Nirmal Bharat: Total sanitation for all

       "Sanitation is more important than Independence."

                                                                                    - Mahatma Gandhi

Sanitation literally denotes measures significant for improving and protecting health and well-being of the people. It is a system that promotes appropriate disposal of human wastes, proper use of toilets and discourages open space defecation. It is hard to imagine life without toilets for us but it is a reality for approximately 2.6 billion people in the world. An estimated 40 per cent of world's population still do not have access to adequate sanitation facilities. It has been often seen that lack of sanitation facilities are main cause of some of the life-threatening diseases. Hence, sanitation facilities are often related to one of the key elements in sustaining human lives.

Importance of sanitation and WHO
Emphasising the relative importance, father of the nation Mahatma Gandhi had once said, "Sanitation is more important than Independence." India has done a commendable job in improving the sanitation facilities and providing clean drinking water to all.
India has acknowledged the fact that sanitation is a cornerstone in the well-being of a person as unsanitary surroundings form the base for spread of numerous diseases. The World Health Organisation (WHO) observes that polluted water is the root cause of 80 per cent diseases, a result of inadequate sanitation and sewage disposal methods. A huge number of people even today relieve themselves in the open contaminating water bodies and other natural resources. This shows that people need to be educated on the importance of sanitation and its use in rural and urban areas alike. Inadequate sanitation facilities and lack of awareness often result in a number of health problems such as intestinal worms, most commonly the human roundworm and the human hookworms. Occurrence of these diseases is generally very high in low-income semi-urban and rural areas. Therefore, sanitation is the basic infrastructure component that could contain excreta-related diseases.
The Central and State governments have now increased activities and funding to achieve the sanitation MDG (Millennium Development Goal) target. Water supply and sanitation is a State responsibility under the Constitution of India and following the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional amendments, the States give the responsibility and powers to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to implement them.

Towards Nirmal Bharat: Vision and Strategy
The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation  has formulated the Rural Sanitation and Hygiene Strategy for the period of 2012 to 2022. The main purpose of this strategy is to provide a framework to realize the vision of Nirmal Bharat, an environment that is clean and healthy.
A Nirmal Bharat  is a dream of clean and healthy nation that thrives and contributes to the welfare of our people. This vision seeks to visualize a nation in which the traditional habit of open defecation is entirely eliminated, the worth of every human being is respected, and quality of life is improved. To achieve this in rural areas, the department has following strategies and goals to meet in coming years.

• Completely eliminating the traditional habit of open defecation and making this a relic of the past.
• Operationalizing systems for the safe management of solid and liquid waste at scale.
• Promoting the adoption of improved hygiene behaviours.
• Addressing inequalities in access with special attention to vulnerable groups such as women, children, aged and disabled.
• Ensuring that providers have the capacity and resources to deliver services at scale.
• Stimulating and enabling cooperation across public sector agencies concerned with rural development, health, environment and vulnerable sections.
• Working with business, academic and voluntary partners to achieve the goals of the strategy.

Goals

• Creation of Totally Sanitized Environments - By 2017: The end of open defecation and achievement of a clean environment where human faecal waste is safely contained and disposed.
• Adoption of Improved Hygiene Practices - By 2020: All people in the rural areas, especially children and caregivers, adopt safe hygiene practices during all times.
• Solid and Liquid Waste Management - By 2022: Effective management of solid and liquid waste such that the village environment is kept clean at all times.

Report

Rural Sanitation and Hygiene Strategy (2012-2022)

Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC)

The Central Rural Sanitation Programme of the Indian government began in 1986. It has now evolved into the Total Sanitation Campaign  (TSC) which operates in various districts of States and Union Territories. TSC successfully encourages households to finance their own toilets while giving financial incentives to the underprivileged. A nationwide network of Rural Sanitary Marts and Production Centres has been established with government funds though they are run primarily by local governance, NGOs and community based organisations. These Marts and Production Centres provide the materials required for construction of sanitary latrines and other facilities. The outlets also serve as counseling centres for those interested in building a toilet on their own. This has boosted the supply chain, promoting sanitation and hygiene, catering to an estimated 138 million rural households in the country.
Lessons from three decades of a government-driven programme suggest that visionary policies and a strong institutional setting helped in reaching more households without toilets. Although progress has happened, models in West Bengal, Maharashtra and other places show how informed strategies, strong peoples participation and strong monitoring yield results. Thus, the government has also put in efforts to focus on improvement of sanitation facilities in various schools, Anganwadi centres and communities.
TSC is a success story and achieved thousands of ODF (Open Defecation Free) villages in the last few years. For the urban areas, the National Urban Sanitation Policy was launched in 2008 to accelerate sanitation provision in cities.

Nirmal Gram Puraskar

 
To give fillip to the objectives of TSC, the government initiated the Nirmal Gram Puraskar . A cash award, the Puraskar recognises fully covered PRIs and those individuals and institutions that work towards ensuring full sanitation coverage in their area of operation. The project implemented in rural areas taking district as the unit. The main objectives of Nirmal Gram Puraskar are:

• To bring sanitation to the forefront of social and political discourse for development in rural India.
• To develop open defecation free and clean villages that will act as models for others to emulate.
• To give incentives to PRIs to sustain the initiatives taken by them to eliminate the practice of open defecation from their respective geographical area by way of full sanitation coverage.
• To increase social mobilization in TSC implementation, by recognizing the catalytic role played by organizations in attaining universal sanitation coverage.

United Nation Millennium Development Goal

The 2.6 billion people, 40 per cent of the world's population, still do not have access to toilets or latrine that is why sanitation is one of the key subjects in the United Nations Millennium Development Goal  targets. The UN-backed Sanitation for all: the drive to 2015 aims to mobilize political will and collect resources to expand sanitation facilities across the globe.

World Toilet Day
In 2001, the World Toilet Organization (WTO) declared 19^th November as a World Toilet Day  (WTD). The WTO created the WTD to raise global awareness of the struggle 2.6 billion face every day without access to proper and clean sanitation.
The WTD also highlights the health, emotional and psychological consequences the poor endures as a result of inadequate sanitation. The WTD's popularity is gaining momentum, and in 2010 there were 51 events on sanitation facilities spanning 19 countries.

APPSC ASO GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER 2011

Haryana Public Service Commission HCS (Executive Branch) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Exam

General Studies 

(Exam held on: 25-03-2012)

1.  During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India
     a) 1921-31
     b) 1911-21
     c) 1941-51
     d) 1931-41
HINT: During the decade 1911-21, a negative population growth rate of -2.91 per cent has been recorded due to outbreak of epidemic (plague) and natural calamities.
2.  Which Central Government Agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals?
     a) The Geological Survey of India
     b) Surveyor General of India
     c) National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd.
     d) Indian Bureau of Mines
3.  What is Gomia in Bihar famous for:
     a) Coal Fields
     b) Manganese Mines
     c) Fertilizer Plant
     d) Explosive Factory
HINT: Jharkhand’s Biggest explosives factory situated at Gomia.
4.  SEBI is a
     a) Statutory body
     b) Advisory body
     c) Constitutional body
     d) Non-statutory body

