India’s power sector witnessed a new era in the transmission segment with the launch a 1,200-Kv ultra-high voltage (UHV) test station along with experimental lines in Bina, Madhya Pradesh, by State-run Power Grid Corp. The investment for the project is estimated at Rs 800 crore.
As of now, the power is being transmitted on 765Kv /800Kv lines. The existing 400Kv line can transfer about 600 Mw power, 800Kv line can do between 1,200 Mw and 2,400 Mw and 1,200-Kv transfer 6,000-8,000 Mw.
With the government’s plan of adding over 100,000 Mw capacity in the coming 12th Plan, coupled with the challenges put up by environment hurdles, right of way and transmission losses, there is a need to develop a more sound transmission system. About 35 manufacturers, including BHEL, Areva, Siemens and Sterlite have joined hands with PowerGrid to establish the 1,200kV test station. The test line in Bina is being constructed with two 1200kV test bays in which the leading manufacturers are providing main equipment such as transformers, surge arresters, circuit breakers, transformers among others. These test bays and test lines shall be used for various field trials initially.
The first 1,200kV system field was tested and commissioned in the former Soviet Union in 1985 after 12 years of research, which was discontinued after the disintegration of the Union. Then, Japan started developing a 1,000kV UHV system in 1978 and tests are still on. China started developmental work on a 1,100 kV UHV system in 2005 and a pilot project is presently under testing.
Friday, October 14, 2011
Space junk reaching "tipping point," report warns
The amount of debris orbiting the Earth has reached “a tipping point” for collisions, which would in turn generate more of the debris that threatens astronauts and satellites, according to a U.S. study.
NASA needs a new strategic plan for mitigating the hazards posed by spent rocket bodies, discarded satellites and thousands of other pieces of junk flying around the planet at speeds of 28,160 km per hour, the National Research Council said in the study.
The council is one of the private, non-profit U.S. national academies that provide expert advice on scientific problems.
Orbital debris poses a threat to the approximately 1,000 operational commercial, military and civilian satellites orbiting the Earth—part of a global industry that generated $168 billion in revenues in 2010, Satellite Industry Association figures show.
The world’s first space smash-up occurred in 2009 when a working Iridium communications satellite and a non-operational Russian satellite collided 788 km over Siberia, generating thousands of new pieces of orbital debris.
The crash followed China’s destruction in 2007 of one of its defunct weather satellites, as part of a widely condemned anti-satellite missile test.
The amount of orbital debris tracked by the U.S. Space Surveillance Network jumped from 9,949 catalogued objects in December 2006 to 16,094 in July 2011, with nearly 20 percent of the objects stemming from the destruction of the Chinese FENGYUN 1-C satellite.
The surveillance network tracks objects approximately 10 centimetres in diameter and larger.
NASA needs a new strategic plan for mitigating the hazards posed by spent rocket bodies, discarded satellites and thousands of other pieces of junk flying around the planet at speeds of 28,160 km per hour, the National Research Council said in the study.
The council is one of the private, non-profit U.S. national academies that provide expert advice on scientific problems.
Orbital debris poses a threat to the approximately 1,000 operational commercial, military and civilian satellites orbiting the Earth—part of a global industry that generated $168 billion in revenues in 2010, Satellite Industry Association figures show.
The world’s first space smash-up occurred in 2009 when a working Iridium communications satellite and a non-operational Russian satellite collided 788 km over Siberia, generating thousands of new pieces of orbital debris.
The crash followed China’s destruction in 2007 of one of its defunct weather satellites, as part of a widely condemned anti-satellite missile test.
The amount of orbital debris tracked by the U.S. Space Surveillance Network jumped from 9,949 catalogued objects in December 2006 to 16,094 in July 2011, with nearly 20 percent of the objects stemming from the destruction of the Chinese FENGYUN 1-C satellite.
The surveillance network tracks objects approximately 10 centimetres in diameter and larger.
NASA’s GRAIL mission around moon
NASA's GRAIL mission to study the moon from crust to core successfully lifted off from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station's Pad SLC-17B on September 9, 2011.
The straight-line distance from Earth to the moon is about 402,336 kilometres. It took NASA’s Apollo moon crews about three days to cover that distance. Each of the GRAIL twin satellites will be taking about 30 times that , and covering more than 4 million kilometres to get there. This low-energy, high-cruise time trajectory is beneficial for mission planners and controllers, as it allows more time for spacecraft checkout. The path also provides a vital component of the spacecraft's single science instrument, the Ultra Stable Oscillator, to be continuously powered for several months, allowing it to reach a stable operating temperature long before beginning the collection of science measurements in lunar orbit.
GRAIL-A will enter lunar orbit on December 31, 2011, and GRAIL-B will follow the next day. When science collection begins, the spacecraft will transmit radio signals precisely defining the distance between them as they orbit the moon. Regional gravitational differences on the moon are expected to expand and contract that distance. GRAIL scientists will use these accurate measurements to define the moon’s gravity field. The data will allow mission scientists to understand what goes on below the surface of our natural satellite.
The straight-line distance from Earth to the moon is about 402,336 kilometres. It took NASA’s Apollo moon crews about three days to cover that distance. Each of the GRAIL twin satellites will be taking about 30 times that , and covering more than 4 million kilometres to get there. This low-energy, high-cruise time trajectory is beneficial for mission planners and controllers, as it allows more time for spacecraft checkout. The path also provides a vital component of the spacecraft's single science instrument, the Ultra Stable Oscillator, to be continuously powered for several months, allowing it to reach a stable operating temperature long before beginning the collection of science measurements in lunar orbit.
GRAIL-A will enter lunar orbit on December 31, 2011, and GRAIL-B will follow the next day. When science collection begins, the spacecraft will transmit radio signals precisely defining the distance between them as they orbit the moon. Regional gravitational differences on the moon are expected to expand and contract that distance. GRAIL scientists will use these accurate measurements to define the moon’s gravity field. The data will allow mission scientists to understand what goes on below the surface of our natural satellite.
Thursday, October 13, 2011
PSLV-C18 puts four satellites in orbit
India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C18) demonstrated its reliability and consistency yet again when it put four satellites in orbit with aplomb on October 12.
The satellites were: Megha-Tropiques, an Indo-French mission to study the weather and climate in the tropical regions of the world; SRMSat, built by students of SRM University, near Chennai; Jugnu, put together by Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur students; and VesselSat from Luxembourg.
The fourth stage fired the four in orbit after 21 minutes of a flawless flight, the 19th consecutive success of the PSLV, prompting P.S. Veeraraghavan, Director, Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram, to brand it a “Perfect Satellite LaunchVehicle.”
K. Radhakrishnan, Chairman, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) called the flight “a grand success” and said the information received from the Megha-Tropiques satellite would be useful to the global community for measuring the precipitation in the tropical regions of the world. Twenty-one scientific teams from several countries would use the information for doing research on weather in the tropical countries.
S. Ramakrishnan, Director, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, ISRO, describing it as “a magnificent mission,” said: “Today, with the PSLV, we have an assured access to space. This is something that not many countries can boast of.”
There were patches of clouds above the spaceport as the PSLV-C18 soared from the seaside first launch pad at 11.01 a.m., after a delay of one minute. “We shifted the launch by a minute,” Dr. Radhakrishnan explained, to preclude the “probability of space debris,” smashing into the satellites.
T.K. Alex, Director, ISRO Satellite Centre, Bangalore, said space debris travelled at a velocity of eight km a second and so the ISRO did not want to take any chances.
The vehicle lifting majestically quickly disappeared into a bank of clouds. As it knifed out, it looked spectacular, riding on bright yellow flames and climbing nonchalantly into the sky. Clouds blanketed it again but it emerged, gathering velocity. The engines worked with clock-work precision, erupting into life on the dot and jettisoning into the Bay of Bengal after spending themselves out.
After the third stage burn-out, the fourth stage coasted on its own, without any power, that is, without firing. The vehicle was gaining altitude all the time Then, the two engines in the fourth stage started up, and 21 minutes after lift-off, the four satellites were shot into orbit one after the other, at a velocity of 26,000 km an hour.
Megha-Tropiques went into orbit at an altitude of 865 km against the targeted 867 km.
APPSC INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES ON CHANGE IN GROUP-II
Group-II Services 2008 (11/2009 & 38/2008) are scheduled to be held on 15/10/2011 FN and 16/10/2011 FN & AN. 4.5 lakhs candidates have applied for the examination. The Examination is going to be held at all District Head Quarters at 1064 venues.
Downloading of Hall Tickets is in progress. For the first time in history of APPSC two important changes are being introduced from this examination.
1. The OMR Sheets have to bubbled only by Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black). Bubbling by pencil / Ink Pen / Gel Pen is not permitted in this examination.
2. OMR Sheets supplied to the candidates consist of two copies, the original copy and duplicate copy below. After completion of the examination the candidates should handover the original OMR Answer Sheet (top sheet) to the invigilator and carry the bottom sheet (duplicate) for his / her record.
3. The candidates are also informed under no circumstances should the candidate take away the main Answer Sheet and if he does so he will be disqualified.
