Bihar Combined Civil Services (Pre.) Exam. 2014 General Studies Solved Paper (Exam Held on 15-3-2015)

1. The Union Health Minister launched Mental Health Policy on– 
(A) 20th October, 2014 (B) 10th October, 2014 
(C) 5th October, 2014 (D) 11th July, 2014 (Ans : B)

2. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana on– 
(A) 11th October, 2014 (B) 10th November, 2014 
(C) 26th August, 2014 (D) 15th August, 2014 (Ans : A)

3. The 11th Metropolis Congress was organized in Hyderabad in– 
(A) September 2013 (B) January 2014 
(C) October 2014 (D) November 2014 (Ans : C)

4. In which area was the Indo-US military exercise 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' held? 
(A) Solan (Himachal Pradesh) (B) Gairsen (Uttarakhand) 
(C) Ranikhet (Uttarakhand) (D) Poonch (Jammu and Kashmir) (Ans : C)

5. Which of the following groups of political parties 'could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election? 
(A) MNS, BSP, SP, RJD (B) SP, BSP National Conference, RLD 
(C) JD(U), BSP, NCP, RJD (D) DMK, RLD, National Conference, BSP (Ans : D)

6. President Pranab Mukherjee on 7th October, 2014 presented the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management for. the year 2014 to– 
(A) V. Sampath (B) Dr. A. S. Pillai 
(C) Arvind Mayaram (D) Ajit Dobhal (Ans : B)

7. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Central Pay Commission constituted by the Government of India in February 2014 ? 
(A) Justice B. K. Singh (B) Justice Swatanter Kumar 
(C) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur (D) Justice Mridula Singh (Ans : C)

8. Justice J. S. Verma Committee's Report, 2013 deals with– 
(A) Centre-State relations (B) Change in law pertaining to offences against women 
(C) The Fundamental Rights (D) Rights of children (Ans : B)

9. How many members are elected from Bihar to the Lok Sabha ? 
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 40 (Ans : D)

10. What is the unique festival of Bihar? 
(A) Deepawali (B) Bisu (C) Vinayak Chaturthi (D) Chhath Puja (Ans : D)

11. Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014 ? 
(A) Kailash Satyarthi (B) Malala Yousafzai (C) Jean Tirole (D) Patrick Modiano (Ans : D)

12. Which among the following European Union countries is the first to officially recognize the State of Palestine? 
(A) Sweden (B) Denmark (C) Norway (D) Italy (Ans : A)

13. Which one of the following countries has decided in January 2014 to make military service compulsory for all its adult males? 
(A) North Korea (B) UAE (C) Israel (D) Turkey (Ans : B)

14. What is the theme of Global Financial Development Report, 2014 ? 
(A) Hunger and poverty (B) Corruption and fraud in corporate sector 
(C) Financial inclusion (D) Global recession and the Third World (Ans : C)

15. Who among the following has/ have figured in 'Time' magazine's list of 25 most influential teens of 2014 ?
(A) Malia and Sasha Obama (B) Kendall and Kylie Jenner 
(C) Malala Y ousafzai (D) All of them (Ans : D)

16. The Seventh BRICS Summit is proposed to be held in 2015 at– 
(A) Durban, South Africa (B) Ufa, Russia 
(C) New Delhi, India (D) Sanya, China (Ans : B)

17. The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is celebrated on– 
(A) 10th December (B) 24th October 
(C) 19th November (D) 3rd December (Ans : D)

18. Amnesty International is an organization which is associated with– 
(A) Protection of women's rights (B) Protection of human rights 
(C) Abolition of untouchability (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

19. In October 2014 India has been reelected for three years as a member to– 
(A) The UN Security Council (B) The UN General Assembly 
(C) The UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (D) The World Bank (Ans : C)

20. Angola, Malaysia, New Zealand, Spain and Venezuela were elected as non-permanent members on 16th October, 2014 to serve in– 
(A) The UN General Assembly (B) The UN Trusteeship Council 
(C) The UN Human Rights Commission (D) The UN Security Council (Ans : D)

21. Which one of the following countries won the highest number of Gold Medals at the Winter Olympic Games held in Sochi in February 2014? 
(A) Canada (B) Russia (C) Norway (D) USA (Ans : B)

22. Who among the following cricket all-rounders cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history in January 2014 ? 
(A) Darren Bravo (B) James Faulkner 
(C) Glenn Maxwell (D) Corey Anderson (Ans : D)

23. Who was the winner of the Champions League T-20, 2014? 
(A) Kolkata Knight Riders (India) (B) Rajasthan Royals (India) 
(C) Sydney Sixers (Australia) (D) Chennai Super Kings (India) (Ans : D)

24. What was India's position in the 17th Asian Games in 2014? 
(A) 8th (B) 6th (C) 3rd (D) 4th (Ans : A)

25. Who among the following was the Gold Medal winner in the 17th Asian Games Men's Free-style 65 kg Wrestling? 
(A) Jittu Rai (B) Sandeep Kumar (C) Rajat Chauhan (D) Yogeshwar Dutt (Ans : D)

26. Which country achieved the fifth position in the 20th Common-wealth Games? 
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Nepal (C) England (D) India (Ans : D)

27. Who won her first Grand Slam Australian Open Tennis Competition, 2014 (Women's Singles) ? 
(A) Li Na (B) Dominika Cibulkova (C) Sara Errani (D) None of them (Ans : A)

28. The winner of the SAFF Tournament, 2013 was– 
(A) India (B) Maldives (C) Afghanistan (D) Nepal (Ans : C)

29. Which award is given for excellence in sports? 
(A) Jamnalal Bajaj Award (B) Arjuna Award 
(C) Tagore Award (D) Moortidevi Award (Ans : B)

30. 'Prince of Wales Cup' is associated with the game of– 
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Football (D) Golf (Ans : D)

31. Who among the following was not associated with the excavation of Harappa and Mohenjodaro ? 
(A) R. D. Banerjee (B) K. N. Dikshit (C) M. S. Vats (D) V. A. Smith (Ans : D)

32. Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon at– 
(A) Vaishali (B) Kaushambi (C) Sarnath (D) Pawapuri (Ans : C)

