Tuesday, June 21, 2011
Monday, June 20, 2011
ISRO prepares first national inventory of wetlands
A detailed national inventory of wetlands has been prepared on the basis of satellite imagery by ISRO, highlighting areas of critical ecological significance and those which are facing extreme threat due to developmental activities.
This is for the first time in India that the city-based Space Application Centre (SAC), a part of ISRO, has prepared such an inventory and atlas of all the wetlands that exists in the country.
“Wetlands are the most productive ecosystems which play crucial role in hydrological cycle like helping in storm and flood control, water supply, providing food, fibre and raw materials and in recreational benefits,” said SAC Director Dr. Ranganth R. Navalgund.
They also support lakhs of migratory birds coming from colder regions of the world in summers, apart from diverse local flora and fauna.
“However, the very existence of these unique resources is under threat due to developmental activities and population pressure. This calls for long-term planning for preservation and conservation of these resources,” Mr. Navalgund said.
“Creating an updated and accurate database that supports research and decision making is the first step towards this.
SAC took up this challenging task under the project National Wetland Inventory and Assessment (NWIA) sponsored by Ministry of Environment and Forests,” he said.
“Two-date, satellite data acquired during pre and post-monsoon seasons are used for inventory of wet and dry season hydrology of wetlands. They have been categorised in 19 classes and mapped following standard map projection. The map outputs include status of water spread, aquatic vegetation and turbidity,” Mr. Navalgund said.
As per the finding of SAC study, excluding rivers, wetlands cover some 10 million hectares, or a little over three percent of the country’s geographical area. Of this 10 million hectares, reservoirs account for about 2.5 million hectares, inter-tidal mud flats for 2.4 million hectares, tanks for 1.3 million hectares, lakes/ponds for 0.70 million hectares, mangroves for some 0.47 million hectares and corals for about 0.14 million hectares.
The main objective of the project were wetland mapping and inventory at 1:50,000 scale resolution by analysis of digital satellite data of post and pre-monsoon seasons, creation of digital database in GIS environment and preparation of state-wise wetland atlases.
State wise distribution of wetlands showed that Lakshadweep has 96.12 per cent of geographic area under wetlands followed by Andaman and Nicobar Islands (18.52 per cent), Damand and Diu (18.46 per cent) and Gujarat (17.56 per cent) have highest extent of wetlands.
Puducherry (12.88 per cent), West Bengal (12.48 per cent), Assam (9.74 per cent) are wetland-rich States. States like Mizoram, Haryana, Delhi Sikkim, Nagaland and Meghalaya the extents of wetland is less than 1.5 per cent.
The inventory said, India has long coast line and large area under coastal wetlands like inter-tidal, mudflat, lagoon and creek.
The inventory has also mapped high altitude lakes lying above 3,000 meter elevation. The Indian Himalayas cover almost 18 per cent of India’s land surface and is spread over six states, which have 4703 lakes above 3,000 meter elevation.
This includes 1996 small lakes. The total area of these lakes is 1.26 lakh hectares.
Saturday, June 18, 2011
Should water be moved to Concurrent List?
The Union Ministry of Water Resources has for long been arguing for a shift of water to the Concurrent List without any serious expectation of its happening, but has now begun to pursue the idea more actively. The Ashok Chawla committee, which was primarily concerned with the question of rationalising the allocation of natural resources with a view to reducing the scope for corruption, was reported by the media to have recommended inter alia the shifting of water to the Concurrent List. There seems to be no such specific recommendation in the draft of the Committee's report that one has seen, but the possibility is referred to in the text and there is an Annexe on the subject. These developments have revived the old debate.
Let us first be clear about the present constitutional position in relation to water. The general impression is that in India water is a State subject, but the position is not quite so simple. The primary entry in the Constitution relating to water is indeed Entry 17 in the State List, but it is explicitly made subject to the provisions of Entry 56 in the Union List which enables the Union to deal with inter-State rivers if Parliament legislates for the purpose. This means that if Parliament considers it “expedient in the public interest” that the “regulation and development” of an inter-State river, say the Ganga or Yamuna or Narmada, should be “under the control of the Union”, it can enact a law to that effect, and that law will give the Union legislative (and therefore executive) powers over that river. That enabling provision has not been used by Parliament. No law has been passed bringing any river under the control of the Union. Under Entry 56, Parliament did enact the River Boards Act 1956 providing for the establishment of River Boards for inter-State rivers, but no such board has been established under the Act. That Act is virtually a dead letter. The reasons are political, i.e., strong resistance by State governments to any enhancement of the role of the Central government.