Downloading of Hall Tickets is in progress. For the first time in history of APPSC two important changes are being introduced from this examination.
1. The OMR Sheets have to bubbled only by Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black). Bubbling by pencil / Ink Pen / Gel Pen is not permitted in this examination.
2. OMR Sheets supplied to the candidates consist of two copies, the original copy and duplicate copy below. After completion of the examination the candidates should handover the original OMR Answer Sheet (top sheet) to the invigilator and carry the bottom sheet (duplicate) for his / her record.
3. The candidates are also informed under no circumstances should the candidate take away the main Answer Sheet and if he does so he will be disqualified.
Tuesday, October 11, 2011
Public Private Partnerships (PPP) in India
The most significant criteria for a continued growth rate of an economy is rests on the provision of a quality infrastructure. According to the Planning Commission, an approximation of 8 percent of the Gross Domestic Product or GDP needs to be invested. This would help in acquiring a prospective economy as stated in the 11th Five Year Plan. Fund investment of over US $ 494 billion has been conceived of according to the 11th Five Year Plan with effective from 2007 to 2012. The investment sectors under consideration are inclusive of telecommunications, electric power, water transport, road, rail, air, water supply as well as irrigation amounts to about Rs. 20,27,169 crore according to 2006-07 prices.
In order to meet such demands, various Public Private Partnerships or PPPs are being promoted for implementation of infrastructure projects. PPP is often described as a private business investment where 2 parties comprising government as well as a private sector undertaking form a partnership. The deficit can be overcome by ensuring much more private capital investment. Expert guidance is the only way out for enabling efficiency through subsequent reduction in cost.
Promotion of PPP is therefore necessary since its the most preferred mode. Despite of its benefits, there are some constraints too which can be summarized as:
In order to meet such demands, various Public Private Partnerships or PPPs are being promoted for implementation of infrastructure projects. PPP is often described as a private business investment where 2 parties comprising government as well as a private sector undertaking form a partnership. The deficit can be overcome by ensuring much more private capital investment. Expert guidance is the only way out for enabling efficiency through subsequent reduction in cost.
Promotion of PPP is therefore necessary since its the most preferred mode. Despite of its benefits, there are some constraints too which can be summarized as:
- Sufficient instruments as well as the ability to undertake long-term equity cannot be provided by the market in the present financial scenario. Also financial liability required by infrastructure projects would not be sufficed.
- Most sectors face a lot of hindrance in enabling a regulatory framework as well as a consolidated policy. So its important to convert such policies into PPP friendly. To achieve the desires results, active participation of various state projects are essential.
- Lack of ability of private sectors to fit into the risk of investing in diversified projects also needs to be overcome. Modernization of new airports, transmission systems and building power generating plants are some of the avenues which required skilled manpower.
- Ability of public institutions to manage the PPP process should also be subdued. Maximizing the return of the stakeholders needs to be managed due to the involvement of long term deals including the life cycle of the asset infrastructure.
- Lack of credibility of bankable infrastructure projects used for financing the private sector should also be overcome. Inconsistency is still visible in the limitations of PPP projects, despite of continued initiatives by States and Central ministries.
- Inadequate support to enable greater acceptance of PPPs by the stakeholders forms another source of constraint.
Several initiatives have been undertaken by Government of India to enable a greater PPP framework in order to eradicate the above mentioned constraints. Various foreign as well as private investments by waving off charges are encouraged. Framing of standardized contractual documents for laying down the terminologies related to risks, liabilities and performance standards have been devised. Approval schemes for PPPs in the central sector has been streamlined through Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee or PPPAC. A website has been launched for the purpose of virtual PPP market serves as an online database for PPP projects.
PPPs can only be mainstreamed by continuous response to the varying goal of people and economy in general. The boundary domains of PPPs should be increased in order to prosper the infrastructure development of India.
PPPs can only be mainstreamed by continuous response to the varying goal of people and economy in general. The boundary domains of PPPs should be increased in order to prosper the infrastructure development of India.
Public Private Partnership (PPP) Concept
“Public Private Partnership” (PPP) Partnership between a public sector entity (Sponsoring (PPP) authority) and a private sector entity (a legal entity in which 51% or more of equity is with the private partner/s) for the creation and/or management of infrastructure for public purpose for a specified period of time (concession period) on commercial terms and in which the private partner has been procured through a transparent and open procurement system
Traditionally, private sector participation has been limited to separate planning, design or construction contracts on a fee for service basis – based on the public agency’s specifications.
Traditionally, private sector participation has been limited to separate planning, design or construction contracts on a fee for service basis – based on the public agency’s specifications.
Expanding the private sector role allows the public agencies to tap private sector technical, management and financial resources in new ways to achieve certain public agency objectives such as greater cost and schedule certainty, supplementing in-house staff, innovative technology applications, specialized expertise or access to private capital. The private partner can expand its business opportunities in return for assuming the new or expanded responsibilities and risks.
Some of the primary reasons for public agencies to enter into public-private partnerships include:
- Accelerating the implementation of high priority projects by packaging and procuring services in new ways;
- Turning to the private sector to provide specialized management capacity for large and complex programs;
- Enabling the delivery of new technology developed by private entities;
- Drawing on private sector expertise in accessing and organizing the widest range of private sector financial resources;
- Encouraging private entrepreneurial development, ownership, and operation of highways and/or related assets; and
- Allowing for the reduction in the size of the public agency and the substitution of private sector resources and personnel
PPP Models in practice
There are range of PPP models that allocate a responsibilities and risks between the public and private partners in different ways. The following terms are commonly used to describe typical partnership agreement.
(a)Build Operate and Transfer (BOT) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire undertakes the construction, including financing, of a given infrastructure facility, and the operation and maintenance thereof. The concessionaire operates the facility over a fixed term during which it is allowed to charge facility users appropriate tolls, fees, rentals, and charges not exceeding these proposed in its bid or as negotiated and incorporated in the contract to enable the concessionaire to recover its investment, and operating and maintenance expenses in the project. The concessionaire transfers the facility to the Government Agency or Local Government unit concerned at the end of the fixed term.
(b)Build-Own-Operate-and-Transfer (BOOT) : a project based on the granting of a concession by a Principal (the Union or Government or a local authority) to the concessionaire, who is responsible for the construction, financing, operation and maintenance of a facility over the period of the concession before finally transferring the facility, at no cost to the Principal, a fully operational facility. During the concession period the promoter owns and operates the facility and collects revenue in order to repay the financing and investment costs, maintain and operate the facility and make a margin of profit.
(c)Build-and-Transfer (BT) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire undertakes the financing and construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the Government Agency or Local Government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed Schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon. This arrangement may be employed in the construction of any infrastructure or development project, including critical facilities which, for security or strategic reasons, must be operated directly by the Government.
(d)Build-Own-and-Operate (BOO) : a contractual arrangement whereby a concessionaire is authorized to finance, construct, own operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to recover its total investment , operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tolls, fees, rentals or other charges from facility users.
(e)Build-Lease-and-Transfer (BLT) : a contractual arrangement whereby a concessionaire is authorized to finance and construct an infrastructure or development facility and upon its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned on a lease arrangement for fixed period after which ownership of the facility is automatically transferred to the government agency or local government unit concerned.
(f)Build-Transfer-and-Operate (BTO) : a contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure facility to a private entity such that the concessionaire builds the facility on turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks. Once the facility is commissioned satisfactorily, title is transferred to the implementing agency. The private entity however, operates the facility on behalf of the implementing agency under an agreement
(g)Design Built Finance Operate (DBFO) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire is authorized to detailed design work, which will reduce time and money required for project preparation. The states could then bid the project based on the Feasibility Report instead of the Detailed Project Report. For this, appropriately drafted TOR for Feasibility Report consultants and also a Manual of Specification and Standard for BOT Projects needed to be adopted by the States.
(h)Contract-Add-and-Operate (CAO): a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire adds to an existing infrastructure facility which it is renting from the government. It operates the expended project over an agreed franchise period. There may, or may not be, a transfer arrangement in regard to the facility.
(i)Develop-Operate-and-Transfer(DOT) : a contractual arrangement whereby favourable conditions external to anew infrastructure project which is to be built by a private project proponent are integrated into the arrangement by giving that entity the right to develop adjoining property, and thus, enjoy some of the benefits the investment creates such as higher property or rent values.
(j)Lease Management Agreement : an agreement whereby the State Government, the government agency or the specified agency leases a project owned by the state government, the government agency, or, as the case may be, the specified government agency to the person who is permitted to operate and maintain the project for the period specified in the agreement.