33. Who is called 'the Napoleon of Ancient India' ? 
(A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Pushyamitra (C) Kanishka (D) Samudragupta (Ans : D)

34. Which Chinese traveller visited India during Harshavardhana's rules? 
(A) Fa-Hien (B) Hiuen-Tsang (C) I-tsing (D) Taranath (Ans : B)

35. What is 'Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda' ? 
(A) Mosque (B) Temple (C) Saint's hut (D) Tower (Ans : A)

36. In which language was "Tuzuk-i-Baburi' written? 
(A) Persian (B) Arabic (C) Turkish (D) Urdu (Ans : C)

37. Who was the commander of Rana Pratap's army in the Battle of Haldighati ? 
(A) Amar Singh (B) Man Singh (C) Hakim Singh (D) Shakti Singh (Ans : C)

38. Where was the capital of Shivaji ? 
(A) Raigarh (B) Sindhudurg (C) Poona (D) Kolhapur (Ans : A)

39. In which year was the Regulating Act passed? 
(A) AD 1757 (B) AD 1765 (C) AD 1773 (D) AD 1793 (Ans : C)

40. Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857 ? 
(A) Wellesley (B) Dalhousie (C) Canning (D) Minto (Ans : C)

41. After which incident Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement as his 'Himalayan Blunder' ? 
(A) Chauri-Chaura (B) Kheda Satyagraha 
(C) Nagpur Satyagraha (D) Rajkot Satyagraha (Ans : A)

42. Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal ? 
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement (B) Swadeshi Movement 
(C) Quit India Movement (D) Non-Cooperation Movement (Ans : B)

43. Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress? 
(A) Mrs. Annie Besant (B) Sucheta Kripalani (C) Sarojini Naidu (D) Indira Gandhi (Ans : C)

44. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolour flag in 1907? 
(A) London (B) Paris (C) Moscow (D) Stuttgart (Ans : D)

45. Who was the founder of Nalanda University ? 
(A) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (B) Kumargupta (C) Dharmapal (D) Pushyagupta (Ans : B)

46. At which place in Bihar Gandhiji had his first Satyagraha ? 
(A) Champaran (B) Chhapra (C) Bettiah (D) Patna (Ans : A)

47. Who was the author of 'Indica' ? 
(A) Vishnugupta (B) Megasthenes (C) Diamechus (D) Pliny (Ans : B)

48. Which Sikh Guru was born at Patna? 
(A) Nanak (B) Teg Bahadur (C) Hargobind (D) Gobind Singh (Ans : D)

49. Who 'Was the President of Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922 ? 
(A) Chittaranjan Das (B) S. N. Banerjee 
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Hakim Ajmal Khan (Ans : A)

50. By which name is Jay Prakash Narayan known? 
(A) Lokmanya (B) Loknayak (C) Lokhitvadi (D) Lokneta (Ans : B)

51. Which country has the largest coastline? 
(A) USA (B) Australia (C) Canada (D) India (Ans : C)

52. The largest producer of aluminium in the world is– 
(A) France (B) India (C) USA (D) Italy (Ans : C)

53. The Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of– 
(A) Young mountains (B) Old mountains 
(C) Block mountains (D) Fold mountains (Ans : B)

54. Match the rivers with the cities through which they are flowing and select the correct answer using the codes given below– 
City : (a) Rotterdam (b) Paris (c) Budapest (d) Washington 
River : 1. Seine 2. Potomac 3. Rhine 4. Danube 
Codes: 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 2 3 1 4 
(B) 1 3 4 2 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 4 3 2 1 (Ans : C)

55. Which is the largest metal trading centre? 
(A) Johannesburg (B) New York (C) London (D) Singapore Ans. (C) 

56. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal? 
(A) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari (B) Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery 
(C) Luni, Narmada and Tapti (D) Both (A) and (B) (Ans : D)

57. The oldest oilfield in India is– 
(A) Bombay High, Maharashtra (B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat 
(C) Navagam, Gujarat (D) Digboi, Assam (Ans : D)

58. In India, 'Yarlung Zangbo River' is known as– 
(A) Ganga (B) Indus (C) Brahmaputra (D) Mahanadi (Ans : C)

59. Which one of the following is the driest station? 
(A) Mumbai (B) Delhi (C) Leh (D) Bengaluru (Ans : C)

60. Which amongst the following States has not identified tribal community ? 
(A) Maharashtra (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Haryana (D) Karnataka (Ans : C)

61. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at– 
(A) Chandigarh (B) Bharatpur (C) Gurgaon (D) Gandhinagar (Ans : C)

62. The forest area in India per person (in average hectare) is– 
(A) 0.23 (B) 0.34 (C) 0.20 (D) 0.29

63. Which of the following States has agricultural area less than 60 per cent? 
(A) West Bengal (B) Punjab (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar (Ans : D)

64. 'Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project' is on which river? 
(A) Tapti (B) Kosi (C) Godavari (D) Krishna (Ans : D)

65. Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for– 
(A) Silk (B) Cement (C) Leather (D) Jute (Ans : B)

66. How much square metres forest area is there in Bihar? 
(A) 2812 square metres (B) 3612 square metres 
(C) 2461 square metres (D) 2612 square metres

67. The two States of India, most richly endowed with iron ore are– 
(A) Bihar and West Bengal (B) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha 
(C) Bihar and Odisha (D) Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal (Ans : B)

68. What is chiefly found at Jharia in Jharkhand? 
(A) Thorium (B) Silk (C) Gold (D) Coal (Ans : D)

69. Which of the following towns is located easternmost of Bihar? 
(A) Bhagalpur (B) Patna (C) Katihar (D) Purnia (Ans : C)

70. Which of the following lakes is situated in Bihar? 
(A) Anupam Lake (B) Sambhar Lake (C) Sukhna Lake (D) Kama Lake (Ans : A) 

71. The Decentralization System was recommended by– 
(A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) J. B. Kripalani 
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta (D) Ashok Mehta (Ans : C)

72. Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the mid-fifties aimed at– 
(A) Building a strong defence industry base 
(B) Setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive 
(C) Curbing inflation in the economy 
(D) Removing unemployment within a short period (Ans : B)

73. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below– 
Column-A : (a) 1955 (b) 1964 (c) 1982 (d) 1987
Column-B : 1. Export-Import Bank of India
2. Industrial Development Bank of India 
3. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India 
4. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction 
Codes: 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 1 2 3 4 
(B) 2 3 1 4 
(C) 3 2 1 4 
(D) 4 1 2 3 (Ans : C)

74. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below– 
Column-A 
(a) Open-general license (b) TRYSEM (c) Wholesale price index. (d) Cash-reserve ratio 
Column-B 
1. Employment 2. External trade 3. Credit control 4. Inflation 
Codes: 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 2 4 3 1 
(C) 4 3 2 1 
(D) 3 2 1 4 (Ans : A)

75. The controlling authority of government expenditure is– 
(A) The Reserve Bank of India (B) The Planning Commission 
(C) The Finance Ministry (D) The Finance Commission (Ans : C)

76. Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of– 
(A) 2010-11 (B) 2011-12 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2012-13 (Ans : B)

77. Interest payment is an item of– 
(A) Revenue expenditure (B) Capital expenditure 
(C) Plan expenditure (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

78. The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is– 
(A) 137 (B) 128 (C) 135 (D) 147 (Ans : C)

79. Consider the following consumer price indices– 
1. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers 
2. Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers 
3. Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers 
4. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees 
Which of the above indices is / are compiled by Central Statistical Organization (CSO) ? 
(A) 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Ans : D)

80. What is the total production of oilseeds in India in 2013-14 ? 
(A) 34.32 million tonnes (B) 43.34 million tonnes 
(C) 20.89 million tonnes (D) 30.72 million tonnes (Ans : *)

81. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of– 
(A) Iron (B) Tea (C) Textile (D) Rubber (Ans : C)

82. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called– 
(A) Hot currency (B) Gold currency (C) Soft currency (D) Hard currency (Ans : A)

83. Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions? 
(A) Oilseeds (B) Wheat (C) Rice (D) Pulses (Ans : A)

84. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on– 
(A) 1st April, 1992 (B) 1st April, 1994 
(C) 31st March, 1996 (D) 31st March, 1997 (Ans : D)

85. R. N. Malhotra Committee is associated with– 
(A) Sick industries (B) Tax reforms (C) Insurance sector (D) Banking sector (Ans : C)

86. Service tax in India was introduced in the year– 
(A) 1994-95 (B) 1996-97 (C) 1998-99 (D) 1991-92 (Ans : A)

87. Convertibility of the rupee implies– 
(A) Being able to convert rupee notes into gold 
(B) Freely permitting the con-version of rupee to other major currencies and vice-versa 
(C) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces 
(D) Developing an international market for currencies in India (Ans : B)

88. Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government– 
1. Corporation tax 2. Taxes on income other than corporation tax 
3. Customs 4. Union excise duties 
Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of gross tax revenue? 
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 3, 1, 2, 4 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4 (Ans : A)

89. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 ? 
(A) More than Rs. 10 lakh and less than Rs. 2 crore 
(B) More than Rs. 2 crore and less than Rs. 5 crore 
(C) More than Rs. 5 crore and less than Rs. 10 crore 
(D) More than Rs. 10 crore (Ans : C)

90. What does infant mortality rate refer to? 
(A) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births 
(B) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births 
(C) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births 
(D) The ratio' of number of 'children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births (Ans : B)

91. In which of the following years was the trade balance favourable to India? 
(A) 1970-71 and 1974-75 (B) 1972-73 and 1976-77 
(C) 1972-73 and 1975-76 (D) 1971-72 and 1976-77 (Ans : B)

92. Consider the following agreements– 
1. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement) 
2. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area) 
3. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement between India and Singapore) 
4. SAPTA (South Asian Preferential Trade Arrangement) 
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above agreements? 
(A) 1,3,2,4 (B) 4,1,2,3 (C) 2,1,4,3 (D) 1,2,3,4 (Ans : B)

93. During which year was the annual average growth rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative? 
(A) 2002-03 (B) 2003-04 (C) 2005-06 (D) 2006-07 (Ans : A)

94. Consider the following statements– 
1. Bank rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their short-term borrowing. 
2. Repo rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their long-term borrowing 
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : D)

95. Consider the following statements– 
1. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL). 
2. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period 
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

96. Financial sector reforms in India consist of– 
(A) Lowering down of CRR and SLR (B) Entry of private firms in insurance sector 
(C) Deregulation of rate of interest (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

97. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman ? 
(A) Rural housing (B) Rural electrification 
(C) Agro-based industries (D) Rural telephony (Ans : C)

98. According to the Planning Commission of India, which of the following are correct for the poverty line? 
1. Rs. 42 per capita per day in urban area 
2. Rs. 26 per capita per day in rural area 
3. Rs. 32 per capita per day in urban area 
4. Rs. 32 per capita per day in rural area 
Choose the correct option from the following– 
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 (Ans : C)

99. Consider the following schemes– 
1. EAS 2. TRYSEM 3. JRY 4. RLEGP 
The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes is– 
(A) 2,4,1,3 (B) 4,2,3,1 (C) 4,3,1,2 (D) 2,4,3,1 (Ans : D)

100. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below– 
Column-A 
(a) National Agricultural Policy (b) Marine Fishing Policy 
(c) New Foreign Trade Policy (d) Seventh Finance Commission 
Column-B 
1. 2004 2. 1978 3. 2000 4. 2014 
Codes: 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 2 1 3 4 
(B) 4 3 1 2 
(C) 1 4 2 3 
(D) 3 1 4 2 (Ans : D)

101. Who founded the Pagal Panth ? 
(A) Bulleh Shah (B) Karam Shah (C) Yaduvendra Singh (D) Swami Sahajananda (Ans : B)

102. Who were the Faraizis ? 
(A) Followers of Haji Shariatullah (B) Followers of Dadu 
(C) Followers of the Arya Samaj (D) Followers of the Muslim League (Ans : A)

103. The correct geographical location for the Ramosi Uprising was– 
(A) Western India (B) Eastern Ghats (C) Eastern India (D) Western Ghats (Ans : D)