HINT: Initially SEBI was a non statutory body without any statutory power. However in 1995, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the Government of India through an amendment to the securities and Exchange Board of India Act 1992. In April, 1998 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital market in India under a resolution of the Government of India.
5.  Economic Planning is in :
     a) Union List
     b) State List
     c) Concurrent List
     d) Not any specific list
6.  Lahiri Commission was associated with
     a) Indsutrial sickness
     b) Minimum support prices of agriculture products
     c) Price structure of edible oils
     d) Handicraft export
7.  “Open Market Operation” is a part of
     a) Income Policy
     b) Fiscal Policy
     c) Credit Policy
     d) Labour Policy
8.  Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?
     a) Laffer Cureve
     b) Engel’s Law
     c) Gini Lorenz Curve
     d) Phillip Curve
9.  Automatic route to FDI implies that a foreign investor bring in his capital
     1. Without the approval of the FIPB
     2. By informing the RBI within one month of bringing in his investments
     3. By informing both the FIPB and RBI within one month of bringing in his/her investment
     4. By prior permission of the RBI
    Select the correct answer from the above
     a) 2 and 3
     b) 2 only
     c) 1 and 2
     d) 2 and 3
10. In the context of the Indian Economy consider the following pairs:
         Term                                       Most appropriate description
     1. Melt Down                -               Fall in Stock Prices
     2. Recession                -               Fall in Growth Rate
     3. Slow Down               -               Fall in GDP
     Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched     a) 1 only
     b) 2 and 3 only
     c) 1 and 3 only
     d) 1, 2 and 3
11. In India which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Comission?
     a) Currency future trading
     b) Commodities future trading
     c) Equity futures trading
     d) Both Commodities futures and financial futures trading
12. Union Government has announced New Agriculture Policy in July 28, 2000. New Agriculturre
     Policy has been described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’ which includes :
     a) Green (Food Grain Production)
     b) Yellow (Oil Seeds)
     c) Blue (Fisheries)
     d) It would cover all aspects of the farm sector
13. Sensitive sector as defined by RBI includes:
     a) Capital market
     b) Real Estate
     c) Commodities
     d) All the above
14. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are performed by the RBI?
     1. Monitoring money supply in the Economy
     2. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.
     3. Functions as Bankers Bank
     4. Works as banker to the Government
        Select the Code:     a) 1 & 2 are correct
     b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
     c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
     d) All of above are correct
15. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural landless household introduced by:
     a) National Insurance
     b) Life Insurance Co.
     c) UTI
     d) ICICI Life Prudential Co.
16. In India those farmers are called ‘Marginal Farmers’ who hold land upto:
     a) 1 hectare
     b) 2 hectare
     c) 3 hectare
     d) 4 hectare
HINT: In India, a Marginal Farmer means a cultivator with an unirrigated land holding upto one hectare  or  irrigated land holding upto half hectare.
17. Which one of the following is a measurement of central tendency?
     a) Median
     b) Standard Deviation
     c) Mean Deviation
     d) Variance
18. Which one of the following is NOT a measurement of location?
     a) Median
     b) Mode
     c) Range
     d) Mean
19. Combustion of a candle is
     a) Physical change
     b) Reduction reaction
     c) Endothermic reaction
     d) Exothermic reaction
20. Pure water is obtained from the sea water by :
     a) Filteration
     b) Distillation
     c) Evaporation
     d) All the above
21. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is:
     a) Adding Sodium Carbonate
     b) Disitillation
     c) Adding caustic soda
     d) Boiling
22. Heavy Water :
     a) Contains more dissolved air
     b) Contains more dissolved minerals
     c) Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
     d) Contains organic impurities
HINT: Heavy water (deuterium oxide: D2O) contains deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen with a proton and a neutron for each deuterium atom.
23. “Fixation of Nitrogen” implies
     a) The liquification of nitrogen
     b) The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usefull compounds
     c) The conversion of nitrogen into amines
     d) The solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere
HINT: The energy from lightning causes nitrogen (N2) and water (H2O) to combine to form ammonia (NH3) and nitrates (NO3). Precipitation carries the ammonia and nitrates to the ground, where they can be assimilated by plants.
24. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralization of hydrochloric and sodium hydroxide solution will be :
     a) Exactly 7
     b) Zero
     c) More than 7
     d) Less than 7
25. Coloured glasses for goggles contain:
     a) Ferrous oxide
     b) Lanthanide oxide
     c) Nickel oxide
     d) Ferric oxide
26. Which of the following statement is NOT true for soap?
     a) Soaps are bio-degradbale
     b) Soaps cannot be  used in acidic medium
     c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water
     d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents
27. Which one is a viral disease:
     a) Cholera
     b) Typhoid
     c) Rabbies
     d) Whooping cough
28. Rubella virus cause:
     a) Chicken pox
     b) Measles
     c) Small pox
     d) Mumps
29. I’m tired. I’d rather __________ out this evening, if you don’t mind.
     a) don’t go
     b) not go
     c) not going
     d) not to go
30. Anthropologists are of the view that Haryana was known by his name because in Post-Mahabharta period lived:
     a) Abhiras
     b) Aryans
     c) Haryanvis
     d) None of the above
31. According to Delhi Museum Hariana “the Heaven on the Earth” dates back to:
     a) 1126 AD
     b) 1328 AD
     c) 1500 AD
     d) 1750 AD
HINT:  The Delhi Museum Inscription of the reign of Muhammad Tughluq (A.D. 1328) gives the name as  Hariyana ‘The very Heaven on Earth and where lies the city Dhillika (Delhi), built by the  Tomaras.
32. Haryana state was formed on 1 November 1966 on recommendation of:
     a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
     b) Indira Gandhi
     c) Sardar Hukam Singh
     d) Sir Chottu Ram
33. Haryana is a landlocked state lies between:
     a) 28 Degree 37 Minutes to 31 Degree 35 Minutes North
     b) 24 Degree 26 Minutes to 27 Degree 28 Minutes North
     c) 29 Degree 20 Minutes to 31 Degree 30 Minutes North
     d) 27 Degree 37 Minutes to 30 Degree 35 Minutes North
34. Population density according to 2011 census is
     a) 1002 people/per sqkm
     b) 642 people/per sqkm
     c) 573 people/per sqkm
     d) 945 people/per sqkm
35. Haryana has
     a) 5682 villages
     b) 6759 villages
     c) 4890 villages
     d) None of the above
36.  How many divisions the state is divided for Administrative purpose?
     a) 5
     b) 3
     c) 4
     d) None
37. Which of the District is not part of the Gurgaon Division?
     a) Faridabad
     b) Palwal
     c) Hisar
     d) Rewari
38. Haryana Board of School Education established in Sept. 1969 and shifted in 1981 to
     a) Sonepat
     b) Chandigarh
     c) Bhiwani
     d) Rohtak
39. Haryana has adopted New Sports Policy on:
     a) 15th August 2008
     b) 21st August 2009
     c) 26th january 2009
     d) 2nd October 2008
40. KMP stands for
     a) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Panipat Expressway
     b) Kundli – Manesar – Palwal Expressway
     c) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Pautodi Expressway
     d) Kurukshetra – Mahendragarh – Panipat Expressway
41. Haryana Industrial and Investment Policy – 2011 became effective in:
     a) 1-1-2011
     b) 26-1-2011
     c) 15-8-2011
     d) None of the above
42. Haryana Special Economic Zones Act came in existence in:
     a) 2006
     b) 2008
     c) 2009
     d) None of the above
HINT: In India, The Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act, 2005 along with SEZ Rules came into effect on 10th February, 2006. The SEZ Act was enacted in Haryana on 23rd January 2006.
43. Literacy rate (%) in Haryana is:
     a) 70.75 percent
     b) 68.60 percent
     c) 62.50 percent
     d) 58.25 percent
HINT:  Either incomplete statement or wrong options.
         According to 2011 Census Literacy Rate in Haryana is : 76.44%
         According to 1991 Census, it is 67.91%  and here close figure is 68.60%
44. Arrange the sectoral growth in Haryana
     a) Service   -   Agriculture   -  Industry
     b) Industry  -   Service        -  Agriculture
     c) Agriculture   -   Industry  -  Service
     d) Service   -     Industry     -  Agriculture 
45. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has been extended in the
     entire Haryana from:
     a) 1st January 2008
     b) 1st July 2009
     c) 1st January 2010
     d) None of the above
HINT: Firstly in Haryana, MGNREGA scheme was launched in Sirsa and Mahendragarh on 2nd Feb 2006. Further, this scheme was extended to Ambala and Mewat districts w.e.f 1st April 2007.The remaining districts of the State have been covered under the scheme w.e.f. 1st April 2008.
46. Average Yield per hectare of Wheat and Rice during 2010-11 in Haryana is estimated at:
     a) 4560kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
     b) 4500kg for Wheat and 2700 kg for rice
     c) 4250kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
     d) None of the above
47. Haryana State Annual Plan for 2011-12 approved by Planning Commision, Govt. of India is:
     a) Rs. 20158 Crore
     b) Rs. 20258 Crore
     c) Rs. 20358 Crore
     d) Rs. 20458 Crore
48. Which buffalo is called as Black Gold in Haryana?
     a) Bhadavari
     b) Niti-Ravi
     c) Mehsana
     d) Murrah
49. The Haryana Special Economic Zone came in the year
     a) 2005
     b) 2006
     c) 2007
     d) 2008
50. The Haryana Government’s Land Acquisation Policy,
     a) has decided to double, even higher in some areas, the minimum floor rate (MFR) payable for acquisition of land
     b) increase both the annuity amount payable over 33 years as well as its incremental annual hike and give bigger-size plots in case one’s residential property is acquired
     c) the affected farmers would alsobe offered Government jobs, industrial and commercial plots
     d) All the above
51. Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean has been controversial over the maritime boundary for 40 years between which of the following two countries? The issue was resolved recently.
     a) Russia and Norway
     b) Norway and Finland
     c) Finland and Russia
     d) Russia and Denmark
52. Navanentham Pillay, a South African national of India origin was the first non-white women of the High Court of South Africa. What is her current profession?
     a) Judge of the International Criminal Court
     b) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
     c) United Nation High Commissioner for Human Rights
     d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees
53.  Consider the following statement:
     1. India and Japan agreed to a ‘sweeping’ liberalization of their bilateral tax regime during PM Manmohan Singh visit to Tokyo on 27th October 2010
     2. This is the first in releasing the Indo-Japanese comprehensive Economic partnership Agreement
       Which of the above statement are true?     a) Only 1
     b) Only 2
     c) Both 1 and 2
     d) None of the above
54.  Consider the following statements about the Ayodhya verdict:
     1. 60 years the matter first went in to Litigation Luknow Bench of  the High Court of Allahabad ruled in majority judgement on 30th September 2010
     2. Disputed sites to be divided into three equal parts: one part goes to Suni Wakf Board, one  to Nirmohi in Akhara and one part representing ‘Ramlalla Virajman’
     3. Status quo to be maintained at disputed sites for three month
     4. The bench which deleivered the much awaited verdict consisted of Justice Dharam Vir Sharma, Justice S U Khan and Justice Sudhir Agarwal
      Which of the above statement are true?     a) Only 1
     b) Only 2
     c) Only 3
     d) All the above
55. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment) Bill 2010 which changes the minimum level of share of the government in SBI’s equity
     a) from 51% to 55%
     b) from 55% to 51%                   
     c) from 74% to 51%
     d) from 55% to 49%

56. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi have launched the Adhar Project under Unique Identification Authority of India at tembli in Nandurbar District. Nandurbar is in which of the following states? 
     a) Gujarat
     b) Maharashtra
     c) Madhya Pradesh
     d) Tamilnadu
57. Recently UNO celebrated its 65th Anniversary on date:
     a) 20th Oct 2010
     b) 24th Oct 2010                                                
     c) 29th Oct 2010
     d) 27th Oct 2010
58. The governement has recently announced a Rs.1052 crore incentive package for critical export
      sectors including
     1. Textile
     2. Handicraft
     3. Leather
    Choose the correct answer from the below:
     a) 1 and 2
     b) 2 and 3
     c) 1 and 3
     d) 1, 2 and 3
59.  Who will be heading the National Inovation Council which will give shape to the government’s
       decision to observe the current decades ( 2000 – 2020 ) as the decade of the innovation?
     a) M S Swaminathan
     b) C Rangarajan
     c) Narayanamurthy
     d) Sam Pitroda
60. Who among the following has been honoured the United Nation’s Millennium Development Goals Award for 2010 for their work in using innovative approaches for poverty and hunger alleviation?
     a) BRIC
     b) WHO                           
     c) IBSA
     d) G-20
61. Harappan people had a common burial system which is proved by:
     a) The earth burial head of the dead normally laid towards the north
     b) The burial of commonly used items with the dead
     c) Both (a) and (b)
     d) The burial of the dead body in the sitting posture
62. In Vedic Period, the people called panis, were:
     a) Those who controlled trade
     b) Cattle-breeders
     c) Cowherds
     d) Ploughmen
63. In the Vedic Age:
     a) Polygamy was unknown
     b) Child marriage became prominent
     c) Widow could remarry
     d) Hypergamy was allowed
64. Bring the correct statement regarding the first Buddhist Council:
     1. Ananda and Upali laid down the Sutta Pataka and Vinaya Pitaka respectively
     2. Its proceedings were conducted in Sanskrit
     3. It was held during the life time of Buddha
     4. Its main purpose was to maintain the purity of Buddha’s teachings
     a) 1 and 4
     b) All of them
     c) 1 and 2
     d) 2, 3 and 4
65. The sacred books of Jains are called:
     a) Agama Sidhanta
     b) Angas
     c) Parvas
     d) Upangas
66. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
     a) Basava
     b) Ramanuja
     c) Shankracharya
     d) Kamban
67. What was Abwab?
     a) Toll tax
     b) religion tax such as Zakat
     c) Tax on merchandise and custom duties
     d) Miscellaneous kinds of taxes like the house tax, grazing tax, irrigation tax etc.
68. The term used for measurement of land in the Delgi Sutanate Period was:
     a) Kismat-i-ghalla
     b) Ghalla-bakshi
     c) Masahat
     d) Ghazi
69. The earlier Vaishnava Bhakti saints from the South were:
     a) Alvars
     b) Nayanars
     c) Bhagavats
     d) Virshaivites
70. Identify the Vijayanagar coin which were in the circulation and were the most widely recognized
      currency all over:
     a) Dinnar
     b) Huna
     c) Panam
     d) Pagoda
71. Akbar did not construct:
     a) Purana Quila
     b) Agra Fort
     c) Allahabad Fort
     d) Lahore Fort
HINT: Purana Qila, situated on the banks of Yamuna in Delhi, was constructed by the Mughal emperor Humayun.
72. The main programme of the Red Sirts (Khudai Khidmatgars of Servants of God) organized by
      Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was
     a) To proceed on the lines of terrorist and revolutionary activities
     b) To propagate the Congress programme
     c) To resist the military operations of the government in the north-western frontier portion
     d) To setup an para-military organization
HINT:  In 1929, the Khudai Khidmatgars (“Servants of God”) movement, led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, nonviolently mobilized to oppose the British in India’s Northwest Frontier Province.
73. The result of the Poona Pact was that the number of the seats reserved for the depressed
      classes out of general electorate seats were:
     a) Abolished
     b) Increased
     c) Retained in the same level
     d) Decreased
HINT:  A compromise between the leaders of caste Hindu and the depressed classes was reached on
         September 24,1932, popularly known as Poona Pact. The number of seats for depressed classes
         were increased from 71 to 148
74. Cripps proposal were rejected because:
     a) It refused to release all the arrested national leaders
     b) of the intention to partition India
     c) It suggested the formation of an interim government
     d) it refused to hand over effective power to the Indians
75. Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?
     a) Clement Attlee
     b) Sir P Lawrence
     c) Strafford Cripps
     d) A V Alexander
76. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) was about:
     a) Guidelines for the formation of a Constitution for India by the Constituent Assembly
     b) Creation of fedral government
     c) A plan for controlling communal riots raising all over India at the same time
     d) The method by which power was to be transferred from British to Indian hands
HINT: When all of Mountbatten’s efforts to keep India united failed, he decided to chalk out a plan for the transfer of  power and the division of the country.
77. The first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress was :
     a) M A Jinnah
     b) Maulana Azad
     c) Baddrudin Tyabji
     d) Whooping cough
78. The Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted by the Congress at a Special Session held at
      ________ in September 1920.
     a) Bombay
     b) Calcutta
     c) Wardha
     d) Allahabad
79. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi because :
     a) of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
     b) of mob-violence at Chauri-Chaura
     c) the Khilafat issue fizzled out with abolition of the office of the Caliph in Turkey
     d) the government accepted the demand in tow
80. Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been deleted from the Constitution through
      the Constitutional Amendment?
     a) Right against expolitation
     b) Right of freedom of religion
     c) Right of property
     d) Freedom of speech and expression
81. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?
     a) Nine
     b) Ten
     c) Seven
     d) Six
82. The basic difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is:
     a) Fundamental Rights are Positive while Directive Principles are Negative
     b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the Court
         in all the cases
     c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
     d) None of the above
83. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been described as the friend, philosopher and
      guide of :
     a) the Estimate Committee
     b) the committee of the public Undertaking
     c) the Public Account Committee
     d) all the Parliamentary committees
84. Part -V of the Constitution deals with
     a) Union executives
     b) Parliamnet
     c) Supreme Court and High Court
     d) Comptroller and Auditor General
85. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered
     to function as President:
     a) Chief Justice of India
     b) Chief of Army Staff
     c) A person appointed by Parliament
     d) None of these
86.  If president returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration
     a) a re-passage of the bill by the two-thirds majority will compel him to give his assent
     b) a re-passage of the bill by the simple majority will compel him to give his assent
     c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again
     d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President
87. To whom does the President address the letter of resignation?
     a) the Prime Minister
     b) the Vice President
     c) the Speaker
     d) the Chief justice
88. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:
     1. Financial matters
     2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers
     3. Amendment Procedure
     4. Election of President
      a) 3 and 4
     b) 2, 3 and 4
     c) 1, 2 and 3
     d) 1 and 2
89. Impeachment proceedings against the President of Indian can be initiated
     a) by the Supreme Court
     b) only in the Lok Sabha
     c) in either House of the Parliament
     d) only in the joint sitting of the two Houses
90. Gulf Stream the most important current of the Atlantic Ocean takes its birth from the Gulf of Mexico.
     Its importance lies in :
     a) Cooling effect
     b) Warming effect
     c) Area of influence
     d) Influence on travel

