (Applicant), promising to effect payment in favour of the Exporter (Beneficiary) up to a stated sum of money, within a prescribed time limit and against stipulated documents.A key principle underlying Letters of Credit is that banks deal only in documents and not in goods.

70. Which organisation promotes the foreign trade?
(a) ECGC
(b) MMTC
(c) STC
(d) All of the above
Answer-d
Explanation-
Organization promotes the foreign trade:
A. Public Sector Undertakings
State Trading Corporation (STC)
MMTC Limited
PEC Limited Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited
India Trade Promotion Organisation
B. Export Promotion Councils
C. Other Organisations
Federation of Indian Export Organisations
Indian Council of Arbitration
Indian Diamond Institute
Footwear Design & Development Institute (FDDI) National Centre for Trade Information
Price Stabilization Fund Trust
GS1-India

71. The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is
(a) Cess
(b) Foreign assistance
(c) Market borrowings
(d) Budgetary support of Union Government
Answer-a
Explanation-
Source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India Cess (main source) World Bank/Asian Development Bank Loan Assistance Market Borrowings Private Sector.

72. Private Sector Mutual Funds in India were permitted in
(a) 1964
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 2001
Answer-b
Explanation-
With the entry of private sector funds in 1993, a new era started in the Indian mutual fund industry, giving the Indian investors a wider choice of fund families. Also, 1993 was the year in which the first Mutual Fund Regulations came into being, under which all mutual funds, except UTI were to be registered and governed. The erstwhile Kothari Pioneer (now merged with Franklin Templeton) was the first private sector mutual fund registered in July 1993.

73. The State known as 'Garden of Spices' is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer-b
Explanation-
The humid equatorial tropic climate and steep mountain slopes are ideal for spice cultivation. Kerala is one of the popular tea and spice producing states of India. Kerala spice plantation is famous across the globe since time immemorial. During ancient time Chinese and Arab traders came here for spice trading.

74. MODVAT is related to
(a) Excise duty
(b) Value Added Tax (VAT)
(c) Wealth Tax
(d) Income Tax
Answer-b
Explanation:
Modvat stands for "Modified Value Added Tax". It is a scheme for allowing relief to final manufacturers on the excise duty borne by their suppliers in respect of goods manufactured by them. The scheme was first introduced with effect from 1 March 1986. Under this scheme, a manufacturer can take credit of excise duty paid on raw materials and components used by him in his manufacture. Accordingly, every intermediate manufacturer can take credit for the excise element on raw materials and components used by him in his manufacture. Since it amounts to excise duty only on additions in value by each manufacturer at each stage, it is called value-added-tax (VAT)

75. More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
Answer-a
Explanation:
China's share of world crude steel production has also increased exponentially and produces more than one third of all crude steel produced in the world.

76. The Sun City is located in
(a) Italy
(b) Japan
(c) Mexico
(d) South Africa
Answer-d
Explanation:
Sun City is a luxury casino and resort, situated in the North West Province of South Africa. Sun City was developed by the hotel magnate Sol Kerzner as part of his Sun International group of properties.

77. The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is
(a) China, India, Russia, U.S.A.
(b) India, U.S.A., China, Russia
(c) U.S.A. India, China, Russia
(d) India, China, U.S.A., Russia
Answer-b
Explanation:
World's Top Milk Producers:
India
United States
China
Russian Federation

78. Match list- I and List- II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists :
List- I List- II
(Iron-Steel Centre) (Country)
A. Hamilton 1. China
B. Birmingham 2. Canada
C. Essen 3. U.K.
D. Anshan 4. Germany
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
Answer-c
Explanation:
Hamilton is a port city in the Canadian province of Ontario. Birmingham is a city and metropolitan borough in the West Midlands county of England. Essen is a city in the central part of the Ruhr area in North Rhine-Westphalia, Germany. Anshan, Liaoning, a major city in Liaoning Province in Northeastern China.