104. The Waghera Uprising happened in– 
(A) Surat (B) Poona (C) Calicut (D) Baroda (Ans : D)

105. In order to control the media in India, 'Acts' were passed in– 
(A) 1835, 1867, 1878, 1908 (B) 1854, 1864, 1872, 1910 
(C) 1854, 1872, 1908, 1910 (D) 1867, 1908, 1910, 1919 (Ans : A)

106. The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over– 
(A) Strategies of the Congress Movement 
(B) Objectives of the Congress Movement
(C) Participation of the people in the Congress Movement 
(D) All of the above (Ans : A)

107. 'New Lamps for Old' was a series of articles (1893-94) that criticized the Congress for being out of touch with the 'proletariat' . Who was the author of these articles? 
(A) Aurobindo Ghose (B) A. O. Hume (C) G. K. Gokhale (D) B. G. Tilak (Ans : A)

108. Fill in the blanks– 
The Nehru Report was drafted by a committee headed by….. and the subject was….. 
(A) Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru; India's relationship with the British Empire 
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru; Local Self-Government in India 
(C) Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India 
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India (Ans : C)

109. What was the common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, Charles Andrews and William Digby? 
(A) They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during the British rule 
(B) They were supporters of the Indian National Movement 
(C) They were opponents of the Indian National Movement 
(D) They were friends of Mahatma Gandhi (Ans : A)

110. Who penned the following lines? 
"Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me hai/Dekhna hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai." 
(A) Bismil (B) Rajguru (C) Bhagat Singh (D) Azad (Ans : A)

111. Who raised the demand of' Complete Independence' for the first time in 1921 ? 
(A) Maulana Muhammad Ali (B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Maulana Hasrat Mohani (Ans : D)

112. Identify the years those are closest to the founding of the Communist Party of India and the RSS respectively– 
(A) 1915, 1914 (B) 1925, 1925 (C) 1928, 1925 (D) 1925,1929 (Ans : B)

113. Swami Sahajananda Saraswati formed the All India United Kisan Sabha with the demand for the 'nationalization of land and waterways' – 
(A) Just before his death (B) At a very young age 
(C) In the 1930s (D) In the 1920s (Ans : C)

114. Fill in the blank– 
In….., the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act. 
(A) 1885 (B) 1886 (C) 1889 (D) 1900 (Ans : A)

115. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932 ? 
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth (Ans : C)

116. One of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22 was that victory would come to them because Gandhi– 
(A) Was the epitome of Dharma (B) Was an accomplished politician 
(C) Knew the ways to defeat the English (D) Knew English (Ans : A)

117. Who among the following was/ were peasant leader(s) from Bihar? 
1. Swami Vidyananda 
2. Swami Sahajananda 
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 
Choose the correct option from the following– 
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) only 2 (Ans : D)

118. In which area was Rahul Sankrityayan active in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920 ? 
(A) Chhapra (B) Delhi (C) Lucknow (D) Patna (Ans : A)

119. Which of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and money 
(B) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men but not with money 
(C) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with money but not with men 
(D) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords opposed the English (Ans : A)

120. Who highlighted the plight of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like 'Dukhi', 'Dukhi Atma', 'Dukhi Hridaya' ? 
(A) Peer Muhammad Moonis (B) Rajendra Prasad 
(C) Sahajananda Saraswati (D) S. N. Sinha (Ans : A)

121. Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plant? 
(A) Dried leaves (B) Dried stems (C) Dried seeds (D) Dried flower buds (Ans : D)

122. Oncogenes are associated with– 
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Hepatitis (C) Cancer (D) Typhoid (Ans : C)

123. Which is the most reactive metal? 
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium (C) Iron (D) Potassium (Ans : A)

124. Who synthesized the DNA In vitro? 
(A) Arthur Kornberg (B) Robert Hooke 
(C) Edward Jenner (D) Joseph Lister (Ans : A)

125. What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945 ? 
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Plutonium (D) Uranium (Ans : C)

126. The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was– 
(A) Newton (B) Dalton (C) Copernicus (D) Einstein (Ans : C)

127. Cosmic rays– 
(A) are charged particles (B) are uncharged particles 
(C) can be charged as well as uncharged (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

128. Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds? 
(A) Carbon (B) Calcium (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen (Ans : A)

129. Which of the following can cause cancer as well as cure it depending upon its intensity and use? 
(A) Tobacco (B) Alcohol (C) Ionized radiation (D) Ultraviolet rays (Ans : C)

130. The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is– 
(A) 5-6 litres (B) 3-4 litres (C) 8-10 litres (D) 10-12 litres (Ans : A)

131. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of– 
(A) Infectious diseases (B) Airborne diseases 
(C) Waterborne diseases (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

132. Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of– 
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Fat (C) Protein (D) Glycogen (Ans : D)

133. Who discovered bacteria? 
(A) Fleming (B) Lamble (C) Temin (D) Leeuwenhoek (Ans : D)

134. The reason of large-scale diversity among the organisms is– 
(A) Adaptation (B) Cooperation (C) Mutation (D) Polyploidy (Ans : A)

135. What is vermiculture? 
(A) The science of raising worms (B) The science of studying animals 
(C) The science of studying fishes (D) The science of killing worms (Ans : A)

136. The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and re-production, is– 
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Mycoplasma (D) Bacteriophage (Ans : C)

137. The first human heart transplant was performed in– 
(A) America (B) England (C) South Africa (D) France (Ans : C)

138. The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is– 
(A) 1000 cc (B) 1200 cc (C) 200 cc (D) 500 cc (Ans : B)

139. A plant bud is– 
(A) An embryonic shoot (B) An embryonic leaf 
(C) An endosperm (D) A seed (Ans : A)

140. Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters? 
(A) Butane (B) Methane (C) Propane (D) Radon (Ans : A) 