91. Which of the following sub-races belong to Mongoloids?
     a) Bantu
     b) Eskimoid
     c) Nordic
     d) Alpine
92. Consider the following statements:
     1. The Masai is a tribe of settled cultivators who once wondered with their herds with the cattle
         in the central highlands of East Africa.
     2. The cattle kept by the Masaiare the “Zebu” cattle with the humps and long horns

      Which of the statement is/are correct?
     a) Only 1
     b) Neither 1 or 2
     c) Both 1 and 2
     d) Only 2
93. Which of the following are not the Pastoral Nomads?
     a) Pygmies
     b) Kazaks
     c) Masai
     d) Lapps
HINT:  Nomads are people who wander from place to place and have no permanent home. They usually travel  within certain general areas according to the seasons and the supply of food. Nomads generally live in tents and carry few belongings with them. There are three kinds of nomads: hunter-gatherers, pastoral nomads, and peripatetic nomads. Pygmies of Africa and Asia are Hunting Nomads, who follow the animals that they kill to eat.
94. The world’s most commercial fishing grounds are located in:
     a) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively higher latitudes
     b) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively lower latitudes
     c) Both above mentioned areas
     d) A widespread area near the Poles
95. Which of the following used to be considered a buffer state?
     a) France
     b) Switzerland
     c) Belgium
     d) West Germany
HINT: A buffer state is a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile greater powers, which by its sheer existence is thought to prevent conflict between them. The tiny kingdom of Belgium was artificially created in 1830 as a buffer  state between the surrounding countries of France, Germany, and the Netherlands. Alongwith  Belgium, Cambodian and Afghanistan also considered as buffer state.     
96. The Australian trans-continental railway joins
     a) Perth to Darwin
     b) Hobart to Perth
     c) Sydney to Perth
     d) Adelaide to Perth
97. When did the EEC( European Economic Community) change into EU(European Union)
     a) 1992
     b) 1995
     c) 1996
     d) 1991
98. Territorial waters of India extends up to
     a) 5 Nautical Miles
     b) 12 Nautical Miles
     c) 15 Nautical Miles
     d) 2 Nautical Miles
99. Which of the following river lies in the Rift Valley?
     a) Luni
     b) Chambal
     c) Son
     d) Tapti
100. Khaddar soils are found in:
     a) Piedmont Plains
     b) Flood Plains
     c) Over low Palteaux
     d) Over Steep Slopes

                        Answers   
    1. b    2. a    3. d    4. a    5. c    6. c    7. c    8. c    9. c    10. d       
11. b    12. d    13. d    14. d    15. b    16. a    17. a    18. c    19. d    20. d       
21. d    22. c    23. b    24. a    25. b    26. d    27. c    28. b    29. b    30. a       
31. b    32. c    33. d    34. c    35. b    36. c    37. c    38. c    39. b    40. b       
41. a    42. a    43. b    44. a    45. d    46. d    47. c    48. d    49. c    50. d         
51. a    52. c    53. c    54. d    55. b    56. b    57. b    58. d    59. d    60. c         
61. c    62. b    63. c    64. a    65. a    66. a    67. d    68. c    69. a    70. d         
71. a    72. c    73. b    74. d    75. b    76. d    77. c    78. b    79. b    80. c
81. d    82. c    83. c    84. a    85. a    86. b    87. b    88. d    89. b    90. b       
 91. b    92. c    93. a    94. a    95. c    96. c    97. a    98. b    99. b    100. b 

Haryana Public Service Commission HCS (Executive Branch) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Exam

 Indian History  Solved Paper 

(Exam held on: 25-03-2012)