Project Summary(Andhra Pradesh State Level)
| Sector | No's | Amount (In Cr's) |
|---|---|---|
| Airport | 1 | 2487 |
| Education | 7 | 1076 |
| Energy & Power | 3 | 1231 |
| Forest | 7 | 310 |
| Information Technology | 9 | 408 |
| Medical & Health | 8 | 1252 |
| Ports | 4 | 12596 |
| Roads | 39 | 7846 |
| Rural Development | 1 | 0 |
| Science and Technology | 1 | 386 |
| Tourism | 40 | 1252 |
| Urban Development | 50 | 26518 |
| Water and sanitation | 7 | 464 |
| Total: | 177 | 55826 |
| Upcoming Projects: | 38 | 25333 |
| Grand Total : | 215 | 81159 |
Monday, October 10, 2011
2011 NOBEL PRIZE WINNERS
The Nobel Prize in Physics
Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt, Adam G. Riess
Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt, Adam G. Riess
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry
Dan Shechtman
Dan Shechtman
The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann, Ralph M. Steinman
Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann, Ralph M. Steinman
The Nobel Prize in Literature
Tomas Tranströmer
Tomas Tranströmer
The Nobel Peace Prize
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee, Tawakkul Karman
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee, Tawakkul Karman
Thomas J. Sargent, Christopher A. Sims
Fossils of Largest Cheetah Found in the Republic of Georgia
Scientists found the fossils of largest known cheetah which roamed the planet Earth thousands of years ago. Scientists discovered the fossils at a 1.8 million year old site in Dmanisi in the Republic of Georgia. The cheetah is believed to be weighed about 110 kg, about double the weight of its modern cousin.
The area, where the discovery was made, was once a forested valley floor whose edges blurred into savanna and grasslands.
The area, where the discovery was made, was once a forested valley floor whose edges blurred into savanna and grasslands.
Chhattisgarh to have 9 New Districts, Taking the Total Number of Districts in the State to 27
Chhattisgarh will have 9 new districts with effect from January 2012, taking the total number of districts in the state to 27. These districts will be Sukma, Kondagaon, Gariabandh, Balodabazar, Balod, Bemetera, Mungeli, Surajpur and Balrampur.
This was announced by the Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Raman Singh on 15 August 2011 while addressing the people on the occasion of the Independence Day at the police parade ground in Raipur. This step will be a mile stone in the administrative history of the state.
This was announced by the Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Raman Singh on 15 August 2011 while addressing the people on the occasion of the Independence Day at the police parade ground in Raipur. This step will be a mile stone in the administrative history of the state.
2011 CHAMPIONS LEAGUE T20 QUESTIONS
In which country 2011 CLT20 tournament was held?
India
In which cities 2011 CLT20 matches were played?
Bangalore,Hyderabad and Chennai
Which 3 Indian teams qualified for the main tournament?
Mumbai Indians, Royal Challengers Bangalore and Chennai Super Kings
Which Indian team was knocked out in the Robin Round format of 2011 CLt20?
Kolkata Knight Riders
Who is leading Mumbai Indian team in CLT20 2011?
Harbhajan Singh
Which team were the defending champions?
Chennai Super Kings
Which team had scored the fastest hundred in 2011 CLT20 tournament?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)
In how many overs RCB team scored the fastest hundred of the tournament?
8.4 overs
Which cricketer holds the record for most runs scored in a CLT20 tournament?
David Warner
Which cricketer had hit six on the last ball of the match to make team RCB qualify for 2011 CLT20 semifinal?
Arun Kartik
In which city the first semi final of 2011 CLT20 was played?
Bengaluru
Which two teams played the first semifinal of 2011 CLT20 at Bangalore?
RCB and New South Wales
Which team won the first semifinal played at Bengaluru to qualify for 2011 CLT20 final?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)
Which cricketer had hit 11 sixes in the first semifinal match against RCB?
David Warner
Who was awarded Man of the Match in first semifinal match played between RCB and NSW?
Virat Kohli for his knock of 84 runs in just 49 balls
In which city was CLT20 second semifinal played?
Chennai
Which two teams played the second semifinal match of CLT20 2011?
Mumbai Indians and Somerset
Which team won the second semifinal match played at Chennai?
Mumbai Indians
Who was awarded the Man of the match in the second semifinal of 2011 CLT20?
Lasith Malinga for claiming 4 wickets
Which two Indian teams played the 2011 CLT20 final match?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) vs Mumbai Indians (MI)
On which date was 2011 CLT20 final match played?
9th October,2011
In which city was the CLT20 2011 final match held?
Chennai
Who won the CLT20 2011 title?
Mumbai Indians
Who was awarded man of the match in CLT20 2011 finals?
Habhajan Singh
Who was awarded man of the series in CLT20 2011?
Malinga
India
In which cities 2011 CLT20 matches were played?
Bangalore,Hyderabad and Chennai
Which 3 Indian teams qualified for the main tournament?
Mumbai Indians, Royal Challengers Bangalore and Chennai Super Kings
Which Indian team was knocked out in the Robin Round format of 2011 CLt20?
Kolkata Knight Riders
Who is leading Mumbai Indian team in CLT20 2011?
Harbhajan Singh
Which team were the defending champions?
Chennai Super Kings
Which team had scored the fastest hundred in 2011 CLT20 tournament?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)
In how many overs RCB team scored the fastest hundred of the tournament?
8.4 overs
Which cricketer holds the record for most runs scored in a CLT20 tournament?
David Warner
Which cricketer had hit six on the last ball of the match to make team RCB qualify for 2011 CLT20 semifinal?
Arun Kartik
In which city the first semi final of 2011 CLT20 was played?
Bengaluru
Which two teams played the first semifinal of 2011 CLT20 at Bangalore?
RCB and New South Wales
Which team won the first semifinal played at Bengaluru to qualify for 2011 CLT20 final?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)
Which cricketer had hit 11 sixes in the first semifinal match against RCB?
David Warner
Who was awarded Man of the Match in first semifinal match played between RCB and NSW?
Virat Kohli for his knock of 84 runs in just 49 balls
In which city was CLT20 second semifinal played?
Chennai
Which two teams played the second semifinal match of CLT20 2011?
Mumbai Indians and Somerset
Which team won the second semifinal match played at Chennai?
Mumbai Indians
Who was awarded the Man of the match in the second semifinal of 2011 CLT20?
Lasith Malinga for claiming 4 wickets
Which two Indian teams played the 2011 CLT20 final match?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) vs Mumbai Indians (MI)
On which date was 2011 CLT20 final match played?
9th October,2011
In which city was the CLT20 2011 final match held?
Chennai
Who won the CLT20 2011 title?
Mumbai Indians
Who was awarded man of the match in CLT20 2011 finals?
Habhajan Singh
Who was awarded man of the series in CLT20 2011?
Malinga
Sunday, October 9, 2011
Zonal Councils
The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States. This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities and bitterness as a result of re-organisation of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the very fabric of our nation. As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high level advisory forum should be set up to minimise the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State and Centre-State environment with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced socio economic development of the respective zones.
COMPOSITION OF ZONAL COUNCILS
In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;
The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli; and
The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December, 2002. Consequently, action for exclusion of Sikkim as member of Eastern Zonal Council has been initiated by Ministry of Home Affairs.
COMMITTIEES OF ZONAL COUNCILS
Each Zonal Council has set up a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member States of their respective Zonal Councils. These Standing Committees meet from time to time to resolve the issues or to do necessary ground work for further meetings of the Zonal Councils. Senior Officers of the Planning Commission and other Central Ministries are also associated with the meetings depending upon necessity. :
ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE OF ZONAL COUNCILS
(i) Chairman
The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
(ii) Vice Chairman
The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
(iii) Members
Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
(iv) Advisers
One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone;
Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
.
ROLE AND OBJECTIVES OF THE ZONAL COUNCILS
The Zonal Councils provide an excellent forum where irritants between Centre and States and amongst States can be resolved through free and frank discussions and consultations. Being advisory bodies, there is full scope for free and frank exchange of views in their meetings. Though there are a large number of other fora like the National Development Council, Inter State Council, Governor’s/Chief Minister’s Conferences and other periodical high level conferences held under the auspices of the Union Government, the Zonal Councils are different, both in content and character. They are regional fora of cooperative endeavour for States linked with each other economically, politically and culturally. Being compact high level bodies, specially meant for looking after the interests of respective zones, they are capable of focusing attention on specific issues taking into account regional factors, while keeping the national perspective in view.
The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are as under :
Bringing out national integration;
Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies;
Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences; and
Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.
FUNCTIONS OF THE COUNCILS
Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which some or all of the States represented in that Council, or the Union and one or more of the States represented in that Council, have a common interest and advise the Central Government and the Government of each State concerned as to the action to be taken on any such matter.
In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to,--
any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning;
any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport; and
any matter connected with, or arising out of, the re-organisation of the States under the States Reorganisation Act.
MEETINGS OF ZONAL COUNCILS
As per Section 17(1) of States Re-organisation Act, each Zonal Council shall meet at such time as the Chairman of the Council may appoint in this behalf. Since their inception in 1957, the Zonal Councils have met 106 times. The last meetings of the Zonal Councils were held as under:
Name of the Council Place of meeting Date of the meeting
1.Eastern Zonal Council Ranchi 30.05.2005
2.Western Zonal Council Panaji 20.09.2006
3.Northern Zonal Council Shimla 25.10.2005
4.Southern Zonal Council Hyderabad 12.02.2007
5.Central Zonal Council Bhopal 24.05.2005
Deliberations at Zonal Councils have led to important initiatives in regard to Internal Security, Coastal Security, Mega City Policing, Sharing of information on crime and criminals by the concerned states, Jail Reforms, Communal Harmony and the resolution of the socio-economic problems like trafficking in women and children, National Disaster Management and strengthening the preparedness for disaster management, implementation of Right to information Act, Implementation of National Employment Guarantee Bill, Coastal Secretary and Good Governance etc.