New Appointments in India 2015

• National Institution for Transforming India (Niti Aayog) : Narendra Modi, Chairman
• Lok Sabha, Speaker : Mrs. Sumitra Mahajan
• Lok Sabha, Secretary-General : T. K. Viswanathan
• Rajya Sabha, Chairman : Mohammad Hamid Ansari
• Rajya Sabha, Deputy Chairman : P. J. Kurien
• Rajya Sabha, Leader of House : Arun Jaitley
• Rajya Sabha, Leader of Opposition : Ghulam Nabi Azad
• Rajya Sabha, Secretary-General : Shumsher K. Sheriff
• National Institution for Transforming India (Niti Aayog) : Arvind Panagariya, Vice-Chairman
• Chief Election Commissioner : Syed Nasim Zaidi
• Election Commissioner : Achal Kumar Jyoti 
• Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) : K. V. Chowdary
• Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) : Vijai Sharma
• Comptroller and Auditor-General of India : Shashi Kant Sharma
• National Human Right Commission (NHRC) : Justice K. G. Balakrishnan, Chairperson
• Cabinet Secretary : Ajit Kumar Seth 
• Principal Secretary to Prime Minister : Nripendra Misra
• National Commission for Backward Classes : Justice V. Eshwaraiah, Chairman
• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) : Ms. Shanta Sinha, Chairperson
• National Commission for Scheduled Castes : Dr. P. L. Punia, Chairman
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) : Dr.Rameshwar Oraon, Chairman
• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) : Deepak Gupta, Chairman
• National Commission on Farmers (NCF) : Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, Chairman
• National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security) : Ajit Kumar Doval
• National Investigation Agency (NIA) : Sharad Kumar, Director-General
• Railway Board : A. K. Mital, Chairman
• Intelligence Bureau (IB) : Dineshwar Sharma, Director
• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) : Anil Kumar Sinha, Director
• Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) : Rajinder Khanna, Director
• National Security Guard (NSG) : Jayanto Narayan Choudhury, Director-General
• Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) : Prakash Mishra, Director-General
• Border Security Force (BSF) : Devendra Kumar Pathak, Director-General
• Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) : Arvind Ranjan, Director-General
• Railway Protection Force. (RPF) : P. K. Mehta, Director-General
• Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) : Krishna Chaudhary, Director-General
• Sashastra Seema Bal : B. D. Sharma, Director-General
• Indian Coast Guard : Vice-Admiral Anurag G. Thapliyal, Director-General
• Defence Intelligence Agency : Lt. Gen. Avtar Singh, Director-General
• University Grants Commission (UGC) : Prof. Ved Prakash, Chairman
• Defence Research and Development Organisation. (DRDO) : Dr. S. Christopher, Director-General
• Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government : Dr. R. Chidambaram
• Space Commission and ISRO : A. S. Kiran Kumar, Chairman 
• Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, Dept. of Atomic Energy : Ratan Kumar Sinha, Chairman
• National Commission for Minorities : Naseem Ahmad, Chairperson
• Staff Selection Commission (SSC) : Amitava Bhattacharya, Chairman
• Indian Council of Medical Research : Dr. Vishwa Mohan Katoch, Director-General
• India and Census Commissioner : C. Chandramouli, Registrar-General
• Law Commission : Justice D. K. Jain, Chairman
• Indian National Academy of Engineering (INAE) : Dr. B. N. Suresh, President
• National Forest Commission : Justice (Retd.) B. N. Kirpal, Chairman
• National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) : T. Nanda Kumar, Chairperson
• Border Roads Organisation : Lt. General AT Parnaik, Director-General
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) : Dr. Raghuram Rajan, Governor
• Press Council of India : Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad, Chairman
• Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC) : Ravindra Pisharody, Chairman
• Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) : R. K. Tewari, Chairman
• Central Board of Excise and Customs : Mrs. J.M. Shanti Sundharam, Chairman
• Competition Commission of India : Ashok Chawla
• Central Administrative Tribunal : Justice Syed Rafat Alam, Chairman
• National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) : R.S.T. Sai, CMD
• Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) : Dinesh K. Sarraf, CMD
• GAIL : B. C. Tripathi, CMD
• Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) : S. Behuria, Chairman
• Oil India Ltd : Sunil Kumar Srivastava, CMD
• Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) : Dr. Satbir Bedi, Chairperson
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) : U. K. Sinha, Chairman
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) : Dr. Harsh Kumar Bhanwala, Chairman
• State Bank of India (SBI) : Smt. Arundhati Bhattacharya, Chairman 
• Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) : M. S. Raghavan, Chairman 
• Company Law Board : Justice Dilip Raosaheb Deshmukh, Chairman
• India's Permanent Representative to UN : Asoke Kumar Mukerji
• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) : S. K. Roy, Chairman
• Central Water Commission : Ashwin Pandya, Chairman 
• National Commission for Women : Ms. Lalitha Kumarmangalam, Chairperson
• 14th Finance Commission : Dr. Y. V. Reddy, Chairman
• National Statistical Commission : Dr. Pronob Sen, Chairman
• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) : Pahlaj Nihalani, Chairperson
• Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) : Dr. Rakesh Tewari, Director-General
• Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) : Dr. Jyotsna Suri, President
• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) : Dr. Rahul Khullar, Chairman
• Enforcement Directorate : Dr. Rajan Katoch, Director
• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) : R. V. Verma, Chairman
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre : Dr. Sekhar Basu, Director
• Indian Olympic Association : N. Ramachandran, President
• National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) : Prof. B.K.Tripathi, Acting Director
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) : Ajay S. Shriram, President
• Prasar Bharti Board : Dr. A. Surya Prakash, Chairman
• Investment Commission : Ratan Tata, Chairman
• Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) : Jagmohan Dalmiya, President
• NASSCOM : R. Chandrasekaran, Chairman
• National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) : Ramesh Sippy, Chairman
• Children's Film Society : Mukesh Khanna, Chairman
• United News of India : Ravindra Kumar, Chairman
• Press Trust of India (PTI) : Mahendra Mohan Gupta, Chairman
• Indian Newspaper Society (INS) : Kiran B. Vadodaria, President
• The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) : Rana Kapoor, President

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. Andaman and Nicobar Command is– 
(A) a Command of the Indian Army 
(B) a regional Command of the Indian Coast Guard 
(C) an integrated theater Command operating directly under the Chiefs of Staff Committee 
(D) a joint Command of the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force (Ans : C)

2. Arihant is a– 
(A) Multi barrel rocket launcher 
(B) Airborne Early Warning and Control System 
(C) Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle 
(D) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (Ans : D)

3. Which one among the following is not a Command of the Indian Army? 
(A) South-Western Command (B) South-Eastern Command 
(C) Army Training Command (D) Central Command (Ans : B)