79. Import procedure begins with
(a) Indent
(b) Mate's receipt
(c) Marine insurance
(d) Shipping bill
Answer- Still searching

80. Match List- I and List- II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List- I (Lake) List-II (City)
A. Erie 1. Duluth
B. Michigan 2. Detroit
C. Ontario 3. Gary
D. Superior 4. Hamilton
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Answer-d
Explanation:
Erie Lake- Detroit, Buffalo, Ohio
Michigan-Gary, Milwaukee, Chicago
Ontario-Hamilton, Toronto
Superior-Duluth

81. In India the State with the largest area under very dense forest is
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Orissa
Answer-a
Explanation:
State having its maximum geographical area under dense forest cover-Arunachal Pradesh
State having lowest geographical area under forest cover-Haryana
State having Largest geographical area under forest cover-MP

82. In India two largest producers of coal (2008-09) are
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(b) Chattisgarh and Orissa
(c) Chattisgarh and Jharkhand
(d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Answer-b
Explanation:
The provisional total production of coal in 2008-09 was around 492.9 million tonnes which was higher by 7.8% as compared to the previous year. Chhattisgarh is the largest coal producing state with a share of about 20.7%, followed closely by Orissa and Jharkhand having contribution of 20.0% and 19.5%, respectively, in the national output. Next in order of share in the total production were, Madhya Pradesh (14.5%), Andhra Pradesh (9.0%), Maharashtra (7.9%), West Bengal (4.6%) and Uttar Pradesh (2.4%).

83. Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region?
1. Ambala 2. Khurja
3. Karnal 4. Rohtak
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
Answer-d
Explanation:
The criterion for selecting counter magnet towns are that they should not be within approximately. 250 Km. from Delhi, should have their own established roots and potential of growth and should not be centres of either religious, strategic or environmental importance. These are: New ones Ambala, Dehradun, Kanpur, Moradabad

84. Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of
(a) New South Wales
(b) Northern lerritory
(c) Queensland
(d) Western Australia
Answer-d
Explanation:
Coolgardie is a small town in the Australian state of Western Australia, east of the state capital, Perth. The town was founded in 1892, when gold was discovered in the area.

85. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
(a) Koyali - Gujarat
(b) Nagapattinam - Andhra Pradesh
(c) Numaligarh - Assam
(d) Manali - Tamil Nadu
Answer-d
Explanation:
One of the important hill stations of the state of Himachal Pradesh is Manali. It is located at a height of 6,398 ft., near the northern end of the Kullu Valley.

86. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their forest-area and select the
correct answer from the code given below:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Orissa
Code :
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer-d
Explanation:
Forest Cover (Area in km²)
Madhya Pradesh- 76,429
Arunachal Pradesh- 68,019
Chhattisgarh- 55,998
Orissa- 48,366
Andhra Pradesh- 44,419

87. Which one of the following does NOT lie in Maharashtra ?
(a) Balaghat Range
(b) Harischandra Range
(c) Mandav Hills
(d) Satmala Hills
Answer-c
Explanation:
Mountains & Hills of Gujarat:
Mountains & Hills Major mountain-ranges of India - Aravalli , Sahyadri (Western Ghats), Vindhya and Satpura are having their presence in Gujarat. Saputara - the only hill station situated in the heart of Dangs district altitude of 1000 m Gir hills, Barda , Dhola range, Mandav Hills, Danta Hills etc. are some hill areas of Gujarat. Girnar is the tallest hill of Gujarat. Highest peak - Guru Dattatreya (1145 m).

88. Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat?
(a) Jamnagar
(b) Okha
(c)Porbandar
(d) Veraval
Answer-a
Explanation:
Kandla Port is one of the largest ports serving Western India. Other important ports in
Gujarat are the Port of Navlakhi, Port of Magdalla, Port of Pipavav, Port of Porbandar, Okha, Veraval, Dahej and the privately owned Mundra Port.

89. Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011 ?
(a) Isadore M. Singer
(b) John Griggs Thompson
(c) John Willard Milnor
(d) Peter D. Lax
Answer-c
Explanation:
The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters has chosen one of the living legends of mathematics, John Willard Milnor of the Institute for Mathematical Sciences in the University of Stony Brook, U.S.A, for the award of its prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011.

