INDIA BUDGET 2023-24 MCQs

 1. Who presented the Union Budget 2023?

a.APJ Abdul Kalam

b.Nirmala Sitharaman

c.Manmohan Singh

d.Narendra Modi

Answer: b. Nirmala Sitharaman

Explanation: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2023, the fifth budget on February 01 

2. The Budget 2023-24 adopts how many priorities?

a.7

b.6

c.2

d.1

Answer: a.7

Explanation: The Budget 2023-24 adopts the following seven priorities. They complement each other and act as the ‘Saptarishi’ guiding us through the Amrit Kaal. The priorities are, Inclusive Development, Reaching the Last Mile, Infrastructure and Investment, Unleashing the Potential, Green Growth, Youth Power, and Financial Sector.

3. Railways plan to refurbish more than 1,000 coaches of premier trains

a.1,000 coaches

b.5,000 coaches

c.10,000 coaches

d.100 coaches

Answer: a. 1,000 coaches

Explanation: Railways plan to refurbish more than 1,000 coaches of premier trains according to the Union Budget 2023.

4. How many teachers and support staff are to be recruited in the next 3 years, for 740 Eklavya Model Residential Schools?

a.As many as 38,000

b.As many as 50,000

c.As many as 10,000

d.As many as 40,000

Answer: a. As many as 38,000

Explanation: As many as 38,000 teachers and support staff are to be recruited in the next 3 years, for 740 Eklavya Model Residential Schools serving 3.5 lakh tribal students 

5. By which year the government aims to produce 5 MMT of green hydrogen?

a.2050

b.2025

c.2030

d.2040

Answer: c. 2030

Explanation: By 2030, the govt aims to produce 5 MMT of green hydrogen. Recently launched National Green Hydrogen with an outlay of Rs 19,700 crore.

6. What will be the global Hub for Millets?

a.the Indian Institute of Millet Research in Gujarat

b.the Indian Institute of Millet Research in Assam

c.the Indian Institute of Millet Research in Delhi

d.the Indian Institute of Millet Research in Hyderabad 

Answer: The Indian Institute of Millet Research in Hyderabad

Explanation: Now to make India a global hub for 'Shree Anna', the Indian Institute of Millet Research, Hyderabad will be supported as the Centre of Excellence for sharing best practices, research, and technologies at the international level.  

7. What is the New Scheme that focuses on the fishermen and fish vendors? 

a.Green Growth

b.PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

c.New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

d.Mahila Samman Bachat Patra

Answer. a. New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

Explanation: Fisheries: A new sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana with a targeted investment of  6,000 crores to further enable activities of fishermen, fish vendors, and micro & small enterprises, improve value chain efficiencies, and expand the market.

8. What is the new MSME scheme announced in the Union Budget 2023? 

a.New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

b.Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs

c.PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

d. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra

Answer: b.Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs

Explanation: Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs to take effect from 1st April 2023 through the infusion of Rs 9,000 crore in the corpus. This scheme would enable additional collateral-free guaranteed credit of Rs 2 lakh crore and also reduce the cost of the credit by about 1 percent.

9. Which Scheme that was announced in the Union Budget 2023 includes skilled people who are engaged in various traditional and skilled professions?

a.PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman)

b.Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs

c.PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

d. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra

Answer: a.PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman)

Explanation: PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman), which was announced in Budget 2023, will include skilled people who are engaged in various traditional and skilled professions.

10. Which was the first budget that was a digital one?

a.2023-24

b.2021-22

c.2002-03

d.2012-13

Answer: b. 2021-22

Explanation: The Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs, Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2021-22 in Parliament on February 1, 2021, which is the first budget of this new decade and also a digital one in the backdrop of the unprecedented COVID-19

11. Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman is presenting the Union Budget 2023 for the ________ time in a row.

(a) 10th

(b) 4th

(c) 3rd

(d) 5th

Answer: d

Explanation: Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman is presenting the Union Budget 2023 for the 5th time in a row. She will be presenting the financial statements and tax proposals for the fiscal year 2023-24 (April 2023 to March 2024).