4. 'Project Seabird' is connected with– 
(A) Greenfield naval base at West Coast of India 
(B) Anti pirate operation at Somalia 
(C) Indian Navy's island development project 
(D) Shipyard in Kutch district, Gujarat (Ans : C)

5. Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for the conservation of– 
(A) Hawksbill turtles (B) Olive Ridley sea turtles 
(C) Green turtles (D) Leatherback turtles (Ans : B)

6. Baiji oil refinery is located at– 
(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) South Sudan (D) Russia (Ans : B)

7. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of– 
(A) Returns to scale (B) Diminishing returns 
(C) Increasing returns (D) Constant returns (Ans : A)

8. A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as– 
(A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly 
(C) Monopolistic competition (D) Oligopoly (Ans : C)

9. The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country arid their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as– 
(A) Gross National Income (B) Net National Income 
(C) Gross Domestic Product (D) Net Domestic Product (Ans : B)

10. National product at factor cost is equal to– 
(A) Domestic product + Net factor income from abroad 
(B) National product at market prices – indirect taxes + subsidies 
(C) Gross domestic product – depreciation 
(D) National product at market prices + Indirect taxes + subsidies (Ans : B)

11. Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India? 
(A) Income tax (B) Customs duties 
(C) Service tax (D) Motor Vehicle tax (Ans : D)

12. Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments? 
(A) Export and import of goods (B) Export and import of services 
(C) Income receipts and payments (D) Capital receipts and payments (Ans : D)

13. Novak Djokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from– 
(A) Serbia (B) Spain (C) Switzerland (D) England (Ans : A)

14. The technique of inducing rain from cloud is called– 
(A) Cloud computing (B) Cloud control 
(C) Cloud engineering (D) Cloud seeding (Ans : D)

15. The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively– 
(A) concave and convex (B) convex and concave 
(C) both concave of different focal lengths (D) both convex of different focal lengths (Ans : B)

16. Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its– 
(A) high specific resistance (B) low specific resistance 
(C) high light emitting power (D) high melting point (Ans : D)

17. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to– 
(A) increase the intensity of light emitted 
(B) increase the life of the filament 
(C) make the emitted light colon-red 
(D) make the production of bulb economical (Ans : B)

18. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light wave of shortest wavelength is– 
(A) accelerated and refracted the most 
(B) slowed down and refracted the most 
(C) accelerated and refracted the least 
(D) slowed down and refracted the least (Ans : B)

19. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by– 
(A) visible light (B) X-rays (C) sound (D) Gamma rays (Ans : C)

20. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr, is– 
(A) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M -orbit 
(B) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 32 electrons in the M-orbit 
(C) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit 
(D) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 16 electrons in the M-orbit (Ans : C)

21. Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process– 
(A) the neutrons are made fast (B) the protons are made fast 
(C) the neutrons are made slow (D) the protons are made slow (Ans : C)

22. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as– 
(A) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) a circle (D) an ellipse (Ans : D)

23. Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis? 
(A) Filaria (B) Microfilaria (C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Culex pipiens (Ans : C)

24. Which one among the following statements is not correct? 
(A) Pulses are rich in proteins 
(B) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A 
(C) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates 
(D) Vegetables are rich source of minerals (Ans : C)

25. Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine? 
(A) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra (B) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters 
(C) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys (D) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra (Ans : A)

26. Which of the following parts are found in both plant and animal cells? 
(A) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole (B) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole 
(C) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus (D) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm (Ans : C)

27. ‘Garuda-V’, concluded recently, is a joint exercise between the Air Forces of India and– 
(A) Japan (B) Canada (C) Russia (D) France (Ans : D)

28. Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct ? 
(A) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States 
(B) The organization of the sub- ordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State 
(C) Every State in India has separate High Court 
(D) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side (Ans : C)

29. MONEX is associated with– 
(A) Montreal experiment (B) Monetary experiment 
(C) Lunar experiment (D) Monsoon experiment (Ans : D)

30. Which one of the following would have happened if the Himalayas did not exist? 
(A) Monsoon rains would have taken place in winter months 
(B) Coastal India would have experienced Mediterranean climate 
(C) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter 
(D) North western part of India would have experienced humid condition (Ans : C)

31. Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to– 
(A) clouds which extend beyond freezing level 
(B) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level 
(C) all types of clouds (D) cumulonimbus cloud (Ans : B)

32. The Patola weave was traditionally done in– 
(A) Pochampally and Kanchipuram (B) Surat and Patan 
(C) Dacca and Benares (D) Benares and Paithan (Ans : B)

33. V. M. Dandekar and Neel Kanth Rath were well-known for their– 
(A) study on the spread of the Green Revolution (B) advocacy of nuclear power 
(C) advocacy of liberalization (D) study on poverty in India (Ans : D)

34. Marco Polo's trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of– 
(A) his having discovered a safe route to India 
(B) his having established amicable relations with many Kings of India 
(C) his account of commercial, religious and social conditions in the East 
(D) All of the above (Ans : D)

35. Which one among the following is a state-of-the-art acoustic sensor-based target training system developed by the CSIR for shooters of the Indian Army? 
(A) SHANKH (B) DHVANI (C) NISHAN (D) PRAHAR (Ans : B)

36. Which of the following was the theme of World Environment Day 2014? 
(A) Green Economy. Does it include you? 
(B) Think. Eat. Save 
(C) Many Species. One Planet. One Future 
(D) Small Islands and Climate Change (Ans : D)

37. Which one of the following types of pesticides is convenient to control stored grain pests? 
(A) Systemic pesticides (B) Fumigants 
(C) Contact poisons (D) Stomach poisons (Ans : B)

38. Which one among the following cattle breed produces highest amount of milk? 
(A) Brown Swiss (B) Holstein (C) Dutch belted (D) Blaarkop (Ans : B)

39. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, is used for the production of– 
(A) glass (B) paper (C) rubber (D) cement (Ans : B)

40. The main constituent of Gobar gas is– 
(A) Ethane (B) Methane (C) Propane (D) Acetylene (Ans : B)

41. Which of the following is a good lubricant? 
(A) Diamond powder (B) Graphite powder 
(C) Molten carbon (D) Alloy of carbon and iron (Ans : B)