90. Assertion (A) : Kerala stands first in terms of human development human development index.
Reason (R) : Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer-b
Explanation:
Kerala stands first in Human Development Index among the states in India, while Chandigarh stands first in Human Development Index among the Union territories in India. Unemployment rates, especially among educated youth, started increasing during the 1980s. Faced with a stagnant economy, international migration, especially to West Asia, was a welcome respite for the people. Kerala got transformed from being an agrarian economy to a money-order economy, with very high levels of consumption and very poor goods production. Today Kerala has the highest rates of unemployment in the country and has touched nearly 29% in 2004-05 compared with the national average of around 8%.

91. Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011?
(a) Prem Chopra
(b) Rajesh Khanna
(c) Shammi Kapoor
(d) Shatrughan Sinha
Answer-a
Explanation:
He played the evil anti-hero in Bollywood for decades but Prem Chopra is a gentleman off screen and the veteran will be honoured with the Mother Teresa Award for his humanitarian work and five-decade-long career.

92. Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $ 220 million agreement with
the World Bank?
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer-a
Explanation:
The World Bank Wednesday signed a $220 million reconstruction aid agreement with the Bihar government to rebuild the flood-affected areas of the state with new bridges, roads and houses.

93. According to the World Bank's Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct
descending order of the world's five most indebted countries is
(a) Russia, Brazil, China, Turkey, India.
(b) Russia, China, Turkey, Barzil, India.
(c) Russia, China, Brazil, India, Turkey.
(d) Russia, Brazil, India, China, Turkey.
Answer-b
Explanation:
World's five most indebted countries
Russian Federation- 402,453 (US$ millions)
China ------------------378,245
Turkey -----------------277,277
Brazil -------------------255,614
India --------------------230,611

94. In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
Answer-d
Explanation:
The Second IIYFF was held on 1st and 2nd Feb. 2011 at Jawahar Lal Nehru University Campus, New Delhi. It was a great success and the response was overwhelming. The Two Day festival was inaugurated by Hon’ble Vice-Chancellor Prof .S . K . Sopory of JNU along with the Senior Actor Sushma Seth and number of celebrities and dignitaries at SSS-1 Auditorium, JNU Campus.

95. At the 83rd Oscar Award the best film award was won by
(a) Black Swan
(b) The Fighter
(c) The King's Speech
(d) The Social Network
Answer-c
Explanation:
83rd Oscar Award:
Actor in a Leading Role-Colin Firth in “The King's Speech”
Actress in a Leading Role-Melissa Leo in “The Fighter”
Directing-“The King's Speech” Tom Hooper
Best Picture-“The King's Speech” Iain Canning, Emile Sherman and Gareth Unwin, Producers

96. The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of
(a) Sarswati
(b) Bharti
(c) Anweshan
(d) Yamnotri
Answer-b
Explanation:
India is all set to build the third such centre in Antarctica at a cost of Rs 230 crore to take up cutting-edge research in various fields. The new station, tentatively named Bharti, is scheduled to be operational by 2012, making India a member of an elite group of nine nations that have multiple stations in the region. Dakshin Gangotri, set up in 1984, was buried in ice and had to be abandoned in 1990, a year after India set up Maitri, the second station. The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, will set up
the new station on Larsmann Hill, 3,000 km from Schirmacher Oasis, where Maitri stands.

97. The author of the book "The Emperor of All Maladies : A Biography of Cancer", for which
2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded, is
(a) Farid zakariya
(b) Geeta Anand
(c) Jhumpa Lahri
(d) Siddhartha Mukherjee
Answer-d
Explanation:
Indian-American physician Siddhartha Mukherjee has become the fourth person of Indian origin to bag the prestigious Pulitzer Prize 2011 in the general non-fiction category for his acclaimed book on cancer, ‘The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer.’

98. The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to
(a) Shabana Azmi
(b) Mulana Wahiduddin Khan
(c) Javed Akhtar
(d) None of the above
Answer-b
Explanation:
Eminent Islamic scholar and champion of peace and harmony Maualana Wahiduddin Khan has been bestowed with 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his outstanding contribution towards the promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill at a function held at Jawahar Bhawan in New Delhi.

99. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with
(a) Australia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea
Answer-c
Explanation:
16 February 2011, Japan and India have signed a free-trade agreement. They are trying to make it easier to sell goods between the two countries. Japan is trying to build greater trade links since it was recently overtaken by China as the world's second biggest economy.

100. India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement with
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Vietnam
Answer-b
Explanation:  Anand Sharma, Union Minister of Commerce & Industry and Mustapa Mohamed, Minister for International Trade & Industry, Malaysia, signed the India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in the presence of Malaysian Prime Minister, Mohd Najib Razak at Putrajaya in Kuala Lumpur on February 18, 2011. The Agreement will come into effect on July 1, 2011 and the first review will be held within a year of coming into force.

101. Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census?
(a) Gautambuddh Nagar
(b) Ghaziabad
(c) Kanpur Nagar
(d) Lucknow
Answer-b
Explanation:
District-------------Average Literacy rate
Ghaziabad-----------------85
Gautam Buddha Nagar-82
Kanpur Nagar-------------81.3
Lucknow------------------79.33

102. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to
(a) Banaras Gharana
(b) Agara Gharna
(c) Kirana Gharana
(d) Lucknow Gharana
Answer-a
Explanation:
Girija Devi is an Indian classical singer of the Banaras gharana. She performs classical and light classical music and has helped elevate the profile of thumri.

103. Match List- I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below
List I (District) List II
(Headquarters)
A. Jalaun 1. Akbarpur
B. Kanpur Dehat 2. Navgarh
C. Sant Ravidas Nagar 3. Padrauna
D. Kushinagar 4. Orai
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
Answer-a
Explanation:
Jalaun District, named after town of Jalaun, which was the former headquarters of a Maratha governor, but the administrative headquarters of the district is at Orai. The administrative headquarters of Ramabai Nagar district formerly known as Kanpur Dehat district are at Mati, Akbarpur. Sant Ravidas Nagar is a district of Uttar Pradesh state in northern India. The city of Gyanpur is the district headquarters. Kushinagar District is a district of Uttar Pradesh state in northern India. Padarauna is the district headquarters. The
district is named for Kushinagar, a Buddhist pilgrimage site where Gautama Buddha attained parinirvana in the 6th or 5th centuries BCE.

104. The first Women General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Maldives
(d) Bhutan
Answer-c
Explanation:
SAARC gets its first woman Secretary-General in its silver jubilee year — the former Maldivian Attorney-General, Fathimath Dhiyana Saeed, is all set to succeed Indian diplomat Sheel Kant Sharma, who will complete his tenure of three years by the end of this month.

105. Famous Charkula dance is associated with
(a) Avadh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Brij Bhumi
(d) Rohilkhand
Answer-c
Explanation:
The spectacular dance from Braj region of Uttar Pradesh - the land of Lord Krishna and his consort - Radha. Veiled women balancing large multi-tiered circular wooden pyramids on their heads, alight with 108 oil lamps, dance to the strains of 'rasiya' - songs of Lord Krishna. Charkula is especially performed on the third day after Holi - the day which Radha was born. According to legend, Radha's grandmother ran out of the house with the charkula on her head to announce the birth of Radha, Since then, Charkula has formed a popular dance form of Brajbhoomi, performed during various festivities.

106. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at
(a) Faizabad
(b) Meerut
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jhansi
Answer-b
Explanation:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology, Meerut established on 2nd October 2000 has the honour of being First Agriculture University of the 21st century. It is a professional University providing education, research and extension activities in integrated manner.

107.Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List- I List- II
(City) (Aerodrome)
A. Lucknow 1. Babatpur
B. Varanasi 2. Kherai
C. Kanpur 3. Amausi
D. Agra 4. Chakeri
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer-d
Explanation:
City---------------Aerodrome
Lucknow---------- Amausi
Varanasi----------Babatpur
Kanpur------------Chakeri
Agra-------------- Kherai

108. The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is
(a) Peacock
(b) Saras
(c) Parrot
(d) Cuckoo
Answer-b
Explanation:
Although designated as the offical bird of Uttar Pradesh, the Sarus crane finds itself under threat. Despite a protective High Court order, the economic plans of the government threaten to disrupt the birds' habitat.