1.  The tribal leader who was regarded as an incarnation of God and Father of the world (Dharti Aba) was:
     a) Kanhu Santha
     b) Rupa Naik
     c) Birsa Munda
     d) None of the above
2.  Which of the following was leader of Waliullahi (Wahabi) movement ?
     a) Syed Ahmed of Rae Bareily
     b) Waliulla
     c) Muhammad Abdul Wahab
     d) None of the above
3.   In which of the following battles with the Sikhs did the Partisans of the holy was suffer a terrible defeat in which Syed Ahmad lost his life ?
     a) The battle of Amritsar
     b) The battle of Charsadda
     c) The battle of Balkot
     d) None of the above
4.  The most fearless and bold woman leader of the Peasant movement, who sacrificed her life to protect peasants rights was :
     a) Ambika Chakraborthy
     b) Snehlata Wadekar
     c) Veera Gunamma
     d) None of the above
5.  Which of the following statements about “Lokahitwadi” is not correct?
     a) He attributed the social decline and decay of India to the neglect of the Sciences and learning
     b) He attacked traditional religious beliefs and customs
     c) He attributed to the poverty of India to the Laziness and decline in the morals of the Indians
     d) Not any specific list
6.  Which of the following theistic philosophy did MG Ranade approve of ?
     a) Mysticism
     b) Vedanism
     c) Bhakticult
     d) None of the above
7.  Which of the following tasks was closest to the heart of Syed Ahmad Khan ?
     a) Religious reinterpretation
     b) Social reform
     c) Promotion of modern education
     d) None of the above
8.  Two greatest Pioneers in the cause of widow’s education were :
     a) D.K. Karve and Pandita Ramabai
     b) M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bahndrarkar
     c) Ishwar Chand Vidyasagar and Keshav Chandra Sen
     d) None of the above
9.  After the Surat Split in 1907, the second in the Congress took place in 1918 on the issue of :
     a) Lucknow Pact
     b) Montagu declaration
     c) Election of Mrs. Annie Besant as President of the INC (1917)
     d) None of the above
10. Which of the following revolutionary and terrorist organizations had a large number of young women revolutionaries?
      a) Yugantar
      b) Anushilan Samiti
      c) Bharat Mata Society
      d) None of the above
11. Under whose leadership was the Chittagong Armoury Raid organised ?
      a) Jatin Das
      b) Surya Sen
      c) Ganesh Ghosh
      d) None of the above
12. Proficiency in which of the following games was rewarded and recognised by state of Vijayanagar?
      a) Chess
      b) Wrestling
      c) Gymnastics
      d) None of the above
13. The first Mughal emperor to organise some sorts of Distress relief during famines was?
      a) Akbar
      b) Jahangir
      c) Shahjahan
      d) None of the above
14. The only son of Ashoka found mentioned in his inscriptions is :
      a) Tivara
      b) Mahendra
      c) Kunala
      d) None of the above
15. During the Mauryan times the royal Houses were mostly built of:
      a) Baked bricks
      b) Wood
      c) Mud & Tile
      d) None of the above
16. The status of which of the following could be said to have somewhat improved during the Mauryan Period ?
      a) Kshatriyas
      b) Vaishyas
      c) Shudras
      d) None of the above
17. The largest single source of income to the chola state was:
      a) Land tax
      b) Toll on trade
      c) Taxes on professions, mines and forests
      d) None of the above
18. The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was pronounced by:
      a) J.L. Nehru
      b) Dadabhai Naoroji
      c) R.C. Dutt
      d) None of the above
19. The Vijaynagar King, Krishnadev Raya’s work ‘Amuktamalyada’ was in :
      a) Telgu
      b) Sanskrit
      c) Tamil
      d) None of the above
20. The victories of Karikala are well portrayed in :
      a) Palamoli
      b) Aruvanad
      c) Pattinappaalai
      d) None of the above
21. Todarmal was associated with :
      a) Music
      b) Literature
      c) Land Revenue Reforms
      d) None of the above
22. Two of the Great Mughals wrote their own memories. They were :
      a) Babar and Humayun
      b) Jahangir and Shahjahan
      c) Babar and Jahangir
      d) None of the above
23. To which king belongs to the Lion Capital of Sarnath ?
      a) Chandragupta
      b) Ashoka
      c) Kanishka
      d) None of the above
24. The Zamindari in Mughal India was not :
      a) Hereditary
      b) A saleable right
      c) Morgageable
      d) None of the above
25. The term Khalisa in Mughal Administration signified the :
      a) Land owned by emperor himself
      b) Religion land grants
      c) Entire imperial establishment
      d) None of the above
26. Tulsidas the author of ‘Ramcharitmanas’ was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
      a) Shahjahan
      b) Akbar
      c) Shershah Suri
      d) None of the above
27. The text of the document called ‘Mazhar’ by which Akbar assumed the role of Supreme arbiter in the matter of religion found on :
      a) Arif Quandahari’s ‘Tarikh-i-Alfi’
      b) Abul Fazal’s Akbarnama
      c) Nazamuddin’s ‘Tabaqat-i-Akbari’
      d) None of the above
28. Tolkappiyam is associated with the:
      a) First Sangam Period
      b) Second Sangam Period
      c) Third Sangam Period
      d) None of the above
29. The Vijayanagar king who employed skilled archers of the Turkish clan and raised the fighting
      capacity of hid bowmen was :
      a) Bukka I
      b) Devaraya I
      c) Ramaraya
      d) None of the above
30. The uprising of 1857 was described as first Indian war of Independence by:
      a) V. D. Savarkar
      b) B. G. Tilak
      c) R. C. Mazumdar
      d) None of the above
31. Which independent nawab of Bengal was defeated and killed by forces of East India company?
      a) Siraj – ud -daula
      b) Shuja – ud -daula
      c) Shah Alam II
      d) None of the above
32. Who introduced the system of permanent settlement also called permanent settlement in Bengal for effective agricultural methods and productivity?
      a) Lord Wellesley
      b) Lord Cornwallis
      c) Warren Hastings
      d) None of the above
33. Which of the following newspaper was launched by Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya in 1909?
      a) Free India
      b) Leader
      c) Independent
      d) None of the above
34. Who of the following advised British East India company to seek from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam, a ‘sanad’ for the Diwani of Bengal?
      a) Maharaja Raj Ballabh
      b) Raja Daulat Ram
      c) Manik Chand
      d) None of the above
35. The first India ruler who joined the subsidary alliance was:
      a) Nawab of Awadh
      b) King of Trivancore
      c) Nizam of Hyderabad
      d) None of the above
36. The first Indian ruler to organize Haj Pilgrimage at the expense of the state was:
      a) Alauddin Khilji
      b) Aurangzeb
      c) Akbar
      d) None of the above
 Hint: Emperor Akbar was the first ruler to organize the Haj pilgrimage at state expense and provide subsidies to pilgrims. He also founded a hospice for pilgrims in Makkah.
37. Which of the following territories was not affected by revolt of 1857?
      a) Jhansi
      b) Chittor
      c) Lucknow
      d) None of the above
38. The head of the committee formed by the Government to enquiry into Jallianwala bagh Massacre was:
      a) John Simon
      b) General Dyer
      c) Hunter
      d) None of the above
39. Whom did Mahatama Gandhi called “The Patriot of the Patriots”?
      a) Bhagat Singh
      b) Subhash Chandra Bose
      c) Sardar Patel
      d) None of the above
40. The term “Dosi Hatt” was used in early medieval india for :
      a) Animal Market
      b) Slave Bazar
      c) Kappas (Cotton) Market
      d) None of the above
41. Which contemporary Mughal historian of the age of Akbar had prepared a list of Charges calling him an enemy of Islam?
      a) Abbas Khan Sarwani
      b) Badauni
      c) Nizamuddin Ahmad
      d) None of the above
42. To whom did Sher Shah appoint to provide bed and food to Hindu travellers staying at ‘Sarais’
      (rest houses)?
      a) Muslims
      b) Low cast hindus
      c) Brahmans
      d) None of the above
43. When did Aurangzeb arrive in Deccan finally to quell revolt of Maratha?
      a) 1681
      b) 1689
      c) 1700
      d) None of the above
Hint: Aurangzeb’s son Akbar left the Mughal court and joined with Sambhaji, inspiring some Mughal forces to join the Marathas. In 1681, Aurangazeb arrives in the Deccan in search of his fugitive son. For nine years, Aurangzeb couldn’t win a single fort from the Marathas. But in 1689 Aurangzeb captured Sambhaji (son of Shivaji) and publicly tortured and killed him.
44. Which Maratha Saint is most importantly known for social reform, national regeneration and the rise of Maratha power?
      a) Samartha Ramdas
      b) Tukaram
      c) Vaman Pandit
      d) None of the above
45. On what condition Wellesly agreed to help Peshwas Bajirao II?
      a) An underhand transaction of Rs. 15 lakh
      b) His consent to the the subsidary alliance
      c) His agreeing to the abolition of the office of the Peshwa after his death
      d) None of the above
46. With whom did Raja Ranjit Singh conclude the treaty of Lahore in 1806 which gave him freedom to expand north of Sutlej ?
      a) Holkar of Indore
      b) Scindia of Gwalior
      c) East India Company
      d) None of the above
47. What was the grieviest cause of discontent among soldiers before the revolt of 1857?
      a) Non observation of caste distinctions
      b) Question of promotion and pay
      c) Absence of power and equitable procedure for discipline & control
      d) None of the above
48. Who was the mastermind of bomb attack on Lord Hardinge at Chandni Chowk, Delhi in 1912?
      a) Sachindranath Sanyal
      b) Rasbehari Bose
      c) Bhai Parmanand
      d) None of the above
49. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time?
      a) At the time of riots in Delhi
      b) At the time of riots in Calcutta
      c) At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
      d) None of the above
Hint: Gandhiji’s first fast was in 1918 in connection with the strike of mill workers in Ahmedabad. Ahmedabad mill strikers demanded a 35% increase in wages. Gandhi undertook a fast unto death in support of the workers’ demands. The mill owners finally relented and worker got a 35% increase in their wages. Jallianwala bagh massacre – 1919   |   Calcutta Riot – 1946    |    Delhi Riot – 1948