SECRETARIAT OF ZONAL COUNCILS
The Secretariat of the Zonal Councils has also been created by the statue itself. Section 19 of the States Re-organisation Act deals with the staff of Zonal Councils whereas Section 20 deals with office of the Council and its administrative expenses.
(i) Office of Zonal Councils:
As per Section 20(1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 the office of Zonal Council for each zone shall be located at such place within the zone as may be determined by the Council. However, since 1963, a single Secretariat looking after the affairs of all Zonal Councils is functioning from New Delhi. The Secretariat is located 9/11, Jamnagar House, New Delhi and functioning under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
The Zonal Councils Secretariat explores centre-State, inter-State and zonal issues which are to be deliberated by the Councils or the Standing Committees. The Secretariat also follows up on the recommendations of the Councils/Standing Committees, if necessary drawing the attention of the Chairman and other Central Ministers/Chief Ministers.
(ii) Organisational set up of Zonal Council Secretariat
According to Section 19 (1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, each Zonal Council shall have a secretarial staff consisting of a Secretary, a Joint Secretary and such other officers as the Chairman may consider necessary to appoint
The Chief Secretaries of the States represented in such Zonal Councils act as the Secretary of the respective Council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
The Joint Secretary of Zonal Councils is as a Director Level officer from All India Services or Central Secretariat Services.
COMPOSITION OF ZONAL COUNCILS
In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;
The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli; and
The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December, 2002. Consequently, action for exclusion of Sikkim as member of Eastern Zonal Council has been initiated by Ministry of Home Affairs.
COMMITTIEES OF ZONAL COUNCILS
Each Zonal Council has set up a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member States of their respective Zonal Councils. These Standing Committees meet from time to time to resolve the issues or to do necessary ground work for further meetings of the Zonal Councils. Senior Officers of the Planning Commission and other Central Ministries are also associated with the meetings depending upon necessity. :
ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE OF ZONAL COUNCILS
(i) Chairman
The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
(ii) Vice Chairman
The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
(iii) Members
Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
(iv) Advisers
One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone;
Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
.
ROLE AND OBJECTIVES OF THE ZONAL COUNCILS
The Zonal Councils provide an excellent forum where irritants between Centre and States and amongst States can be resolved through free and frank discussions and consultations. Being advisory bodies, there is full scope for free and frank exchange of views in their meetings. Though there are a large number of other fora like the National Development Council, Inter State Council, Governor’s/Chief Minister’s Conferences and other periodical high level conferences held under the auspices of the Union Government, the Zonal Councils are different, both in content and character. They are regional fora of cooperative endeavour for States linked with each other economically, politically and culturally. Being compact high level bodies, specially meant for looking after the interests of respective zones, they are capable of focusing attention on specific issues taking into account regional factors, while keeping the national perspective in view.
The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are as under :
Bringing out national integration;
Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies;
Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences; and
Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.
FUNCTIONS OF THE COUNCILS
Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which some or all of the States represented in that Council, or the Union and one or more of the States represented in that Council, have a common interest and advise the Central Government and the Government of each State concerned as to the action to be taken on any such matter.
In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to,--
any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning;
any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport; and
any matter connected with, or arising out of, the re-organisation of the States under the States Reorganisation Act.
MEETINGS OF ZONAL COUNCILS
As per Section 17(1) of States Re-organisation Act, each Zonal Council shall meet at such time as the Chairman of the Council may appoint in this behalf. Since their inception in 1957, the Zonal Councils have met 106 times. The last meetings of the Zonal Councils were held as under:
Name of the Council Place of meeting Date of the meeting
1.Eastern Zonal Council Ranchi 30.05.2005
2.Western Zonal Council Panaji 20.09.2006
3.Northern Zonal Council Shimla 25.10.2005
4.Southern Zonal Council Hyderabad 12.02.2007
5.Central Zonal Council Bhopal 24.05.2005
Deliberations at Zonal Councils have led to important initiatives in regard to Internal Security, Coastal Security, Mega City Policing, Sharing of information on crime and criminals by the concerned states, Jail Reforms, Communal Harmony and the resolution of the socio-economic problems like trafficking in women and children, National Disaster Management and strengthening the preparedness for disaster management, implementation of Right to information Act, Implementation of National Employment Guarantee Bill, Coastal Secretary and Good Governance etc.
SECRETARIAT OF ZONAL COUNCILS
The Secretariat of the Zonal Councils has also been created by the statue itself. Section 19 of the States Re-organisation Act deals with the staff of Zonal Councils whereas Section 20 deals with office of the Council and its administrative expenses.
(i) Office of Zonal Councils:
As per Section 20(1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 the office of Zonal Council for each zone shall be located at such place within the zone as may be determined by the Council. However, since 1963, a single Secretariat looking after the affairs of all Zonal Councils is functioning from New Delhi. The Secretariat is located 9/11, Jamnagar House, New Delhi and functioning under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
The Zonal Councils Secretariat explores centre-State, inter-State and zonal issues which are to be deliberated by the Councils or the Standing Committees. The Secretariat also follows up on the recommendations of the Councils/Standing Committees, if necessary drawing the attention of the Chairman and other Central Ministers/Chief Ministers.
(ii) Organisational set up of Zonal Council Secretariat
According to Section 19 (1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, each Zonal Council shall have a secretarial staff consisting of a Secretary, a Joint Secretary and such other officers as the Chairman may consider necessary to appoint
The Chief Secretaries of the States represented in such Zonal Councils act as the Secretary of the respective Council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
The Joint Secretary of Zonal Councils is as a Director Level officer from All India Services or Central Secretariat Services.
Family Courts
The immediate reason for setting up of family courts was the mounting pressures from several women's associations, welfare organisations and individuals for establishment of special courts with a view to providing a forum for speedy settlement of family-related disputes. Emphasis was laid on a non-adversarial method of resolving family disputes and promoting conciliation and securing speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
In 1975, the Committee on the Status of Women recommended that all matters concerning the ‘family' should be dealt with separately. The Law Commission in its 59th report (1974) had also stressed that in dealing with disputes concerning the family, the court ought to adopt and approach radical steps distinguished from the existing ordinary civil proceedings and that these courts should make reasonable efforts at settlement before the commencement of the trial. Gender-sensitized personnel including judges, social workers and other trained staff should hear and resolve all the family-related issues through elimination of rigid rules of procedure. The Code of Civil Procedure was amended to provide for a special procedure to be adopted in suits or proceedings relating to matters concerning the family. However the courts continue to deal with family disputes in the same manner as other civil matters and the same adversary approach prevails. Hence a great need was felt, in the public interest, to establish family courts for speedy settlement of family disputes.
The Family Courts Act which was passed in 1984 was part of the trend of legal reforms concerning women. The President gave his assent to the Family Courts Act on September 14, 1984. The Act provides for a commencement provision which enables the Central Government to bring the Act into force in a State by
a notification in the Official Gazette, and different dates may be appointed for different States. This Act has 6 chapters under various heads such as Preliminary, Family Courts, Jurisdiction, Procedure, Appeals and Revisions and Miscellaneous.
The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and for matters connected therewith. Under Section 3(1)(a) of
the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Governments to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million. In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary. Following are the matters which can be filed in the Family Courts-
1. Decree for nullity of marriage
2. Restitution of Conjugal rights
3. Judicial Separation
4. Divorce
5. Declaration of marital status of any person
6. Matrimonial property matters
7. Claim of maintenance
8. Guardianship
9. Custody of children
10. Access of children
11. Application for injunction in matrimonial matters.
A scheme of Central financial assistance was started in 2002-03 for setting of Family Courts. As per the scheme Rs. 10 lakhs per court are provided by the Department of Justice for setting up of Family Courts with equal matching share from States. Under Non-Plan, funds to the tune of Rs. 5 lakh per court are provided for running expenditure of the Family Court. .
The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women has recommended that Family Courts may be set up in each district. All the State Governments/UT Administrations have been requested to set up Family Courts in each district.
As per latest available information, 190 Family Courts have been set up in the country and a statement showing Number of Family Courts functioning in the States is enclosed.