109. The most popular religious magazine 'Kalyan' is published from
(a) Mathura
(b) Rishikesh
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Varanasi
Answer-c
Explanation:
The Gita Press is one of the world's largest publishers of Hindu religious texts. It is located in Gorakhpur city of India's Uttar Pradesh state. It was founded in 1923 by Jaya Dayal Goyandka for promoting the principles of Sanatana Dharma. Hanuman Prasad Poddar was the founding and the lifetime editor of its noted magazine, Kalyan.

110. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Virendvan Mandir - Mathura
(b) J.K. Temple - Lucknow
(c) Vishwanath Mandir - Varanasi
(d) Devipatan Mandir - Tulsipur
Answer-b
Explanation:
Virendvan Mandir-------- Mathura
J.K. Temple---------------Kanpur
Vishwanath Mandir - ----Varanasi
Devipatan Mandir--------Tulsipur

111. Which one of the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct?
(a) It accounts for 16.5 percent of the country's population.
(b) It has the largest number of children in the country.
(c) Its decadal growth rate is 18.4%
(d) Its sex ratio is 908.
Answer-c
Explanation:
Decadal growth rate----20.09
Sex ratio-------------------908
Proportion of child population (0-6 yrs)-14.90
Proportion of total population---16.5

112. In which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India?
(a) Potato
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
Answer-b
Explanation:
Crop-Three largest producing States (↓ order)
Rice-West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
Wheat- Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana
Sugarcane- Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
Potato- Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar

113. In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the "man of the tournament" was
(a) Kumar Sangakkara
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Tilakratne Dilshan
(d) Yuraj Singh
Answer-d
Explanation:
Man of the Tournament-Yuvraj Singh
Man of the Match in the World Cup Final- Mahendra Singh Dhoni

114. The Winner of All England Badminton Championship, 2011, Men's Singles Title, was
(a) Chen Jin
(b) Lee Chong Wei
(c) Lee yong Dae
(d) Lin Dan
Answer-b
Explanation:  All England Badminton Championship, 2011-Singles
Lee Chong Wei (Malay.) -Male
Wang Shixian (China)- Female

115. The winter of Australian Open 2011, Men's Singles, was
(a) Andy Murray
(b) David Ferrer
(c) Novak Djkovic
(d) Roger Fderer
Answer-c
Explanation:
Novak Djkovic has won two Grand Slam singles titles, the 2008 and 2011 Australian Open championships, becoming the first player representing Serbia to win a Grand Slam singles title and the youngest player in the open era to have reached the semi-finals of all four Grand Slam events, separately and consecutively

116. The Captain of the India Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was
(a) Arjun Halappa
(b) Rajesh Kumar
(c) Rajpal Singh
(d) Shivendi Singh
Answer-a
Explanation: Azlan Shah Cup hockey tournament, 2011 held at Ipoh, Malaysia from May 5

to 15. The team played under the captaincy of Arjun Halappa.
117. Farrukhabad is known for
(a) carpet weaving
(b) Glassware
(c) Perfume manufacture
(d) Hand printing
Answer-d
Explanation:
Handprinting work (here called as Zardozi work) is also a large industry, which employs thousands of workers. Earlier printing of Farrukhabad was supplied to all over India and also some abroad countries. But due to the city is separated from the highways and also from the good conveyance so now-a-days printing business came down to a few printing industry. Farrukhabad is a biggest city of producing Potato in the state and also supplies all over India. As Potato is the biggest agricultural product of the district.

118. In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State 'won the team title in Badminton in Men's Section ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer-b
Explanation:
Kerala, dominated the proceedings in the Badminton team event, at the recently concluded
34th National Games Badminton events held at the Thakur Vishwanath Shahdeo Indoor
Stadium at Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Kerala won both the men's and the women's badminton team events overcoming the
challenge of badminton powers Andhra Pradesh & Maharashtra.
Badminton Men's Finals:
Kerala beat Andhra Pradesh 3-2
Badminton Women's Finals:
Kerala beat Andhra Pradesh 2-1

119. 'Stanley Cup' is associated with
(a) Badminton
(b) Basketball
(c) Golf
(d) Ice Hockey
Answer-d
Explanation:  The Stanley Cup is an ice hockey club trophy, awarded annually to the National Hockey League (NHL) playoffs champion after the conclusion of the Stanley Cup Finals.