42. In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are– 
(A) 1 P and 1 N (B) 1 P and 2 N 
(C) 1 P and 3 N (D) 2 P and 1 N (Ans : D)

43. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the solution turns milky, but, on prolonged passage, the solution turns clear. This is because– 
(A) the calcium carbonate for-med initially is converted to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide 
(B) the reaction is reversible and lime water is regenerated 
(C) the calcium bicarbonate for-med initially is converted to soluble calcium carbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide 
(D) the initially formed insoluble compound is soluble in carbonic acid (Ans : A)

44. The form of carbon known as graphite– 
(A) is harder than diamond 
(B) contains a higher percentage of carbon than diamond 
(C) is a better electrical conductor than diamond 
(D) has equal carbon-to-carbon distances in all directions (Ans : C)

45. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change? 
(A) The melting of an ice cube (B) The boiling of gasoline 
(C) The frying of an egg (D) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet (Ans : C)

46. Which of the following is not correct about Baking Soda? 
(A) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher (B) It is added for faster cooking 
(C) It is a corrosive base (D) It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach (Ans : C)

47. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint– 
(A) Green (B) White (C) Red (D) Blue (Ans : A)

48. Which of the statements given below about the Mughal rule in India is false? 
(A) Peasant communities were a united and homogeneous group 
(B) There was an abundance of food grain 
(C) The State encouraged those crops that brought in more revenue 
(D) most regions produced two crops in a year. (Ans : A)

49. The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt ? 
(A) Punjab (B) Bengal (C) United Provinces (D) Bihar (Ans : A)

50. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by– 
(A) Colonel Colin Mackenzie (B) Sir John Shore 
(C) Andrew Fraser (D) John Marshall (Ans : A) 

Mission Indradhanush

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) has launched Mission Indradhanush on 25th December 2014 with the aim of expanding immunization coverage to all children across India by year 2020. The Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases namely Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Childhood Tuberculosis, Polio, Hepatitis B and Measles. In addition to this, vaccines for JE (Japanese Encephalitis) and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type B) are also being provided in selected states.  Immunization is the key to protect children from life threatening conditions that are preventable. As per MOHFW, immunization coverage in India has increased from 61% to 65% only from 2009-2013. So, MOHFW has decided to intensify its efforts in immunization though this mission.      

 

Objectives of Mission Indradhanush

The government intends to cover 201 high focus districts in the first phase of year 2015.  These districts have nearly 50% of all unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children. Out of these 201 districts, 82 districts lie in just four states of India namely, UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Nearly 25% of the unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children of India live in these 82 districts of 4 states. Furthermore, another 297 districts will be targeted in the second phase of year 2015.

 

Strategy of Mission Indradhanush
The government has planned to conduct four special vaccination campaigns between January and June 2015.  All vaccines are already available free of cost under universal immunisation programme in India. Under this mission, government plans to intensify its efforts and thus increase accessibility of these vaccines to all the children of India. 

National AIDS Control Programme

HIV infection in India is a major challenge  with no State free from the virus. HIV/AIDS continues to show itself to be one of India's most complex epidemics - a challenge that goes beyond public health, raising fundamental issues of human rights and threatening development achievements in many areas. The need to prevent the progression of the epidemic and provide care and support for those infected or affected is calling for an unprecedented response from all sections of society. The National AIDS Control Organization, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched the National AIDS Control Programme- II, from December, 1999. The new national programme in implementation sees the country on the threshold of a new approach - marked by focusing on encouraging and enabling the States themselves to take on the responsibility of responding to the epidemic. It is also leading to growing partnerships between government, NGOs and civil society.

Objectives:

1. To reduce spread of HIV infection in India

2. Strengthen India's capacity to respond to HIV/AIDS on a long term basis.

Reflecting the extreme urgency with which HIV prevention and control need to be pursued in India, the AIDS - II project of the National AIDS Control Programme is across all States and Union Territories and a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% financial assistance from Government of India direct to State AIDS Control Societies and selected Municipal Corporations/AIDS Control Societies.

National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme

Launched in 2003-04 by merging National anti -malaria control programme ,National Filaria Control Programme and Kala Azar Control programmes .Japanese B Encephalitis and Dengue/DHF have also been included in this Program Directorate of NAMP is the nodal agency for prevention and control of major Vector Borne Diseases

List of Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme Legislations:

1)    National Anti - Malaria programme

2)    Kala - Azar Control Programme

3)    National Filaria Control Programme

4)    Japenese Encephilitis Control Programme

5)    Dengue and Dengue Hemorrhagic fever

1)    NATIONAL ANTI - MALARIA PROGRAMME

Malaria is one of the serious public health problems in India. At the time of independence malaria was contributing 75 million cases with 0.8 million deaths every year prior to the launching of National Malaria Control Programme in 1953. A countrywide comprehensive programme to control malaria was recommended in 1946 by the Bhore committee report that was endorsed by the Planning Commission in 1951. The national programme against malaria has a long history since that time. In April 1953, Govt. of India launched a National Malaria Control Programme (NMCP).

Objective:

•  To bring down malaria transmission to a level at which it would cease to be a major public health problem.

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2)    KALA -AZAR CONTROL PROGRAMME

Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a chronic disease caused by an intracellular protozoan (Leishmania species) and transmitted to man by bite of female phlebotomus sand fly.Currently, it is a main problem in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and some parts of Uttar Pradesh. In view of the growing problem planned control measures were initiated to control kala-azar.

Objectives:

The strategy for kala-azar control broadly included three main activities.

• Interruption of transmission by reducing vector population through indoor residual insecticides.
• Early diagnosis and complete treatment of Kala-azar cases; and
• Health education programme for community awareness. 

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3)    NATIONAL FILARIA CONTROL PROGRAMME

Bancrftian filariasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is transmitted to man by the bites of infected mosquitoes - Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia and Aedes. Lymphatia filaria is prevalent in 18 states and union territories. Bancrftian filariasis is widely distributed while brugian filariasis caused by Brugia malayi is restricted to 6 states - UP, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Gujarat. The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in 1955. The activities were mainly confined to urban areas. However, the programme has been extended to rural areas since 1994. 