50. Sir Thomas Roe was sent as the British Ambassador to the Court of :
      a) Aurangzeb
      b) Jahangir
      c) Shahjahan
      d) None of the above
51. In which of the following respects the various Harappan sites a marked uniformity?
     a) Agricultural Practices
     b) Crafts
     c) Town Planning
     d) None of the above
52.  The entry port for trade between the Indus trading centers and Mesopotamia was:
     a) Elam
     b) Oman
     c) Bahrain
     d) None of the above
Hint:  Trade between Mesopotamia (now Iraq) and Indus Valley (now in Pakistan and India) was facilitated by the small island Bahrain in the Persian Gulf.
53. The most common crime in Rigveda was:
     a) Murder
     b) Kidnapping
     c) Cattle-lifting
     d) None of the above
54. The ‘Jana’ during vedic period refers to:
      a) District
      b) Tribe
      c) Villages
      d) None of the above
55. What was the normal form of Government in Vedic Period ?
     a) Monarchy
     b) Oligarchy
     c) Republic
     d) None of the above
56.  Who of the following was the earliest known greek follower of Bhagavatism?
     a) Megasthenes
     b) Antialkidas
     c) Heliodorus
     d) None of the above
57. The earliest exposition of Saiva System was established by:
     a) Basava
     b) Lakula
     c) Sankaracharya
     d) None of the above
58.  Under the aegis of which of the following kings was the third Buddhist council held?
     a) Ashoka
     b) Kanishka
     c) Menander (Milinda)
     d) None of the above
Hint: The Third Buddhist council was convened in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Patiliputta under the patronage of Emperor Asoka.
59. Which of the following was first great royal patron of Buddhism?
     a) Ajatashatru
     b) Udayayan
     c) Ashoka
     d) None of the above
60. Jainism has derived its metaphysical thoughts from:
      a) Buddhism
      b) Arivakas
      c) Samkhya Philosophy
      d) None of the above
61. Jainsim was propagated in South India by:
      a) Bhadrabahu
      b) Gautama
      c) Sudharaman
      d) None of the above
Hint: Jaina history in the South commences from the 3rd Century B.C. Jainism entered into Karnataka and south India during the days of Emperor Chandragupta Maurya when Bhadrabahu the distinguished leader of Jainas led the migration of the Jaina ‘Sangha’  to the South.
62. The Asokan inscriptions and their Brahmi Script were first deciphered by:
      a) Alexander Cunningham
      b) Max Mullar
      c) James Princep
      d) None of the above
          The Brahmi Script was deciphered in 1837 by James Princep, an archaeologist.
63. The key-note of Ashoka’s Policy of Dhamma was:
      a) Toleration and General Behaviour
      b) Charity
      c) Moderation
      d) None of the above
64. In the Mauryan Period tax evasion was punished with:
      a) Death
      b) Confiscation of goods
      c) Imprisonment
      d) None of the above
65. The famous Queen’s Edict (Minor Pillar Edict-IV) inscribed on a pillar at Allahabad was issued by Ashoka’s queen:
      a) Vedisa Mahadevi
      b) Asandhamitra
      c) Karuvaki
      d) None of the above
66. Kautilya’s Arthashastra’s chapter on Kantak-Shodhana is mostly devoted to:
      a) Regulation of profits, wages and prices
      b) Regulation against adulteration of goods
      c) Strict control of artisans and traders by the state
      d) None of the above
67. An early ancient Indian city, which was a nodal point for trade routes from east to west and from North to South, was:
      a) Mathura
      b) Vidisha
      c) Ujjain
      d) None of the above
68. In the Mauryan Government women could be employed as:
      a) Royal Bodyguards
      b) Superintendents of weaving establishments
      c) Intelligence agents & spices
      d) All the above
69. Which one of the following rulling dynasties of South India was the biggest rival of the Cholas?
      a) The Pandyas
      b) The Chalukyas of Kalyani
      c) The Gangas of Orissa
      d) None of the above
Correct Answer : Chalukyas of Vakataka
70. Who of the following Chola kings assumed the title of the Mummadi Chola?
      a) Vijayalaya
      b) Rajaraya
      c) Rajendra I
      d) None of the above
71. In the Chola kingdom, a very large village administered as a single unit was called:
      a) Nadu
      b) Kurram
      c) Kottram
      d) All the above
72. The first sultan of Delhi to issue regular currency and declare Delhi as the capital of his empire was:
      a) Aram Shah
      b) Iltumish
      c) Nasiruddin Mahmud
      d) None of the above
73. From the death of Iltumish till the accession of Balban the actual power was wielded by:
      a) The army
      b) The nobility
      c) The theologians
      d) None of the above
74. In a formal sense, which of the following correctly describes the nature of the state during
      sultanate period in India?
      a) Theocracy
      b) Democracy
      c) Autocracy
      d) None of the above
75. During Sultanate period, the nobility of the sultanate was largely composed of:
      a) Arabs
      b) Afghans
      c) Turks
      d) None of the above
76. Who were called barids?
      a) The spy reporters
      b) The king’s bodyguards
      c) The officers in-charge of accounts and receipts
      d) None of the above
77. The South India ruler whose kingdom could not be annexed to sultanate of Delhi by the Tughlaq?
      a) Yadavas of Devagiri
      b) Kakatiyas of Warangal
      c) Hoysalas of Dwarasumudra
      d) None of the above
78. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the :
      a) Sangama dynasty
      b) Saluva dynasty
      c) Tuluva dynasty
      d) None of the above
79. Which of the following crops in Vijayanagar empire was widely exported?
      a) Black Pepper
      b) Tea
      c) Tobacco
      d) None of the above
80. With the construction of which of the following buildings of Mandu is the name of
      Mahmud Khilji not associated?
      a) Hindola Mahal
      b) Jahaz Mahal
      c) Jama Maszid
      d) None of the above
Hint: Hindola Mahal in Mandu is an ancient construction which was built under the rule of Ghiyasud-din Khilji’s reign.
81. Which of the following introduced Perso-Arabic melodies (ragas) into Indian Music?
      a) Firdausi
      b) Sadi
      c) Amir Khusrau
      d) None of the above
82. The sultan of Delhi who did not contribute to the development of composite Hindustani music was :
      a) Kaiqubad
      b) Alauddin Khilji
      c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
      d) None of the above
83. Which one of the following territories was not under the possession of the Afghans at the time of Akbar’s accession?
      a) Malwa
      b) Bengal
      c) Mewat
      d) None of the above     
84. Which one of the following province in north-west proved to be most valuable of acquisition of Akbar?
      a) Kabul
      b) Kashmir
      c) Kandhar
      d) None of the above
85. The English governor in India who was expelled by Aurangzeb was :
      a) Aungier
      b) Sir Jhon Child
      c) Sir John Gayer
      d) None of the above
86. Who called the English in Bengal ‘a company of base , quarrelling people and foul dealers’?
      a) Aurangzeb
      b) Shayista Khan, Mughal Governor of Bengal
      c) Mir Jumla
      d) None of the above
87. The chief gain to shivaji from his two raids on surat in 1664 and 1670 was:
      a) Immense increase in his prestige
      b) Demoralisation of the Mughal Forces
      c) A loot of booty
      d) None of the above
88. The most important achievement of Madhav Rao was that :
      a) He stored Shah Alam II, the exiled Mughal emperor, to the Delhi throne
      b) He subdued the Bhonsles of Nagpur
      c) He improved the moral tone of the Marathon administration
      d) None of the above
89. The Maratha Chief who did not join the alliance against the English at first and took the field
      only when it was too late?
      a) Holkar
      b) Bhonsle
      c) Gaekwar
      d) None of the above
90. The Maratha navy in the Eighteenth century was developed by:
      a) The Sindhias
      b) The Gaikwars
      c) The Angrias
      d) None of the above
91. The backbone of the armies of the misls was the:
      a) Infantary
      b) Cavalary
      c) Artillery
      d) None of the above
92. In fourth Anglo Mysore war (1799), Tipu was defeated and killed, who of the following did not get share in tipu’s territories?
      a) The English
      b) The Marathas
      c) The Nizam
      d) None of the above
93. Who of the following Nawab/Governors of Bengal concluded a treaty with the Maratha and agreed to pay them an annual tribute as Chauth and ceded to them the revenues of a part of Orissa?
      a) Marshid Qulikhan
      b) Shuja-ud-din
      c) Alivardi Khan
      d) None of the above
94. Ahmad shah abdali or durrani was one of the nadir shah’s ablest generals. He invaded india several times between 1748-1767. During which one of his campaigns was he defeated and
      put to flight ?
      a) First
      b) Third
      c) Fifth
      d) None of the above
95. What was the prime mistake committed by siraj ud daula in his campaign against the English in june 1756?
      a) He failed to assess the real strength of the English in Bengal.
      b) He was ignorant of the treachery of men in his court.
      c) He let the English escape with their ships to Fulta.
      d) He failed to win the support of his cousin Shakut Jang
96. After Bengal, the English secured the rights of duty free trade in the dominions of :
      a) Raya of Benaras
      b) Nawab of Awadh
      c) The Nizam of Hyderabad
      d) None of the above
97. In 1775, who reffered to the nawab of Bengal as “a Phantom, a man of straw” ?
      a) Warren Hastings
      b) A member of the court of Directors
      c) A judge of the supreme court of Calcutta
      d) None of the above
98. The ryotwari settlement was primarily introduced by British Government in ?
      a) Bengal & Bihar
      b) United Provinces
      c) Madras & Bombay
      d) None of the above
99. The trade which was virtually monopolised by the European merchants in india, was :
      a) Import trade
      b) Textile export
      c) Export trade in Agriculture produce
      d) None of the above
100. India’s growing poverty under the British rule is confirmed by :
      a) Increasing frequency and Intensity of Famines
      b) Increasing indebtedness of the Peasantry
      c) Transfer of land from cultivating to non cultivating classes
      d) None of the above