120. The "Laureus World Sportsman of the Year" award for 2010 was given to
(a) Lionel Massi
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Ronaldo
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer-b
Explanation:
Laureus World Sportsman of the Year, 2010-Usain Bolt, Athletics - Jamaica
Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year, 2010 -Serena Williams, Tennis - United States
Laureus World Team of the Year, 2010- Brawn GP Formula One - United Kingdom
Laureus World Sportsman of the Year, 2011-Rafael Nadal, Tennis – Spain

121. 'Smash' is associated with which of the following sports?
(a) Boxing
(b) Wrestling
(c) Football
(d) Volleyball
Answer-d
Explanation: The smash is the main attacking shot used in volleyball and is probably one of
the hardest moves to master.

122. Bula Chaudhary is well-known in which of the following sport disciplines?
(a) Swimming (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Archery
Answer-a
Explanation:
Bula Choudhury is a former national women's swimming champion of India. She is the first woman to cross seven seas. She twice swam the English Channel first in 1989 and again in 1999. She was awarded the Arjuna Award in 1990. She is now is planning to establish a swimming academy in Kolkatta. She is a Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)) legislator from Nandanpur in West Midnapore district in West Bengal. She was also awarded Padma Shri award.

123. Tejaswini Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned World Champion in
(a) Athletics
(b) Boxing
(c) Shooting
(d) Wrestling
Answer-c
Explanation:
Tejaswini Sawant is an Indian shooter from the Maharashtrian city of Kolhapur. Sawant won a bronze medal in 50 metre rifle three positions at the 2009 ISSF World Cup in Munich. On 8 August 2010 she became the World Champion in the 50m Rifle Prone event in Munich, Germany. She was the first Indian woman shooter to win a gold medal at the World Championships with a world-record equalling score in the 50 m Rifle Prone event.

124. The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is
(a) Services, Manipur, Haryana, Maharashtra
(b) Services, Haryana, Manipur, Maharashtra
(c) Services, Manipur, Maharashtra, Haryana
(d) Services, Haryana, Maharashtra, Manipur
Answer-a
Explanation:
Rank↓ Nation↓ Gold↓
1 Services -------------70
2 Manipur -------------48
3 Haryana--------------42
4 Maharashtra --------41
5 Jharkhand------------33

125. Sonu bought a watch with 30 percent discount on the labeled price. He sold it with 20
percent profit on the labelled price. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price
he bought?
(a) 50
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 85
Answer-c
Explanation:
Suppose labeled price = L
Sonu bought a watch = L X 70/100 = L X 7/10
He sold = L X 120 /100 = L 12/10
Profit = L 12/10 - L X 7/10 = L X 5/10
Percentage of profit on the price he bought =
L X 5/10 X 100 divided by L X 7/10 = 500/7 = 71.42

126. Which one of the following will come next in the series given below?
LXF MTJ NPN OLR _____
(a) PHV
(b) PPV
(c) PTV
(d) PJW
Answer-a
Explanation:
L M N O P
X T P L J or H
F J N R V (Difference between first two word-3 then 2 then again 3 thereafter will be again 2) so answer will be PHV

127. If COMPUTER is coded as RFUVQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be
(a) MFEDJJOE
(b) MFEJDJOE
(c) EOJDEJFM
(d) EOJDJEFM
Answer-d
Explanation:
C → R (Last word of COMPUTER)
O → F(One word ahead of E of COMPUTER)
M → U (One word ahead of T of COMPUTER)
P → V (One word ahead of U of COMPUTER)
U → Q (One word ahead of P of COMPUTER)
T → N (One word ahead of M of COMPUTER)
E → P (One word ahead of O of COMPUTER)
R → C (Initial word of COMPUTER)
Applying above coding
Answer will be EOJDJEFM

128. Introducing a girl Mohan said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law" How is Mohan related to that girl?
(a) Brother
(b) Father
(c) Husband
(d) Uncle
Answer-b
Explanation: Girl’s mother is the only daughter of Mohan’s mother-in-law. So Girl’s mother
will be wife of Mohan.