12. The Budget 2023 focuses on _______ priorities, which the FM called the “Saptrishis guiding us through Amrit Kaal”. 

(a) Fifth

(b) Sixth

(c) Seven

(d) Eigth

Answer: c

Explanation: The Budget 2023 focuses on seven priorities, which the FM called the “Saptrishis guiding us through Amrit Kaal”

13. When was the first Union Budget of India presented?

(a) 1947

(b) 1948

(c) 1949

(d) 1950

Answer: a

Explanation: The first Finance Minister of independent India was R. K. Shanmukham Chetty. He presented the first Union budget of India on 26 Nov.1947. The first mini-budget was presented by T. T. Krishnamachari on November 30, 1956

14. What time is the Union Budget presented?

(a) 9 AM

(b) 11 AM

(c) 12 PM

(d) 1 PM

Answer: b

Explanation:  The Union Budget session 2023, will be presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman at 11 AM and will continue for up to two hours.

15. What is the current year’s economic growth is estimated at the Union budget 2023?

(a) 4%

(b) 8%

(c) 7%

(d) 6%

Anser: c

Explanation: In the 75th year of our Independence, the world has recognised the Indian economy as a ‘bright star’. Our current year’s economic growth is estimated to be at 7 per cent.

16. What is the maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizen Savings Scheme will be enhanced from?

(a) 05 lakh to 30 lakh

(b) 10 lakh to 30 lakh

(c) 15 lakh to 30 lakh

(d) 20 lakh to 30 lakh

Answer: c

Explanation: The maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizen Savings Scheme will be enhanced from ` 15 lakh to ` 30 lakh.

17. The outlay for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana is being enhanced by 66% to over _______.

(a) ₹39,000 cr

(b) ₹49,000 cr

(c) ₹59,000 cr

(d) ₹79,000 cr

Answer: d

Explanation: The outlay for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana is being enhanced by 66% to over ₹79,000 cr.

18. What is the rate of tax for Income tax slab between the income of Rs 3 Lakh to Rs 6 Lakh for assessment year 2023-24?

(a) 5%

(b) 10%

(c) 15%

(d) 20%

Answer: a

Explanation: 5% is the rate of tax for Income tax slab between the income of Rs 3 Lakh to Rs 6 Lakh for assessment year 2023-24.

19. “Bharat SHRI” will be set up in a digital epigraphy museum, with digitization of one lakh ancient inscriptions in the first stage. What does “I” stand for SHRI?

(a) India

(b) Intrapictures

(c) Inscriptions

(d) Industries

Answer: c

Explanation: ‘Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions’ will be set up in a digital epigraphy museum, with digitization of one lakh ancient inscriptions in the first stage.

20. Where is the budget presented by the Government?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Krishi Bhawan

(d) North Bhawan

Answer: a

Explanation:  According to the Constitution of India’s Article 110, a Finance Bill is a Money Bill which is presented only in the Lok Sabha or the lower house of the Parliament.

21. What is the rate of tax for Income tax slab between the income of Rs 9 Lakh to Rs 12 Lakh for assessment year 2023-24?

(a) 5%

(b) 10%

(c) 15%

(d) 20%

Answer: c

Explanation:  15% is the rate of tax for Income tax slab between the income of Rs 9 Lakh to Rs 12 Lakh for assessment year 2023-24.

22. What is the capital outlay has been provided for the Railways in the Union Budget 2023-24?

(a) 1.40 lakh crore

(b) 2.40 lakh crore

(c) 3.40 lakh crore

(d) 4.40 lakh crore

Answer: b

Explanation: A capital outlay of ` 2.40 lakh crore has been provided for the Railways. This highest ever outlay is about 9 times the outlay made in 2013-14.

23. The finance minister proposed to reduce the highest surcharge rate from 37 per cent to ________ in the new tax regime.