                        Answers   
    1. c    2. a    3. c    4. c    5. c    6. c    7. c    8. a    9. b    10. b          
  11. b    12. b    13. b    14. a    15. b    16. c    17. a    18. b    19. a    20. c       
21. c    22. c    23. b    24. b    25. a    26. b    27. b    28. b    29. b    30. a            
31. a    32. b    33. b    34. a    35. c    36. c    37. b    38. c    39. b    40. c            
41. b    42. b    43. b    44. a    45. b    46. c    47. c    48. b    49. d    50. b            
51. c    52. c    53. c    54. b    55. a    56. c    57. b    58. a    59. c    60. c           
61. a    62. c    63. a    64. a    65. c    66. c    67. c    68. d    69. d    70. d           
71. c    72. b    73. b    74. c    75. d    76. a    77. c    78. c    79. a    80. a
81. c    82. c    83. c    84. c    85. b    86. b    87. c    88. c    89. a    90. c           
91. b    92. b    93. c    94. a    95. c    96. c    97. c    98. c    99. b    100. b   

Vanya Mishra crowned Pantaloons Femina Miss India World 2012

Chandigarh girl Vanya Mishra crowned as the Pantaloons Femina Miss India World 2012 in the grand finale of the 49th edition of the beauty pageant on 30 March 2012 in Mumbai. The Miss India Earth title went to 24-year-old Prachi Mishra of Pune won the Miss India Earth title while Chennai girl Rochelle Maria Rao was crowned as the Miss India International.  The 2012 winners selected among 20 finalists were crowned by last year's winners Kanistha Dhankhar, Hasleen Kaur and Ankita Shorey.

19-year-old Vanya will represent India at the Miss World 2012 Pageant. Prachi and Rochelle is to represent the country at Miss Earth 2012 Pageant and Miss International 2012 Pageant, respectively. Femina will not send the beauties to the Miss Universe pageant as it had decided in 2010 to abstain from the event.

The event was hosted by Ayushman Khurana and Manish Paul.

Nargis Fakri and Sonam Kapoor added glamour to the event judged by Sonam, producer Ekta Kapoor, film director Rohit Shetty, actor Sonali Bendre, cricketer Harbhajan Singh, designer Raghavendra Rathore, Managing Director of Bajaj FimServ Sanjiv Bajaj, singer Sonu Nigam and TV actor Sakshi Tanwar.

Singer-actor Ali Zafar engaged the audience with his first dance performance with former Miss Indias Manasvi Mamgai and Neha Hinge.

The grand evening was also graced by Julia Morley, Chairperson of the Miss World Organisation and reigning Miss World Ivian Lunasol Sarcos Colimenares.