NO. OF FAMILY COURTS ESTABLISHED IN THE COUNTRY
S.No. Name of the State Total number of Family Courts
1. Andhra Pradesh - 8
2. Assam - 5
3. Bihar- 31
4. Chhattisgarh - 11
5. Delhi - 15
6. Gujarat - 7
7. Jammu & Kashmir - 1
8. Jharkhand - 6
9. Karnataka - 12
10. Kerala - 16
11. Madhya Pradesh - 7
12. Maharashtra - 18
13. Manipur - 2
14. Nagaland - 2
15. Orissa - 2
16. Pondicherry - 1
17. Punjab - 2
18. Rajasthan - 6
19. Sikkim - 1
20. Tamil Nadu - 6
21. Tripura - 3
22. Uttar Pradesh - 14
23. Uttaranchal - 7
24. West Bengal -7
Total - 190
In 1975, the Committee on the Status of Women recommended that all matters concerning the ‘family' should be dealt with separately. The Law Commission in its 59th report (1974) had also stressed that in dealing with disputes concerning the family, the court ought to adopt and approach radical steps distinguished from the existing ordinary civil proceedings and that these courts should make reasonable efforts at settlement before the commencement of the trial. Gender-sensitized personnel including judges, social workers and other trained staff should hear and resolve all the family-related issues through elimination of rigid rules of procedure. The Code of Civil Procedure was amended to provide for a special procedure to be adopted in suits or proceedings relating to matters concerning the family. However the courts continue to deal with family disputes in the same manner as other civil matters and the same adversary approach prevails. Hence a great need was felt, in the public interest, to establish family courts for speedy settlement of family disputes.
The Family Courts Act which was passed in 1984 was part of the trend of legal reforms concerning women. The President gave his assent to the Family Courts Act on September 14, 1984. The Act provides for a commencement provision which enables the Central Government to bring the Act into force in a State by
a notification in the Official Gazette, and different dates may be appointed for different States. This Act has 6 chapters under various heads such as Preliminary, Family Courts, Jurisdiction, Procedure, Appeals and Revisions and Miscellaneous.
The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and for matters connected therewith. Under Section 3(1)(a) of
the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Governments to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million. In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary. Following are the matters which can be filed in the Family Courts-
1. Decree for nullity of marriage
2. Restitution of Conjugal rights
3. Judicial Separation
4. Divorce
5. Declaration of marital status of any person
6. Matrimonial property matters
7. Claim of maintenance
8. Guardianship
9. Custody of children
10. Access of children
11. Application for injunction in matrimonial matters.
A scheme of Central financial assistance was started in 2002-03 for setting of Family Courts. As per the scheme Rs. 10 lakhs per court are provided by the Department of Justice for setting up of Family Courts with equal matching share from States. Under Non-Plan, funds to the tune of Rs. 5 lakh per court are provided for running expenditure of the Family Court. .
The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women has recommended that Family Courts may be set up in each district. All the State Governments/UT Administrations have been requested to set up Family Courts in each district.
As per latest available information, 190 Family Courts have been set up in the country and a statement showing Number of Family Courts functioning in the States is enclosed.
NO. OF FAMILY COURTS ESTABLISHED IN THE COUNTRY
S.No. Name of the State Total number of Family Courts
1. Andhra Pradesh - 8
2. Assam - 5
3. Bihar- 31
4. Chhattisgarh - 11
5. Delhi - 15
6. Gujarat - 7
7. Jammu & Kashmir - 1
8. Jharkhand - 6
9. Karnataka - 12
10. Kerala - 16
11. Madhya Pradesh - 7
12. Maharashtra - 18
13. Manipur - 2
14. Nagaland - 2
15. Orissa - 2
16. Pondicherry - 1
17. Punjab - 2
18. Rajasthan - 6
19. Sikkim - 1
20. Tamil Nadu - 6
21. Tripura - 3
22. Uttar Pradesh - 14
23. Uttaranchal - 7
24. West Bengal -7
Total - 190
Saturday, October 8, 2011
CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs FOR APPSC GROUP-II EXAM
1. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s nuclear power generation is only about 1800 MW against an installed capacity of 4120 MW.
2. The present Indo-US Civil nuclear deal is valid for 40 years and extendable by another 10 years.
3. Out of its 22 operating /under construction nuclear facilities, India will place 14 under IAEA safeguard.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The Kyoto protocol has put in place three flexibility mechanisms to reduce emission of Green House Gases.
(b) The three mechanisms are joint implementation, Emissions Trading and Clean develoment.
(c) These three mechanism are based on the premise that reduction of emissions in any part of the globe will have the same desired effect on the atmosphere.
(d) None of the above
3. Consider the following statements :
1. The women’s reservation Bill (108th Amendment) a proposed legislation to reserve 33.3% of seats in Parliament and State legislature for women.
2. In case of seats reserved for SC-ST candidates, 33.3% would have to be reserved for women.
3. The reservation of seats is proposed to be on rotation basis, which means that the 33% seats reserved in one election would lease to be reserved in the next election.
4. The provision for reservation is proposed to be in place for 15 years.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
4. Consider the following statements :
1. Human Development Index is composed from statistics for life expectancy, education and standard of living.
2. These were devised and launched by pakistani Economist Mahbub-ul in 1990.
3. Human Poverty Index-1 represents a multidimensional alternative to the $1.25 a day poverty measure.
4. The millennium Development Goals(MDGs) are eight turnaround goals that provide concrete, numerical benchmarks for tackling extreme poverty in its many dimensions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above
5. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Nuclear Liability Bill 2010?
(a) The nuclear liability Bill 2010 is introduce to define nuclear incidents and nuclear damage, nuclear fuel, material and nuclear installations and also operators of nuclear installations.
(b) It creates authorities who will assess claims and distribute compensation in case of nuclear damage.
(c) The Bill States that the total liability for nuclear incident shall not exceed the rupee equivalent of 300 million special Drawing Rights (Approximately Rs. 2100 crore at current exchange rates.)
(d) The nuclear damage claims commission would be chaired by prime minister of India.
6. Consider the following statements regarding
Common Wealth Games :
1. The Commonwealth Games are a unique, world class, multi-sport event held once every four years amongst the member countries and territories of the Commonwealth.
2. The three core value of the commonwealth games are humanity, equality and destiny.
3. The Commonwealth Games Federation has 71 member nations and territories called Commonwealth Games Association which include India.
4. The Commonwealth Games formerly known as the British Empire Games, were first held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
7. Consider the following statements regarding Commonwealth Games :
1. Queen’s Baton Relay is first started in 1958 in Cardiff, Wales and has since then been the curtain raiser to every Commonwealth Game.
2. The Queens Baton Relay 2010 Delhi started from Buckingham Palace on 29 October, 2009 and end 340 days later at the opening ceremony of the XIX commonwealth Games 2010 Delhi on 3 October 2010.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements regarding Direct
Tax Code :
1. In the Union Budget 2005-06, the Government had announced its intention to revise, simplify, rationalize and consolidate laws and procedure relating to direct taxes.
2. Direct tax include income tax, dividend distribution tax, fring benefit tax and wealth tax.
Which of the above statements is/ae correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. The Government has constituted a unique Identification Authority of India as an attached office under?
(a) Home Ministry
(b) Planning commission
(c) Prime Minister Office
(d) Human Resource Development Ministry
10. Consider the following statements :
1. Some 600 million Indians do not have access to electricity and about 700 million Indian use biomass as their primary energy resource for cooking and ensuring life line.
2. since India is short of uranium, the first phase plants cannot exceeds 10,000MW unless imported uranium is available.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. The Integrated Energy policy report is bought out by?
(a) Ministry of petroleum and Natural Gas.
(b) Ministry of power.
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(d) Planning Commission.
12. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Energy Security.
1. The Integrated energy policy report estimates
that in an 8% GDP growth Scenario, India’s total commercial energy requirments would be in the range of 1514mtoe (million tones of oil equivalen)t to 1856 Mtoe by 2031.
2. TERI estimates indicate an import dependency of 78% for coal, 91% for oil and 34% for gas by year 2031.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuti Karan Yojna (RGGVY).
(a) RGGVY was launched in 2005.
(b) It aim for electrification of about 1.15 lakh unelectrified villages.
(c) To provide free electricity connection to 2.34 crore Below Poverty House hold (BPL).
(d) The target year of achieving these targets is 2015.
14. Consider the following statements :
1. Lighting a Billion lives compaign aims to bring light into the live of one billion rural people by replacing the Kerosene and Paraffin lanterns with solar lighting devices.
2. Over 1.6 billion people in the World lac access to electricity, roughly 25% are in India alone.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements regarding biofuels in India.
1. In the National Biofuel policy the Government of India has set a target of a minimum 20% ethanol blended petrol and diesel across the country by 2017.
2. Biofuel development in India centers mainly around the cultivation and processing of Jatropha plant seeds to give biodiesel and producing ethanol from Sugarcane.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s forest cover accounts for 20.6% of the total geographical are of the country as of 2005.
2. Estimates show that the annual CO2 removals by India’s forest and tree cover is enough to neutralize 11.25% of India’s total GHG emissions (CO2 equivalent) at 1994 levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India has the 2nd largest arable land (184 million hectares) in the world.
(b) India also has the third largest irrigated land (55 million hectares) in the world.
(c) India is the largest producer of wheat (72 million tones) accounting for nearly 15% of global wheat production.
(d) India is also the largest producer of pulses (15 million tones) according for nearly 21% of global pulse production.
18. The largest livestock population in the world is in which country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) USA
19. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India is the largest producer of milk (90 million tones).
(b) India is the largest producer of tea, accounting for nearly 28% of the global tea production.
(c) India is the largest producer of rice (92 million tones) accounting for nearly 22% of global rice production.
(d) India is the second largest producer of fruits
(50 million tones) and vegetables (100 million tones).