(a) 15 per cent

(b) 25 per cent

(c) 35 per cent

(d) 45 per cent

Answer: b

Explanation:  The finance minister proposed to reduce the highest surcharge rate from 37 per cent to 25 per cent in the new tax regime.

24. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented Union Budget on February 1, 2023. In the 2023 Budget speech, Sitharaman spoke for ______.

(a) 1 hour and 44 minutes

(b) 1 hour and 45 minutes

(c) 2 hours and 42 minutes

(d) 1 hour and 25 minutes

Answer: d

Explanation:  In the 2023 Budget speech, Sitharaman spoke for 1 hour and 25 minutes.

25. In the which year, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman replaced the Budget briefcase with the traditional ‘Bahi Khata’ having the National Emblem?

(a) 2015

(b) 2016

(c) 2017

(d) 2019

Answer: d

Explanation: In the year 2019, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman replaced the Budget briefcase with the traditional ‘Bahi Khata’ having the National Emblem.

26. The Centre has pegged the fiscal deficit _______ of GDP for FY24.

(a) 3.9 percent

(b) 4.3 percent

(c) 5.9 percent

(d) 6.6 percent

Answer: c

Explanation: The Centre has pegged the fiscal deficit for 2022-2023 and 5.9 percent of GDP for FY24, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said during her Union Budget speech.

27. What is the budget allocated for National Green Hydrogen Mission to shift low-carbon economy and reduce reliance on fossil fuel?

(a) Rs 15,700 crore

(b) Rs 16,700 crore

(c) Rs 17,700 crore

(d) Rs 19,700 crore

Answer: d

Explanation: The recently launched National Green Hydrogen Mission, with a budget of Rs 19,700 crore, will help the country shift to a low-carbon economy and reduce reliance on fossil fuel imports.

28. The defence budget was increased to ________ crore for 2023-24 from last year’s allocation of ₹5.25 lakh crore.

(a) ₹5.94 lakh

(b) ₹5.90 lakh

(c) ₹5.66 lakh

(d) ₹5.70 lakh

Answer: a

Explanation:  This is an increase from last year’s allocation of ₹5.25 lakh crore. The defence budget was increased to ₹5.94 lakh crore for 2023-24 from last year’s allocation of ₹5.25 lakh crore.

29. Which country first introduced budget?

(a) Australia

(b) England

(c) USA

(d) China

Answer: b

Explanation:  England was the highest country in the world to establish a modern government budget. After the triumph of the bourgeois revolution in 1640, England, as a parliamentary monarchy, had all of its financial powers controlled by Parliament.

30. According to which article of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement?

(a) Article 108

(b) Article 101

(c) Article 115

(d) Article 112

Answer: d

Explanation: According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS).

INDIA BUDGET AT A GLANCE 2023-2024

Key Features of India Budget 2023-2024

 

BUDGET TERMINOLOGY

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA BUDGET 2023-24

 

INDIA ECONOMIC SURVEY 2022-23

India Economic Survey High Lights 2022-23

 

India’s first Avalanche Monitoring Radar

 The Indian Army and the Defence Geoinformatics and Research Establishment (DGRE) have jointly installed the Avalanche Monitoring Radar, first of its kind in India, at an altitude of 15,000 feet in north Sikkim.

• Besides being used for detection of avalanches, this radar can also be employed to detect landslides.
• This radar has the capability to detect avalanches within three seconds of their triggering and will assist in saving valuable life of troops and civilians as also vehicles in super high altitude areas.
• The avalanche radar was made operational by Defence Research and Development Organisation’s wing DGRE, which is involved in forecasting and mitigation of avalanche hazards faced by Indian Army in the Himalayan region.

Working Principle/Features

• The radar uses a series of short micro wave pulses which are scattered at the target and can detect an avalanche in less than three seconds.
• The radar, which can permanently scan the targeted slope for avalanche release and track its path and its size in case it is triggered, can “see” through snow, fog as well as in the night, making it an all-weather solution and covers an area of two sq/km obviating the requirement to place additional instruments in dangerous avalanche prone areas.
• The radar is also linked to an alarm system enabling automatic control and warning measures in case an avalanche is triggered. Images and videos of the event are automatically recorded for future analysis by the experts.

Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan- Ranking of Cities under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

A two day National Conference of Ministers of Environment, Forest and Climate Change was held in Ekta Nagar, Gujarat on 23-24th September, 2022. The conference was inaugurated by the Prime Minister virtually.

During  a  parallel session on Control and Prevention of Pollution, the States were informed regarding guidelines  on ‘Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan- Ranking of Cities’ released under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).

Under the guidance of the Minister for Environment, Forest and climate Change, the Ministry is going to launch Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan  that promotes ranking of 131 cities in the country for implementing City Action Plans prepared as part of National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for reducing air pollution upto 40% by 2025-26.

131 cities are categorized into three groups based on population. 47 cities are in the first group having population more than 10 lakh. 44 cities are in the second group having population between 3 to 10 lakh. Third group consists of 40 cities having population less than 3 lakh.

Cities are required to do the self-assessment as per the framework provided on PRANA online portal. This assessment is carried out annually. Cities have to report implementation of activities and measures taken in respect of solid waste management, road dust management, management of construction and demolition waste, control of vehicular emissions and industrial pollution.

It was informed that  based on the self-assessment and third party assessment, 3 best performing cities in each group will be given cash award in the spirit of competitive federalism. This promotes constructive competition  in the spirit of competitive federalism to take measures to improve air quality. This Survekshan provides a tool to cities to plan their actions in order to improve the air quality. It is not based on the measurement of the air quality parameters to rank the cities. It is based on the actions taken by the cities to improve the air quality in different domains. The actions taken by the cities would result in the improvement of air quality. It thus, provides a planning implementation tool to improve the air quality and the assessment of the cities regarding how better they have aligned their actions to improve the air quality.

The Ministers of Environment, Forest and Climate Change from across the country participated in the  National conference organised by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. State Forest and Environment Ministers, the concerned State Secretaries as well as Chairmen of State PCBs / PCCs along with PCCFs also participated in the two-day National Conference along with senior officials of the Ministry.

అమృత్ సరోవర్ మిషన్

 

2022 ఏప్రిల్ 24న, ప్రధాని నరేంద్ర మోదీ భవిష్యత్తు కోసం నీటిని సంరక్షించే మిషన్‌ను ప్రారంభించారు, దీనిని అమృత్ సరోవర్ మిషన్ అని పిలుస్తారు. ఆజాదీ కా అమృత్ మహోత్సవ్‌ను జరుపుకోవడం కోసం, అమృత్ సరోవర్ భారతదేశంలోని ప్రతి జిల్లాలో 75 నీటి వనరులను అభివృద్ధి చేయడం మరియు పునరుద్ధరించడం లక్ష్యంగా పెట్టుకుంది. ఈ మిషన్ కింద ఎకరం విస్తీర్ణంలో 50,000 నీటి వనరులను ఏర్పాటు చేస్తారు.

దిగువ పేర్కొన్న ఆరు మంత్రిత్వ శాఖలు మరియు విభాగాలను ప్రభుత్వం సంప్రదించింది.

• గ్రామీణాభివృద్ధి శాఖ
• భూ వనరుల శాఖ
• తాగునీటి వనరుల శాఖ
• పంచాయితీ రాజ్ మంత్రిత్వ శాఖ
• అటవీ మంత్రిత్వ శాఖ
• పర్యావరణం మరియు వాతావరణ మార్పు విభాగం.

మిషన్‌తో నిమగ్నమైన ఇతర సంస్థలు భాస్కరాచార్య నేషనల్ ఇన్‌స్టిట్యూట్ ఫర్ స్పేస్ అప్లికేషన్ అండ్ జియో-ఇన్ఫర్మేటిక్స్ (BISAG-N) సాంకేతిక భాగస్వామిగా ఉన్నాయి.