129. The following series has a wrong number-
1 12 65 264 795 1590 1593
The wrong number is
(a) 65
(b) 264
(c) 795
(d) 1590
Answer-d
Explanation:
1
12
12 x 5 +5 → 65
65 x 4 + 4 → 264
264 x 3 + 3 → 795
795 x 2 + 2 → 1592

130. Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyam and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyam?
(a) 60 years
(b) 51 years
(c) 48 years
(d) 45 years
Answer-d
Explanation:
G = S + 3 ------------------------1
G = 4 X R------------------------2
R + 3 = 15-----------------------3
R = 12
G = 4 X 12 = 48
S = 48 – 3 = 45 Years

131. Ten years ago Ram's age was half of Moti's age. If the ratio of their present age is 3:4, what is the total of their present ages?
(a) 25
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 35
Answer-d
Explanation:
R – 10 = M/2--------------------------- (1)
R/ M = ¾ ------------------------------- (2)
After solving above equation
R = 20
M = 15
R + M = 35 years

132. Manas started a business investing Rs. 42,000. After 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 30,160. What is Kamal's share in the profit ?
(a) Rs. 10, 000
(b) Rs. 20,160
(c) Rs. 10,160
(d) Rs. 8,000
Answer-a
Explanation:
Manas’s share in business = 42,000 x 12
Kamal’s share in business = 50,000 x 5
Kamal : Manas = 250 / 504
Kamal’s share =250 / 754 x 30,160 = 10,000

133. The surface area of a cube is 384 m2. Its volume will be
(a) 512 m3
(b) 516 m3
(c) 1032 m3
(d) 216 m3
Answer-a
Explanation:
6 x A2 = 384
A = 8
Volume = 83 = 512

134. There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively:
(a) 5, 11
(b) 5, 13
(c) 7, 11
(d) 7, 13
Answer-b
Explanation:
Consider prime number 5, 7, 9, 11, 13
The product of first three = 5 x 7 x 11= 384
The product of the last three = 7 X 11 X13 = 1001
Four prime number will be 5, 7, 11 and 13

135. If the number 1 X 5 X 0 1 is divisible by 11, then × is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 3
Answer-c
Explanation: Divisibility by 11
A number is divisible by 11 if the difference of sum of the digits in the odd places and sum of
the digits at even places is zero or divisible by 11.
Sum of the digits in the odd places = 6
Let X = 8
Sum of the digits at even places = 8 + 8 + 1 =17
The difference of sum of the digits in the odd places and sum of the digits at even places is 11
and divisible by 11. Correct answer will be 8.

136. Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of Rs. 180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month ?
(a) Rs. 1,200
(b) Rs. 1,400
(c) Rs. 1,600
(d) Rs. 1,800
Answer-a
Explanation:
M → Monthly income
2/5 M → Rent
Remaining income = M – 2/5 M = 3/5 M
3/5 M x ¾ = 9/20 M → Other expenses
180 = balance
Applying above in following equation
2/5 M + 9/20 M + 180 = M
8/20 M + 9/20 + 180 = M
17 M + 3600 = 20 M
3 M = 3600
M = 1200

137. The author of 'Green Development' is
(a) M.J. Bradshaw
(b) M. Nicolson
(c) R.H. Whittakar
(d) W.M. Adams
Answer-a

138. The missing number in the following series:
0, 4, 18, 48, ?, 180 is
(a) 58
(b) 68
(c) 84
(d) 100
Answer-d
Explanation-
4 → 22 = 4
18 → 32 X 2 = 9 X 2 = 18
48 → 42 X 3 = 16 X 3 = 48
? → 52 X 4 = 25 X 4 = 100
180 → 62 X 5 = 36 X 5 =180

139. The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at
(a) Bangkok
(b) Nairobi
(c) New Delhi
(d) Petersburg
Answer-d
Explanation: The Tiger summit 2010 at St. Petersburg, Russia, the first ever global tiger summit to save the tigers from extinction, from 21 November 2010 till 24 November 2010. The thirteen tigerrange countries namely India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, China, Indonesia, Malaysia, Laos, Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia and host Russia participated in the tiger summit. Besides these nations many international organisation on Tiger also participated. The nations and the organisations together endorsed a plan known as Global Tiger Recovery Programme to increase the number of wild tigers by double by the year 2022.