20. Which country is the largest producer of world’s best basmati rice?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh
21. Consider the following statements.
1. India is the second largest producer of Sugarcane, accounting for nearly 21% of the global sugarcane production.
2. India is the largest producer and exporter of spices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Who was headed the National knowledge commission (NKC) that have dealt with various issues affecting the higher education system in the country?
(a) Sam Pitroda
(b) Professor Yashpal
(c) Kapil Sibbal
(d) Professor B. K. Pal
23. Consider the following statements.
1. Indian economy in terms of purchasing power parity with an equivalent GDP of US $3.666 trillion is the fourth largest economy in the world after USA, China and Japan.
2. In US dollar terms, it is the twelfth largest economy in the world.
3. The Indian economy is expected to grow with more than or about 5% growth till 2050 as projected by BRIC report.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
24. Consider the following statements :
1. Agriculture in India accounts for 52% of employment 12% of national export and 17.8% of GDP.
2. As per the 2001 census India has a BPL population of roughly 260 million and 300 million school droup out in the age group of 6 to 16.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
25. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the 11th five year plan document, only 2% existing workshop in India has skill training, while in Korea it is 90%.
2. Government has set a target of creating 500 million skilled person by 2022.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. Akshay 1. Karela
B. Bhoomi 2. Karnataka
C. Digital Gangetic Plane 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Drishtee 4. Haryana and Punjab
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
27. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. E-Choupal 1. Punjab
B. Gyandoot 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Rural e-seva 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. TARA haat 4. Karnataka
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
28. Consider the following statements :
1. Tourism sector accounts for 5.92% of India’s GDP, provides employment to 49.8 million people.
2. AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Sidha and Homeopathy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Sasan, Tilaiyadam and Krishnapatnam, Ultra Megha Power Project is constructed by which company?
(a) Reliance Power
(b) Tata Power
(c) NTPC
(d) NHPC
30. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Sasan 1. maharastra
B. Sunderharh 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Mundra 3. Gujrat
D. Girye 4. Orissa
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
31. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Tadri 1. Karnataka
B. Krishnapatnam 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Akal tara 3. Chattisgarh
Codes :
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2
32. Match the following :
List-I (E-Government List-II (State)
Project)
A. Akashganga 1. Maharastra
B. Tata Kisan Sansars 2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Gyandoot 3. Madhya pradesh
D. Lokmitra 4. Gujrat
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
33. Which company has the largest market share in the Indian mobile market?
(a) Bharti Airtel
(b) Vodafone
(c) Idea
(d) Reliance
34. In India the game of snakes and Ladders was created in the 13th century by?
(a) Poet Kalidas
(b) Saint Gyandev
(c) Poet Surdas
(d) Poet Tulsidas
35. Consider the following statements :
1. Governments has set a target for providing mobile coverage to 90% geographical area and setting up 500 million connections by the year 2010.
2. The India Telecommunication network with 430 million connection is the third largest in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (a)
2. (d) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (c)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (a)
4. (d) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (b)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. c)
6. (d) 16. (c) 26. (a)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (a)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (c)
9. (b) 19. (c) 29. (a)
10. (c) 20. (a) 30. (c)
1. India’s nuclear power generation is only about 1800 MW against an installed capacity of 4120 MW.
2. The present Indo-US Civil nuclear deal is valid for 40 years and extendable by another 10 years.
3. Out of its 22 operating /under construction nuclear facilities, India will place 14 under IAEA safeguard.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The Kyoto protocol has put in place three flexibility mechanisms to reduce emission of Green House Gases.
(b) The three mechanisms are joint implementation, Emissions Trading and Clean develoment.
(c) These three mechanism are based on the premise that reduction of emissions in any part of the globe will have the same desired effect on the atmosphere.
(d) None of the above
3. Consider the following statements :
1. The women’s reservation Bill (108th Amendment) a proposed legislation to reserve 33.3% of seats in Parliament and State legislature for women.
2. In case of seats reserved for SC-ST candidates, 33.3% would have to be reserved for women.
3. The reservation of seats is proposed to be on rotation basis, which means that the 33% seats reserved in one election would lease to be reserved in the next election.
4. The provision for reservation is proposed to be in place for 15 years.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
4. Consider the following statements :
1. Human Development Index is composed from statistics for life expectancy, education and standard of living.
2. These were devised and launched by pakistani Economist Mahbub-ul in 1990.
3. Human Poverty Index-1 represents a multidimensional alternative to the $1.25 a day poverty measure.
4. The millennium Development Goals(MDGs) are eight turnaround goals that provide concrete, numerical benchmarks for tackling extreme poverty in its many dimensions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above
5. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Nuclear Liability Bill 2010?
(a) The nuclear liability Bill 2010 is introduce to define nuclear incidents and nuclear damage, nuclear fuel, material and nuclear installations and also operators of nuclear installations.
(b) It creates authorities who will assess claims and distribute compensation in case of nuclear damage.
(c) The Bill States that the total liability for nuclear incident shall not exceed the rupee equivalent of 300 million special Drawing Rights (Approximately Rs. 2100 crore at current exchange rates.)
(d) The nuclear damage claims commission would be chaired by prime minister of India.
6. Consider the following statements regarding
Common Wealth Games :
1. The Commonwealth Games are a unique, world class, multi-sport event held once every four years amongst the member countries and territories of the Commonwealth.
2. The three core value of the commonwealth games are humanity, equality and destiny.
3. The Commonwealth Games Federation has 71 member nations and territories called Commonwealth Games Association which include India.
4. The Commonwealth Games formerly known as the British Empire Games, were first held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
7. Consider the following statements regarding Commonwealth Games :
1. Queen’s Baton Relay is first started in 1958 in Cardiff, Wales and has since then been the curtain raiser to every Commonwealth Game.
2. The Queens Baton Relay 2010 Delhi started from Buckingham Palace on 29 October, 2009 and end 340 days later at the opening ceremony of the XIX commonwealth Games 2010 Delhi on 3 October 2010.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements regarding Direct
Tax Code :
1. In the Union Budget 2005-06, the Government had announced its intention to revise, simplify, rationalize and consolidate laws and procedure relating to direct taxes.
2. Direct tax include income tax, dividend distribution tax, fring benefit tax and wealth tax.
Which of the above statements is/ae correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. The Government has constituted a unique Identification Authority of India as an attached office under?
(a) Home Ministry
(b) Planning commission
(c) Prime Minister Office
(d) Human Resource Development Ministry
10. Consider the following statements :
1. Some 600 million Indians do not have access to electricity and about 700 million Indian use biomass as their primary energy resource for cooking and ensuring life line.
2. since India is short of uranium, the first phase plants cannot exceeds 10,000MW unless imported uranium is available.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. The Integrated Energy policy report is bought out by?
(a) Ministry of petroleum and Natural Gas.
(b) Ministry of power.
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(d) Planning Commission.
12. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Energy Security.
1. The Integrated energy policy report estimates
that in an 8% GDP growth Scenario, India’s total commercial energy requirments would be in the range of 1514mtoe (million tones of oil equivalen)t to 1856 Mtoe by 2031.
2. TERI estimates indicate an import dependency of 78% for coal, 91% for oil and 34% for gas by year 2031.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuti Karan Yojna (RGGVY).
(a) RGGVY was launched in 2005.
(b) It aim for electrification of about 1.15 lakh unelectrified villages.
(c) To provide free electricity connection to 2.34 crore Below Poverty House hold (BPL).
(d) The target year of achieving these targets is 2015.
14. Consider the following statements :
1. Lighting a Billion lives compaign aims to bring light into the live of one billion rural people by replacing the Kerosene and Paraffin lanterns with solar lighting devices.
2. Over 1.6 billion people in the World lac access to electricity, roughly 25% are in India alone.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements regarding biofuels in India.
1. In the National Biofuel policy the Government of India has set a target of a minimum 20% ethanol blended petrol and diesel across the country by 2017.
2. Biofuel development in India centers mainly around the cultivation and processing of Jatropha plant seeds to give biodiesel and producing ethanol from Sugarcane.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s forest cover accounts for 20.6% of the total geographical are of the country as of 2005.
2. Estimates show that the annual CO2 removals by India’s forest and tree cover is enough to neutralize 11.25% of India’s total GHG emissions (CO2 equivalent) at 1994 levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India has the 2nd largest arable land (184 million hectares) in the world.
(b) India also has the third largest irrigated land (55 million hectares) in the world.
(c) India is the largest producer of wheat (72 million tones) accounting for nearly 15% of global wheat production.
(d) India is also the largest producer of pulses (15 million tones) according for nearly 21% of global pulse production.
18. The largest livestock population in the world is in which country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) USA
19. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India is the largest producer of milk (90 million tones).
(b) India is the largest producer of tea, accounting for nearly 28% of the global tea production.
(c) India is the largest producer of rice (92 million tones) accounting for nearly 22% of global rice production.
(d) India is the second largest producer of fruits
(50 million tones) and vegetables (100 million tones).