మహాత్మా గాంధీ NREGA, XV ఫైనాన్స్ కమిషన్ గ్రాంట్లు, వాటర్‌షెడ్ డెవలప్‌మెంట్ కాంపోనెంట్ వంటి PMKSY సబ్-స్కీమ్‌లు మరియు హర్ ఖేత్ కో పానీ వంటి అనేక ఇతర మిషన్‌లపై మిషన్ దృష్టి సారించింది. అలాగే, ఈ ప్రయత్నాలకు అనుబంధంగా పౌరులు మరియు ప్రభుత్వేతర వనరుల సమీకరణను పెంచడం మిషన్ లక్ష్యం.

భారత ప్రభుత్వం అనుకున్న విధంగా అమృత్ సరోవర్ నిర్మాణాన్ని పూర్తి చేయాలని అన్ని రాష్ట్రాల ప్రభుత్వం మరియు సెక్రటరీలను అభ్యర్థించారు. అమృత్ సరోవర్ నిర్మాణంలో సాంకేతికత వినియోగం ఉంటుందని ప్రభుత్వం హామీ ఇచ్చింది. వినియోగదారుల సంఘం కోసం నీటి నిర్మాణాన్ని ఏర్పాటు చేయాలని మరియు అమృత్ సరోవర్ యొక్క మెరుగైన అభివృద్ధికి అవసరమైన శిక్షణ ఇవ్వాలని రాష్ట్రాలు అభ్యర్థించబడ్డాయి. ఇప్పటి వరకు, అమృత్ సరోవర్ నిర్మాణానికి 12,241 స్థలాలు ఖరారు చేయబడ్డాయి, వాటిలో 4,856 అమృత్ సరోవర్ కోసం పనులు ప్రారంభించబడ్డాయి.

1. మిషన్ 15 ఆగస్టు 2023 నాటికి పూర్తి చేయాలని లక్ష్యంగా పెట్టుకుంది.

2. దేశవ్యాప్తంగా 50,000 అమృత్ సరోవర్‌ను నిర్మించనున్నారు.

3. ప్రతి అమృత్ సరోవర్ 10,000 క్యూబిక్ మీటర్ల నీటి నిల్వ సామర్థ్యంతో సుమారుగా 1 ఎకరం ఉంటుంది.

4. మిషన్ యొక్క కేంద్ర బిందువు ప్రజల భాగస్వామ్యం.

5. స్థానిక స్వాతంత్ర్య సమరయోధులు, వారి కుటుంబ సభ్యులు, అమరవీరుల కుటుంబ సభ్యులు, పద్మశ్రీ అవార్డు గ్రహీతలు మరియు స్థానిక ప్రాంతాల పౌరులు అమృత్ సరోవర్‌ను నిర్మించాల్సిన ప్రదేశాలు మరియు వారు అన్ని దశల నిర్మాణంలో నిమగ్నమై ఉంటారు.

6. ప్రతి అమృత్ సరోవర్లో, ఫ్లాగ్ హోస్టింగ్ ప్రతి స్వాతంత్ర్య దినోత్సవం, 15 ఆగస్టులో జరుగుతుంది.

Junior Assistant Cum Computer Assistant In A.P. Revenue Department (Group IV) - Notification No.23/2021 Initial Key

 

EXECUTIVE OFFICE GRADE-III IN AP ENDOWMENTS SUB SERVICE SCREENING TEST KEY

UPSC Civil Services Examination Prelims GS paper-1 Answer Key 2022

 