140. The author of 'Nuclear Reactor Time Bomb' is
(a) C.C. Park
(b) E.P. Odum
(c) S. Polasky
(d) Takashi Hirose
Answer-d
Explanation: Long-term activist and author Takashi Hirose is author of "Nuclear Reactor Time Bomb." Hirose had predicted an imminent megaquake and nuclear accident at the Hamaoka plant.

141. The World Water Conservation Day is observed on
(a) 28 February
(b) 22 March
(c) 5 June
(d) 11 July
Answer-b
Explanation: World Water Day has been observed on March 22 since 1993 when the United Nations General Assembly declared March 22 as World Day for Water.

142. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by
(a) Lions
(b) Spotted deers
(c) Tigers
(d) Wild Elephants
Answer-d
Explanation:
The national park was incepted in 1934 with a name Nellikkampatty Game Sanctuary. Later it was renamed as Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary in 1950. The sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1978. Later in 1991, Periyar was brought under Project Elephant. This sanctuary offers the unique opportunity to watch and photograph wild elephants at close quarter.

143. Which one of the following cities has the largest slum population?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Surat
Answer-d
Explanation:
Proportion of slum population
Greater Mumbai -54.06
Delhi M. Corp. - 18.74
Kolkata -32.48
Bangalore -10.02
Chennai-18.88
Ahmedabad-13.46
Hyderabad-17.23
Kanpur-14.42
Pune-19.39
Surat-20.89
All India-24.13

144. Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia?
(a) Israel
(b) Kuwait
(c) Qatar
(d) Saudi Arabia
Answer-b
Explanation:
Country-------------------------Urban population
Kuwait 96.2
Qatar 92
Israel 91.6
Saudi Arabia 87.6

145. Which of the following countries suffer from the acid rains?
1. Canada
2. France
3. Norway
4. Germany
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer-b
Explanation: Places with significant impact by acid rain around the globe include most of eastern Europe from Poland northward into Scandinavia,the eastern third of the United States, and southeastern Canada. Other affected areas include the southeastern coast of China and Taiwan.

146. According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar
Pradesh in descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the code
give below :
1. Allahabad
2. Azamgarh
3. Ghaziabad
4. Lucknow
Code :
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer-a
Explanation:
Allahabad- 5,959,798
Ghaziabad- 4,661,452
Azamgarh- 4,616,509
Lucknow- 4,588,455

147. According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ration in India is found in
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Haryana
Answer-b
Explanation:
(a) Chandigarh-818
(b) Daman and Diu-618
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli-775
(d) Haryana-877

148. Which one of the following States of India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate
during 2001-2011?
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer-a
Explanation- Maximum increase in literacy rate during 2001-2011
Bihar-16.82
Uttar Pradesh-13.45
Gujarat-10.17
Rajasthan-6.65

149. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
Answer-c
Explanation-Population Census 2011
State------------------ Population
Uttar Pradesh-------- 199581477
Maharashtra--------- 112372972
Bihar------------------ -103804637
West Bengal ----------91347736

150. Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census
of India 2011 ? Use the code given below to select the correct answer : -
1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep
2. Chandigarh has the highest population density.
3. Arunchal Pradesh has the lowest population density.
4. Dadra and nagar Haveli has the highest decadal gorwth of population.
Code :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer-d
Explanation:
The lowest population- Lakshadweep (64429)
Population density-Highest
Delhi 11297
Chandigarh 9252
Pondicherry 2598
Daman and Diu 2169
Lakshadweep 2013
Bihar 1102
West Bengal 1029
Population density-Lowest
Jammu and Kashmir-----------------56
Mizoram-------------------------------52
Andaman and Nicobar Islands------46
Arunachal Pradesh-------------------17
Highest decadal growth of population
Dadra and Nagar Haveli -------55.50
Daman and Diu -----------------53.54