India hosted the BRICS Summit for the First Time on 29 March 2012

India hosted the BRICS(Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) summit for the first time on 29 March 2012. It was the fourth BRICS summit. It was held in Indian capital New Delhi. The summit was participated by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The theme of the Summit was BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity. This was the first summit hosted by India. The BRICS nations signed two major agreements during this summit. One was to boost trade among BRICS nations by offering trade in local currency. This will replace dollar as the main currency of trade among them. The other agreement was to set up a development bank on lines of multilateral lending agencies. Intra-BRICS trade is about 230 billion US dollars.
BRICS declaration(Delhi declaration) issued at the end of the summit says situation concerning Iran cannot be allowed to escalate into conflict. It said that the disastrous consequences of which will be in no one's interest. Declaration says BRICS recognises Iran's right to peaceful uses of nuclear energy and supports resolution of issues through dialogue.
The fifth BRICS summit will be held in March-April 2013 in South Africa. The first summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia in June 2009. The second summit was held in Brasilia, in April 2010. The third summit was held in Sanya, China in April 2011.
BRICS was earlier known as BRIC. When South Africa joined the organisation in 2011 it became BRICS.

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy, 2010-11

Punjabi University, Patiala has won the trophy defeating arch rivals GNDU, Amritsar. The coveted sports trophy has been awarded to the university for the fourth time as it had earned the maximum number of medals in the All-India Inter-University championships and registered the best overall performance in individual and team events held in one calendar year.

National Tourism Award

In a nod to the active interest that States have taken in developing tourism, Madhya Pradesh and Sikkim swept the National Tourism Award ceremony with the maximum number of awards. While Madhya Pradesh got four awards, including best State for tourism infrastructure and best tourism film, Sikkim got the award for tourism infrastructure in the north-east and best State for the Clean India campaign.

Besides Madhya Pradesh and Sikkim, Rajasthan and Kerala also bagged the awards. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport at Hyderabad was adjudged the best airport and New Delhi Railway Station got the award for best tourist-friendly station in the country.

Oscar Awards, 2012

Best Film: Thomas Langmann for “The Artist”. The film is the first silent film to win the award since the World War I saga “Wings” was named outstanding picture at the first Oscars in 1929.
Best Director: Michel Hazanavicius for “The Artist”.
Best Actress: Meryl Streep for “The Iron Lady”. This was her third Oscar.
Best Actor: Jean Dujardin, for “The Artist”.
Best Actor in a supporting role: Christopher Plummer for “Beginners”. He is 82 years old and wins his first Oscar.
Best Supporting Actress: Octavia Spencer for “The Help”.
Best Foreign Language Film: Asghar Farhadi for Iranian film “A Separation”, which became the first Iranian film ever to win an Oscar.
Short film Animated: William Joyce and Brandon Oldenburg for “The Fantastic Flying Books of Mr. Morris Lessmore”.
Short Film (Live Action): George and Oorlagh George for “The Shore”.
Original Screenplay: Woody Allen for “Midnight in Paris”. This was his first Oscar in last 25 years.
Adapted Screenplay: Alexander Payne, Nat Faxon & Jim Rash for “The Descendants”. Best Original Song: Bret McKenzie from “Man or Muppet”.
Best Original Score: Ludovic Bource for “The Artist”.
Best Visual Effects: Rob Legato, Joss Williams, Ben Grossmann and Alex Henning for “Hugo”.
Best Animated feature film: Gore Verbinski for “Rango”.
Best Documentary: T.J. Martin, Dan Lindsay and Rich Middlemas for “Undefeated”.
Best Makeup: Mark Coulier and J. Roy Helland for “The Iron Lady”.
Best Costume Design: Mark Bridges for “The Artist”.
Art Direction: Dante Ferretti (Production Design); Francesca Lo Schiavo (Set Decoration) for “Hugo”.
Best Cinematography: Robert Richardson for “Hugo”.

Business Standard awards for Corporate Excellence

CEO of the Year: Rajiv Bajaj, MD & CEO of Bajaj Auto
Company of the Year: Cognizant
Star MNC: Nestle India
Star SME: Jubilant FoodWorks
Star PSU: National Mineral Development Corporation

Grammy Awards, 2012

Song of the Year: “Rolling in the Deep” by Adele Adkins and Paul Epworth
Pop Solo Performance: “Someone Like You” by Adele
Pop Performance by a Duo or Group: “Body and Soul” by Tony Bennett and Amy Winehouse
Pop Vocal Album: “21” by Adele
Alternative Album: “Bon Iver” by Bon Iver
Rock Song: “Walk” by Foo Fighters
Rock Album: “Wasting Light” by Foo Fighters
Rock Performance: “Walk” by Foo Fighters
Hard Rock/Metal Performance: “White Limo” by Foo Fighters
R&B Album: “F.A.M.E.” by Chris Brown
R&B Song: “Fool For You” by Cee Lo Green, Melanie Hallim and Jack Splash
R&B Performance: “Is This Love” by Corrine Bailey Rae
Rap Album: “My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy” by Kanye West
Rap Performance: “Otis” by Jay-Z and Kanye West
Rap Song: “All of the Lights” by Jeff Bhasker, Stacy Ferguson, Malik Jones, Warren Trotter and Kanye West
World Music Album: “Tassili” by Tinariwen
Country Solo Performance: “Mean” by Taylor Swift
Country Album: “Own the Night” by Lady Antebellum
Country Performance by a Duo or Group: “Barton Hollow” by The Civil Wars
Country Song: “Mean” by Taylor Swift
Jazz Vocal Album: “The Mosaic Project” by Terri Lyne Carrington and various artists
Jazz Instrumental Album: “Forever” by Corea, Clark and White
Historical Album: “Band on the Run” by Paul McCartney

Laureus Awards, 2012

Serbian tennis giant Novak Djokovic and Kenyan distance runner Vivian Cheruiyot have been named as the best Sportsman and Sportswoman of the year, respectively, while the glory of best Team went to reigning Champions League football holders FC Barcelona.

Djokovic, the first player representing Serbia to win a Grand Slam singles title, is also the youngest player to reach the semi-finals of all four Grand Slams in the open era, at the age of 24.

Cheruiyot was considered one of the greatest distance runners of this generation. She picked up gold medals of both 5,000 and 10,000 metres at the World Championships in Daegu, South Korea.

Barcelona, under coach Pep Guardiola, was winner of the Champions League and the Spanish League in the 2010/11 season. It was the fourth time the team was nominated for the Laureus but won it for the first time.

GROUP-II SERVICES - 2008 Notification No. 11/2009 TO 38/2008 Marks List

Group-II Services (11/2009 TO 38/2008) - Marks List of the Interview Candidates.

Fourth BRICS (BRAZIL, Russia, India, China and South Africa) Summit was held in New Delhi

The Fourth BRICS Summit was held in New Delhi on 29 March 2012. The theme of the Summit was BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity. At the Summit, the Leaders of the BRICS countries discussed political, economic and social issues of mutual and international interest.
The Summit took forward the continuing efforts towards strengthening cooperation, consultation and coordination among the BRICS countries for the benefit of their peoples and of the international community.

Seoul Nuclear Security Summit

Seoul nuclear security summit was held on 26-27 March 2012 in South Korea. It was the second nuclear security summit. 53 heads of state and government, as well as representatives of the United Nations (UN), International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), European Union (EU) and INTERPOL, attended the 2012 Seoul Nuclear Security Summit.

Compared to the 2010 Washington Summit, there were seven new participants: Azerbaijan, Denmark, Gabon, Hungary, Lithuania, Romania and INTERPOL. The EU was represented by both the President of the European Council and the President of the European Commission, making the number of participating leaders 58 in total.

The next Nuclear Security Summit will be held in 2014 in the Netherlands. The first nuclear security summit was held in Washington, USA in April 2010.