Objectives:

• Reduction of the problem in un-surveyed areas
• Control in urban areas through recurrent anti-larval and anti-parasitic measures.

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4)    JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS CONTROL PROGRAMME

Japanese encephalitis (JE) is a zoonotic disease and caused by an arbovirus, group B (Flavivirus) and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes. This disease has been reported from 26 states and UTs since 1978, only 15 states are reporting JE regularly. The case fatality in India is 35% which can be reduced by early detection, immediate referral to hospital and proper medical and nursing care. The total population at risk is estimated 160 million. The most disturbing feature of JE has been the regular occurrence of outbreak in different parts of the country.

Govt. of India has constituted a Task Force at National Level which is in operation and reviews the JE situations and its control strategies from time to time. Though Directorate of National Anti-Malaria Programme is monitoring JE situation in the country.

Objectives:

• Strengthening early diagnosis and prompt case management at PHCs, CHCs and hospitals through training of medical and nursing staff.
• IEC for community awareness to promote early case reporting, personal protection, isolation of amplifier host, etc.;
• Vector control measures mainly fogging during outbreaks, space spraying in animal dwellings, and antilarval operation where feasible; and
• Development of a safe and standard indigenous vaccine. Vaccination for high risk population particularly children below 15 years of age.

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5)    DENGUE AND DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER

One of the most important resurgent tropical infectious disease is dengue. Dengue Fever and Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) are acute fevers caused by four antigenically related but distinct dengue virus serotypes (DEN 1,2,3 and 4) transmitted by the infected mosquitoes, Aedes aegypti. Dengue outbreaks have been reported from urban areas from all states. All the four serotypes of dengue virus (1,2,3 and 4) exist in India. The Vector Aedes Aegypti breed in peridomestic fresh water collections and is found in both urban and rural areas.

Objectives:

•  Surveillance for disease and outbreaks
•  Early diagnosis and prompt case management
•  Vector control through community participation and social mobilization
•  Capacity building

National Leprosy Eradication Programme

The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is a centrally sponsored Health Scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India. The Programme is headed by the Deputy Director of Health Services (Leprosy ) under the administrative control of the Directorate General Health Services Govt. of India. While the NLEP strategies and plans are formulated centrally, the programme is implemented by the States/UTs. The Programmes also supported as Partners by the World Health Organization, The International Federation of Anti-leprosy Associations (ILEP) and few other Non-Govt. Organizations.

The year 2012-13 started with 0.83 lakh leprosy cases on record as on 1st April 2012, with PR 0.68/10,000. Till then 33 States/ UTs had attained the level of leprosy elimination. A total of 542 districts (84.7%) out of total 640 districts also achieved elimination by March2012. A total of 209 high endemic districts were identified for special actions during 2012-13. After thorough analysis a total of 1792 blocks and 150 urban areas were identified for special activity plan (SAP- 2012). The States were advised to post well trained District Leprosy Officer in all the districts where these blocks are located. In addition one officer should be identified in each of these blocks to strengthen the process of supervision and monitoring. Active house to house survey was the main strategy alongwith IEC and capacity building of the workers and volunteers. This activity helped in detection of more than 20,000 new cases during 2012-13

Objectives:

1.  Early detection through active surveillance by the trained health workers;

2.  Regular treatment of cases by providing Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) at fixed in or centres a nearby village of moderate to low endemic areas/district;

3.  Intensified health education and public awareness campaigns to remove social stigma attached to the disease.

4.  Appropriate medical rehabilitation and leprosy ulcer care services.

REVISED NATIONAL TUBERCULOSIS CONTROL PROGRAMME (RNTCP): DOTS STRATEGY

The National TB Control Programme was stated in 1962 with the aim to detect cases earliest and treat them. In the district, the programme is implemented through the district Tuberculosis Centre (DTC) and the Primary Health Institutions. The District Tuberculosis Programme (DTP) is supported by the state level organization for the coordination and supervision of the programme. The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), based on the DOTS strategy, began as a pilot project in 1993 and was launched as a national programme in 1997 but rapid RNTCP expansion began in late 1998

The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme has initiated early and firm steps to its declared objective of Universal access to early quality diagnosis and quality TB care for all TB patients'. The year 2012 witnessed innumerable activities happening towards the same. Notification of TB; case based web based recording and reporting system ( NIKSHAY); Standards of TB care in India; Composite indicator for monitoring programme performance; Rapid scale up of the programmatic management of drug resistant TB services are few of the worthwhile mention in this regard.

NIKSHAY, the web based reporting for TB programme has been another notable achievement initiated in 2012 and has enabled capture and transfer of individual patient data from the remotest health institutions of the country.

Objectives :

• Pursue quality DOTS expansion and enhancement, by improving the case finding are cure through an effective patient-centred approach to reach all patients, especially the poor.
• Address TB-HIV, MDR-TB and other challenges, by scaling up TB-HIV joint activities, DOTS Plus, and other relevant approaches.
• Contribute to health system strengthening, by collaborating with other health programmes and general services
• Involve all health care providers, public, nongovernmental and private, by scaling up approaches based on a public-private mix (PPM), to ensure adherence to the International Standards of TB care.
• Engage people with TB, and affected communities to demand, and contribute to effective care. This will involve scaling-up of community TB care; creating demand through  context-specific advocacy, communication and social mobilization.
• Enable and promote research for the development of new drugs, diagnostic and vaccines. Operational Research will also be needed  to improve programme performance.

Pulse Polio Programme

With the global initiative of eradication of polio in 1988 following World Health Assembly resolution in 1988, Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched in India in 1995. Children in the age group of 0-5 years administered polio drops during National and Sub-national immunization rounds (in high risk areas) every year. About 172 million children are immunized during each National Immunization Day (NID).

The last polio case in the country was reported from Howrah district of West Bengal with date of onset 13th January 2011. Thereafter no polio case has been reported in the country (25th May 2012).

WHO on 24th February 2012 removed India from the list of countries with active endemic wild polio virus transmission.

Objective :

The Pulse Polio Initiative was started with an objective of achieving hundred per cent coverage under Oral Polio Vaccine. It aimed to immunize children through improved social mobilization, plan mop-up operations in areas where poliovirus has almost disappeared and maintain high level of morale among the public.