20. Which country is the largest producer of world’s best basmati rice?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh
21. Consider the following statements.
1. India is the second largest producer of Sugarcane, accounting for nearly 21% of the global sugarcane production.
2. India is the largest producer and exporter of spices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Who was headed the National knowledge commission (NKC) that have dealt with various issues affecting the higher education system in the country?
(a) Sam Pitroda
(b) Professor Yashpal
(c) Kapil Sibbal
(d) Professor B. K. Pal
23. Consider the following statements.
1. Indian economy in terms of purchasing power parity with an equivalent GDP of US $3.666 trillion is the fourth largest economy in the world after USA, China and Japan.
2. In US dollar terms, it is the twelfth largest economy in the world.
3. The Indian economy is expected to grow with more than or about 5% growth till 2050 as projected by BRIC report.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
24. Consider the following statements :
1. Agriculture in India accounts for 52% of employment 12% of national export and 17.8% of GDP.
2. As per the 2001 census India has a BPL population of roughly 260 million and 300 million school droup out in the age group of 6 to 16.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
25. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the 11th five year plan document, only 2% existing workshop in India has skill training, while in Korea it is 90%.
2. Government has set a target of creating 500 million skilled person by 2022.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. Akshay 1. Karela
B. Bhoomi 2. Karnataka
C. Digital Gangetic Plane 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Drishtee 4. Haryana and Punjab
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
27. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. E-Choupal 1. Punjab
B. Gyandoot 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Rural e-seva 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. TARA haat 4. Karnataka
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
28. Consider the following statements :
1. Tourism sector accounts for 5.92% of India’s GDP, provides employment to 49.8 million people.
2. AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Sidha and Homeopathy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Sasan, Tilaiyadam and Krishnapatnam, Ultra Megha Power Project is constructed by which company?
(a) Reliance Power
(b) Tata Power
(c) NTPC
(d) NHPC
30. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Sasan 1. maharastra
B. Sunderharh 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Mundra 3. Gujrat
D. Girye 4. Orissa
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
31. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Tadri 1. Karnataka
B. Krishnapatnam 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Akal tara 3. Chattisgarh
Codes :
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2
32. Match the following :
List-I (E-Government List-II (State)
Project)
A. Akashganga 1. Maharastra
B. Tata Kisan Sansars 2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Gyandoot 3. Madhya pradesh
D. Lokmitra 4. Gujrat
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
33. Which company has the largest market share in the Indian mobile market?
(a) Bharti Airtel
(b) Vodafone
(c) Idea
(d) Reliance
34. In India the game of snakes and Ladders was created in the 13th century by?
(a) Poet Kalidas
(b) Saint Gyandev
(c) Poet Surdas
(d) Poet Tulsidas
35. Consider the following statements :
1. Governments has set a target for providing mobile coverage to 90% geographical area and setting up 500 million connections by the year 2010.
2. The India Telecommunication network with 430 million connection is the third largest in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (a)
2. (d) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (c)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (a)
4. (d) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (b)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. c)
6. (d) 16. (c) 26. (a)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (a)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (c)
9. (b) 19. (c) 29. (a)
10. (c) 20. (a) 30. (c)
Monday, October 3, 2011
CURRENT AFFAIRS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR APPSC GROUP-II
1. Consider the following statements :
1. The yonex- sunrise Indian open badminton Grand prix Gold was held in Chennai.
2. 19 countries are participating in the tournament, carrying a prize money of $ 150000.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements :
1. Vishwanathan Anand retained the FIDE World Chess championship, defeating BulgarianVeselin Topalov.
2. Anand become the undisputed World Chess champion after winning an eight player tournament in 2007.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar won his first ever Gold Medal in the Asian Wrestling held in New Delhi.
2. Sushil won the bronze medal in the Olympic game of 2008.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements :
1. India and Pakistan were declared joint Champions of the Sultan Azlan Shah hockey tourament after the final was abandoned due to rain.
2. The sultan Azlan Shah hockey tournament was first started in 1983 in Indonesia.
Which of the above statements is/areincorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafal Nadal beat Roger Federer to win the Madrid Masters.
2. Nadal collected his 18th Career Masters 1000 title, one more than Adre Agassi and two ahead of Federer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Rafal Nadal won the French Open by defeating Robin Sodeling.
(b) Nadal has won the title fifth time, this has put him second on the all time list of French open winners, one behind Bjorn Borg.
(c) It was also first time he had won the French open title without dropping a set.
(d) In men’s doubles Daniel Mestor and Nenad Zimonjic beat Leander paes and Lukas Dlouhy.
7. With regard to African World Cup history. Which was the first of Africa’s team to appear in the FIFA World Cup?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Tunisia
(c) Egypt
(d) Morocco
8. Which player is not only the best ever scorer with 15 goals but also the player who has scored in the
most number of matches, 11.
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Ronaldinio
(c) Jurgan Klinsmann
(d) Kocksis
9. Consider the following statements :
1. Brazil have won the world cups highest number of times that is 19. After that Italy and Germany in 17 and Argentina in 15.
2. In the 2010 FIFA World Cup Slovakia was the only debutant country which participated in the tournament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Who won the $ 120000 Yonex sunrise India open Grand prix gold badminton championships?
(a) Saina Nehwal
(b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Ashwini Pannapa
(d) Choo Wong mew
11. Consider the following statements :
1. Saina Nehwal completed a spectacular hat-trick of titles by Clinching the Indonesia open super series.
2. Before clinching the Indonesia open super series, she won the Indian open grand prix and then the Singapore open super series.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) Sharad Pawer assumed office as president of International Cricket Council (ICC) at its annual conference in Singapore.
(b) Mr. Sharad Pawer succeeded Mr. David Morgan.
(c) Mr. Pawer is only the second Indian, after Jagmohan Dalmiya to have become the highest executive of the World Cricket body.
(d) He became the 5th President of the ICC for a two year term.
13. Which player have won the $ 1.5 million women singles title at Wimbledon?
(a) Venus Williams
(b) Serena Williams
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Kristyna Pliskova
14. Who won the Wimbeldon men’s single title?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Tomas Berdych
(c) Marton Fucsonics
(d) Benjamin Mitchell
15. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related Fields)
A. Deepak Mondal 1. Swimming
B. Krishna Poonia 2. Athelets
C. Sandeep Singh 3. Foot Baller
D. Rehan Poncha 4. Hockey
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
16. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Jhulan Goswami 1. Boxing
B. Jagseer Singh 2. Yachting
C. Sanjeev Rajput 3. Aralympics
D. Dinesh Kumar 4. Shooting
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
17. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Satish Pal 1. Athletics
B. Kuldeep Singh 2. Wrestling
C. Anita Chanu 3. Weight Lifting
Codes :
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3
18. Which state has won the 64th Senior National football championship ?
(a) Punjab
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
19. Who vbecame the first Indian and just the sixth- Asian born player to win on the PGA Tour at the wyndham championship?
(a) Arjun Atwal
(b) Vivek Inamdar
(c) Rahul Deshraj
(d) Non of the above
20. Which country has won the women’s hockey world Cup ?
(a) Netherland
(b) Argentina
(c) England
(d) Australia
21. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar becoming the first Indian to win a world wrestling championship gold medal
2. Sushil already hold’s the Asian and commonwealth titles.
Which of the above Statement is/are in correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. The world Squash Federation (WSF) has decided to revive the squash world cup after a lapse of more than a decade. Last held in Eqypt in 1999, the next edition will be held in 2011 in ?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chennai
(d) Hydrabad.
23. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafael Nadal has completed a career Grand slam title by winning his first US open crown.
2. Nadal became the seventh man to complete a career Grand slam by wining wimbledon and the US, French and Australian open titles.
3. After winning wimbledon and the French open, Nadal joined Federer, Laver and Pete Sampras as the only man to win three slams in a row in the open era that began in 1968.
4. Presently Nadal is the world No 1 men tennis player.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 3, and 4
(b) 2, and 4,
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
24. Which Indian Player has been chosnen by the International Cricket Council as its ambassadors for the year 2010-11 ?
(a) Mahendar Singh Dhoni
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Virender Sehwag
25. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil kumar Presented the Queen’s baton that had traversed 190,000 kilometres, to prince charles who declared the Games open.
2. Jacques Rogge is the present president of the International olympic Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Non of the above
26. Who have won the India’s first ever medal in the
20km walks in the common wealth Games history.
(a) Ravinder Singh
(b) Katulu Ravi Kumar
(c) Harminder Singh
(d) Sanjay Kumar
27. Consider the following statements :
1. Fifty two years after the great Milkha Singh gave the Country its first triumph in Cardiff,Krishna Poonia brought its second gold inthe women’s discuss.
2. With harwant kaour and Seema Antil taking the Silver and bronze, India Celebrated its first sweep of all medals in Common wealth Games history
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Who become world no. 1 golf player after a long Tiger wood’s five year reign ?
(a) Lee west wood
(b) Martin Kaymer
(c) Dammy Abogunloko.
(d) Lee-Tsen-Tang.
29. World No. 1 tennis player Rafael Nadal of spain inaugurated the Rafael Ndal Tennis Academy at the
Rural Development Trust (RDT) in ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Anantpur
(d) Pune
30. Who is the present No 1 women tennis player ?
(a) Coroline Wozniacki.