Sustainable Development and Environmental Protection MCQs

 1. Atmospheric ozone layer which protect us from UV-B & C is getting depleted most by addition of 

 (a) Chlorofluorocarbon

(b) Carbon monoxide 

 (c) Carbon dioxide 

 (d) Sulpur dioxide 

2. In which of the following biome the maximum plant diversity is found ? 

 (a) Tropical evergreen forests 

 (b) Tropical moist deciduous forests 

 (c) Tropical dry deciduous forests 

 (d) Temperate moist forests 

3. Which among the following is a water borne disease? 

 (a) Smallpox 

 (b) Meningitis 

 (c) Malaria 

 (d) Cholera 

4. The term ‘dead’ with respect to a water body refers to: 

 (a) The inability of a water body to sustain aquatic life 

 (b) The ability of a water body to sustainaquatic life 

 (c) The inability of a water body to flow 

 (d) The heating or cooling of a water body

 5. Which one of the following is not normally a pollutant? 

 (a) Carbon monoxide 

 (b) Carbon dioxide 

 (c) Hydrocarbons 

 (d) Sulphur dioxide 

6. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes the reaction that produces 

 (a) Fluorides 

 (b) Ozone 

 (c) Carbon monoxide 

 (d) Sulphur dioxide 

7. DDT is a 

 (a) Green house gas 

 (b) Persistent Organic Pollutant 

 (c) Degradable pollutant 

 (d) None of these

8. Decomposition of domestic wastes under natural processes is called 

 (a) Industrial pollution 

 (b) Thermal pollution 

 (c) Biodegradable pollution 

 (d) Nonbiodegradable pollution 

9. Eutrophication is often seen in 

 (a) Mountains 

 (b) Deserts 

 (c) Fresh water lakes 

 (d) Ocean 

10. Fish die in water polluted by sewage due to 

 (a) Pathogens 

 (b) Reduction in O2 

 (c) Clogging of gills by silt 

 (d) Foul smell 

11. Fluoride pollution mainly affects 

 (a) Brain 

 (b) Teeth 

 (c) Heart 

 (d) Kidney 

12. Gas leaked during Bhopal tragedy was 

 (a) Ethyl isothiocyanate 

 (b) Sodium isothiocyanate 

 (c) Potassium isothiocyanate 

 (d) Methyl isocyanate 

13. The best way to dispose plant waste is

 (a) Burning 

 (b) Composting 

 (c) Dumping in a water body 

 (d) Incineration 

14. Which of the following is a major pollutant causing acid rain? 

 (a) Carbon dioxide 

 (b) Sulphur dioxide 

 (c) Hydrogen peroxide 

 (d) Carbon monoxide 

15. Increase in the concentration of pollutants in higher trophic levels is known as 

 (a) Biomagnification 

 (b) Biodegradation

(c) Eutrophication 

 (d) Recycling 

16. The best household method to obtain potable water is 

 (a) Filtration 

 (b) Boiling 

 (c) Chemical treatment 

 (d) Decantation 

17. Consider the following statements regarding Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972? 

 1. The Government of India enacted Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting the wild life of this country and to control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives. 

 2. The Act was amended in January 2003 and pun- -ishment and penalty for offences under the Act have been made more stringent. 

 3. The Ministry OF Environment and Forest has proposed further amendments (The Wild Life (Pro- -tection) Amendment Bill, 2010) in the law by intro- -ducing more rigid measures to strengthen the Act. 

 4. The objective of ‘The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2010’ is to provide protection to the listed endangered flora and fauna and ecologically important protected areas. 

 Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 

 (a) 1 only 

 (b) 1 and 2 only 

 (c) 3 and 4 only 

 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

18. An endemic species is 

 (a) a species found uniquely in one place. 

 (b) a species carrying an epidemic disease. 

 (c) a species at an early phase of its evolution. 

 (d) a taxonomist’s mistake. 

19. Contamination of water with sewage is indicated by cysts of 

 (a) Escherichia 

 (b) Escherichia coli 

 (c) Pseudomonas 

 (d) Leishmania 

20. Consider the following statements regarding National Environment Tribunal 

1. In 1999 the Central Government established the National Environment Tribunal [through the National Environment Tribunal Act 1999]. 

 2. National Environment Tribunal was established to provide for strict liability for damage arising out of accidents caused from the handling of hazardous substances. 

 Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 

 (a) 1 only 

 (b) 2 only 

 (c) Both 1 and 2 

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 

ANSWERS:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 

6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 

11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 

16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)

Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram

Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram has been revised for implementation w.e.f from 2022-23 onwards in all Districts of the country including all the Aspirational Districts. 

• The erstwhile Multi-sectoral Development Programme (MsDP) has been restructured and renamed as Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) for effective implementation since 2018. 

• PMJVK is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that seeks to provide better socio-economic infrastructure assets and basic amenities to the minorities mainly in the field of education, health & skill development. 

• This which would further lead to lessening of the gap between the national average and the minority communities with regard to backwardness parameters. • In 2018, the restructuring was done to be implemented in 1300 identified Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs) of the Country. 

• MCAs include Minority Concentration Blocks (MCBs), Minority Concentration Towns (MCTs) and Minority Concentration District Headquarters (MCD Hqrs). 

• Beneficiaries - The communities notified as minority communities under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) Act, 1992 would be taken as Minority Communities under PMJVK. 

• At present 6 communities namely Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains have been notified as Minority Communities under Section 2 (c) of the NCM Act, 1992. 

• Special focus by earmarking funds - 80% of the resources under the PMJVK would be earmarked for projects related to education, health and skill development. 

• 33 to 40% of resources under the PMJVK would be specifically allocated for women centric projects.

Mumbai and Hyderabad - Tree City of the World

 Mumbai and Hyderabad have been jointly recognised as ‘2021 Tree City of the World’ for their commitment to growing and maintaining urban trees and greenery in building healthy, resilient and happy cities. 

• While Mumbai has made the list for the first time, Hyderabad has featured on it for the second consecutive year.

 • ‘Tree Cities of the World’ is a programme started by the United Nations’ Food and Agriculture Organisation (UN-FAO) and non-profit organisation Arbor Day Foundation. 

• It is an international effort to recognise cities and towns committed to ensuring that their urban forests and trees are properly maintained, sustainably managed, and duly celebrated. 

• It provides direction, assistance, and worldwide recognition for a community’s dedication to its urban forest. 

• It provides a framework for a healthy, sustainable urban forestry programme in a town or city. 

• For 2021, 138 cities have been recognised under the programme. 

• A city is recognised as a ‘Tree City’ if it meets five core standards to show its commitment towards caring for its trees and forests. 

• To be recognised as a Tree City, a city must have a written statement delegating responsibility for the care of trees within the municipal boundary to a staff member, a city department, or a group of citizens - a Tree Board. 

• The city should have in place a law or an official policy to govern the management of forests and trees. 

• The city should have a dedicated annual budget for the implementation of the tree management plan. 

• To be recognised as a Tree City, it should organise an annual celebration of trees to raise awareness among people and to acknowledge citizens who carried out the tree programme

National Hydrogen Mission

 The Mission aims to aid the government in meeting its climate targets and making India a green hydrogen hub. This will help in meeting the target of production of 5 million tonnes of Green hydrogen by 2030 and the related development of renewable energy capacity.

Features of Mission :

• The Green Hydrogen / Ammonia manufacturer can bank his unconsumed renewable power, up to 30 days, with distribution company and take it back when required. 

• Distribution licensees can also procure and supply Renewable Energy to the manufacturers of Green Hydrogen / Green Ammonia in their States at concessional prices which will only include the cost of procurement, wheeling charges and a small margin as determined by the State Commission. 

• Waiver of inter-state transmission charges for a period of 25 years will be allowed to the manufacturers of Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia for the projects commissioned before 30th June 2025. 

• The manufacturers of Green Hydrogen / Ammonia and the renewable energy plant shall be given connectivity to the grid on priority basis to avoid any procedural delays. 

• The benefit of Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) will be granted as incentive to the hydrogen/Ammonia manufacturer and the Distribution licensee for consumption of renewable power. 

• To ensure ease of doing business a single portal for carrying out all the activities including statutory clearances in a time bound manner will be set up by MNRE.