(b) Kim Clijsters.
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Sercna Williams.
31. Which of the statement is incorrect
1. Virdhawal Khade won India’s first medal in swimming after a gap of 24 years in the Asian Games.
2. Khan Singh had won the last swimming medal for India, a silver at the 1986 Asian Games in Seoul.
3. The only gold for Indian Swimming had come through Sachin Nag in the inaugural edition of the Asiad in Delhi in 1951,
4. Virdhawal Khade won the medal in the 200m butterfly event.
32. Consider the following statements :
1. Somdev Devvarman won India’s first gold medal in Asian Games tennis Singles.
2. This is the first time Since Japan’s Toshiro Sakai in the 1974 Tehran Asiad that a player has
swept both Singles and doubles gold’s at the same games.
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. The 16th Asian Games was held in ?
(a) Shanghai
(b) Beijing
(c) Guanghou
(d) Zhanjiang
34. Where was the world youth chess championship
held, Indian won three Silver and three bronze
medals in that championship.
(a) Tirana (Albania)
(b) Nis (Serbia)
(c) Por to Carras (Greece)
(d) Bern (Switzerland)
35. Consider the following statements :
1. Indian Poultry giant Venkateshwara Hatcheris has become the first Indian group to own any English Premier league.
2. They have won the English Premier League footbal club Liver pool.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c)
3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (c)
4. (d) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (c)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (a)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c)
7. (c) 17. (a) 27. (c)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (a)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c)
10. (a) 20. (b) 30. (a)
1. The yonex- sunrise Indian open badminton Grand prix Gold was held in Chennai.
2. 19 countries are participating in the tournament, carrying a prize money of $ 150000.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements :
1. Vishwanathan Anand retained the FIDE World Chess championship, defeating BulgarianVeselin Topalov.
2. Anand become the undisputed World Chess champion after winning an eight player tournament in 2007.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar won his first ever Gold Medal in the Asian Wrestling held in New Delhi.
2. Sushil won the bronze medal in the Olympic game of 2008.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements :
1. India and Pakistan were declared joint Champions of the Sultan Azlan Shah hockey tourament after the final was abandoned due to rain.
2. The sultan Azlan Shah hockey tournament was first started in 1983 in Indonesia.
Which of the above statements is/areincorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafal Nadal beat Roger Federer to win the Madrid Masters.
2. Nadal collected his 18th Career Masters 1000 title, one more than Adre Agassi and two ahead of Federer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Rafal Nadal won the French Open by defeating Robin Sodeling.
(b) Nadal has won the title fifth time, this has put him second on the all time list of French open winners, one behind Bjorn Borg.
(c) It was also first time he had won the French open title without dropping a set.
(d) In men’s doubles Daniel Mestor and Nenad Zimonjic beat Leander paes and Lukas Dlouhy.
7. With regard to African World Cup history. Which was the first of Africa’s team to appear in the FIFA World Cup?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Tunisia
(c) Egypt
(d) Morocco
8. Which player is not only the best ever scorer with 15 goals but also the player who has scored in the
most number of matches, 11.
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Ronaldinio
(c) Jurgan Klinsmann
(d) Kocksis
9. Consider the following statements :
1. Brazil have won the world cups highest number of times that is 19. After that Italy and Germany in 17 and Argentina in 15.
2. In the 2010 FIFA World Cup Slovakia was the only debutant country which participated in the tournament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Who won the $ 120000 Yonex sunrise India open Grand prix gold badminton championships?
(a) Saina Nehwal
(b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Ashwini Pannapa
(d) Choo Wong mew
11. Consider the following statements :
1. Saina Nehwal completed a spectacular hat-trick of titles by Clinching the Indonesia open super series.
2. Before clinching the Indonesia open super series, she won the Indian open grand prix and then the Singapore open super series.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) Sharad Pawer assumed office as president of International Cricket Council (ICC) at its annual conference in Singapore.
(b) Mr. Sharad Pawer succeeded Mr. David Morgan.
(c) Mr. Pawer is only the second Indian, after Jagmohan Dalmiya to have become the highest executive of the World Cricket body.
(d) He became the 5th President of the ICC for a two year term.
13. Which player have won the $ 1.5 million women singles title at Wimbledon?
(a) Venus Williams
(b) Serena Williams
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Kristyna Pliskova
14. Who won the Wimbeldon men’s single title?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Tomas Berdych
(c) Marton Fucsonics
(d) Benjamin Mitchell
15. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related Fields)
A. Deepak Mondal 1. Swimming
B. Krishna Poonia 2. Athelets
C. Sandeep Singh 3. Foot Baller
D. Rehan Poncha 4. Hockey
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
16. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Jhulan Goswami 1. Boxing
B. Jagseer Singh 2. Yachting
C. Sanjeev Rajput 3. Aralympics
D. Dinesh Kumar 4. Shooting
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
17. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Satish Pal 1. Athletics
B. Kuldeep Singh 2. Wrestling
C. Anita Chanu 3. Weight Lifting
Codes :
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3
18. Which state has won the 64th Senior National football championship ?
(a) Punjab
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
19. Who vbecame the first Indian and just the sixth- Asian born player to win on the PGA Tour at the wyndham championship?
(a) Arjun Atwal
(b) Vivek Inamdar
(c) Rahul Deshraj
(d) Non of the above
20. Which country has won the women’s hockey world Cup ?
(a) Netherland
(b) Argentina
(c) England
(d) Australia
21. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar becoming the first Indian to win a world wrestling championship gold medal
2. Sushil already hold’s the Asian and commonwealth titles.
Which of the above Statement is/are in correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. The world Squash Federation (WSF) has decided to revive the squash world cup after a lapse of more than a decade. Last held in Eqypt in 1999, the next edition will be held in 2011 in ?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chennai
(d) Hydrabad.
23. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafael Nadal has completed a career Grand slam title by winning his first US open crown.
2. Nadal became the seventh man to complete a career Grand slam by wining wimbledon and the US, French and Australian open titles.
3. After winning wimbledon and the French open, Nadal joined Federer, Laver and Pete Sampras as the only man to win three slams in a row in the open era that began in 1968.
4. Presently Nadal is the world No 1 men tennis player.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 3, and 4
(b) 2, and 4,
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
24. Which Indian Player has been chosnen by the International Cricket Council as its ambassadors for the year 2010-11 ?
(a) Mahendar Singh Dhoni
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Virender Sehwag
25. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil kumar Presented the Queen’s baton that had traversed 190,000 kilometres, to prince charles who declared the Games open.
2. Jacques Rogge is the present president of the International olympic Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Non of the above
26. Who have won the India’s first ever medal in the
20km walks in the common wealth Games history.
(a) Ravinder Singh
(b) Katulu Ravi Kumar
(c) Harminder Singh
(d) Sanjay Kumar
27. Consider the following statements :
1. Fifty two years after the great Milkha Singh gave the Country its first triumph in Cardiff,Krishna Poonia brought its second gold inthe women’s discuss.
2. With harwant kaour and Seema Antil taking the Silver and bronze, India Celebrated its first sweep of all medals in Common wealth Games history
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Who become world no. 1 golf player after a long Tiger wood’s five year reign ?
(a) Lee west wood
(b) Martin Kaymer
(c) Dammy Abogunloko.
(d) Lee-Tsen-Tang.
29. World No. 1 tennis player Rafael Nadal of spain inaugurated the Rafael Ndal Tennis Academy at the
Rural Development Trust (RDT) in ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Anantpur
(d) Pune
30. Who is the present No 1 women tennis player ?
(a) Coroline Wozniacki.
(b) Kim Clijsters.
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Sercna Williams.
31. Which of the statement is incorrect
1. Virdhawal Khade won India’s first medal in swimming after a gap of 24 years in the Asian Games.
2. Khan Singh had won the last swimming medal for India, a silver at the 1986 Asian Games in Seoul.
3. The only gold for Indian Swimming had come through Sachin Nag in the inaugural edition of the Asiad in Delhi in 1951,
4. Virdhawal Khade won the medal in the 200m butterfly event.
32. Consider the following statements :
1. Somdev Devvarman won India’s first gold medal in Asian Games tennis Singles.
2. This is the first time Since Japan’s Toshiro Sakai in the 1974 Tehran Asiad that a player has
swept both Singles and doubles gold’s at the same games.
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. The 16th Asian Games was held in ?
(a) Shanghai
(b) Beijing
(c) Guanghou
(d) Zhanjiang
34. Where was the world youth chess championship
held, Indian won three Silver and three bronze
medals in that championship.
(a) Tirana (Albania)
(b) Nis (Serbia)
(c) Por to Carras (Greece)
(d) Bern (Switzerland)
35. Consider the following statements :
1. Indian Poultry giant Venkateshwara Hatcheris has become the first Indian group to own any English Premier league.
2. They have won the English Premier League footbal club Liver pool.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c)
3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (c)
4. (d) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (c)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (a)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c)
7. (c) 17. (a) 27. (c)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (a)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c)
10. (a) 20. (b) 30. (a)
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