Is the present constitutional division of legislative power relating to water between the Union and the States satisfactory? The Centre does not think so. None of the Commissions that has gone into the subject so far has recommended a change, largely because it seemed unrealistic. (The Sarkaria Commission thought that a change was unnecessary.)
The present writer had earlier argued against a move to shift water to the Concurrent List on two grounds. First, a move to put water into the Concurrent List at this stage will be generally regarded as a retrograde step that runs counter to the general trend towards decentralisation and enhanced federalism, and it will face serious political difficulty because there will be stout opposition from the States. Secondly, an entry in the Concurrent List will mean that both the Centre and the States can legislate on water, but the Centre can already do so in respect of inter-State rivers under Entry 56 but has not used that power. It seemed sensible to use that enabling provision, and also re-activate the River Boards Act, rather than pursue the difficult idea of a constitutional amendment to bring water on to the Concurrent List.
It will be seen that the above arguments against pursuing the idea of moving water to the Concurrent List are practical ones: the political difficulty of doing so, and the fact that the Centre can do certain things even without such a shift. That does not amount to a statement that there is no case for the shift. Let us ignore political and practical considerations, and ask: if the Constitution were being drafted for the first time now, where would one put water? The obvious and incontrovertible answer is: in the Concurrent List. There are several reasons for saying so.
First, it appears that to the Constitution-makers ‘water' meant essentially river waters and irrigation. This is quite evident from the wording of the entries. In that context, it might have appeared appropriate to assign the primary role to the States, and provide a specific role for the Centre in relation to inter-State rivers. However, even from that limited perspective, a primary rather than a secondary or exceptional role for the Centre might well have been warranted: most of our important rivers are in fact inter-State, and inter-State (or inter-provincial) river water disputes were an old and vexed problem even at the time of drafting the Constitution.
Secondly, that limited perspective is in fact inadequate. Water as a subject is larger than rivers; ponds and lakes, springs, groundwater aquifers, glaciers, soil and atmospheric moisture, wetlands, and so on, are all forms of water and constitute a hydrological unity; and there is more to water than irrigation. If the environmental, ecological, social/human, and rights concerns relating to water had been as sharply present to the makers of the Constitution as they are to us, it seems very probable that the entries in the Constitution would have been different. (Incidentally, there are serious concerns now relating to groundwater — rapid depletion of aquifers in many parts of the country, the emergence of arsenic and fluoride in many States, etc. — and it is interesting that there is no explicit reference to groundwater or aquifers in the Constitution.)
Thirdly, the Constitution-makers could not have anticipated the sense of water scarcity and crisis that now looms large. It is clear that while action will be called for at the State and local levels, the perception of a crisis casts a great responsibility on the Centre: national initiatives will definitely be called for.
Fourthly, a new factor not foreseen even a few decades ago is climate change and its impact on water resources. This is a subject which is still under study and research, but it is clear that coordinated action will be called for not only at the national level but also at the regional and international levels. The Central government has necessarily to play a lead role in this regard.
The theoretical case for water being in the Concurrent List is thus unassailable. Of all the subjects that are or ought to be in the Concurrent List, water ranks higher than any other. The practical and political difficulties of shifting it there remain, but these would need to be overcome.
However, if those difficulties prove insuperable, then we have to settle for the second best course (a modest one) of greater use by the Centre of the legislative powers relating to inter-State rivers provided for in Entry 56 in the Union List, and re-activation of the dormant River Boards Act 1956. It would further have to be supplemented by recourse to the wide-ranging provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA). It is of course possible for Parliament to legislate on a State subject if a certain number of State assemblies pass resolutions to that effect: that was the route followed in the case of the Water (Control and Prevention of Pollution) Act 1974.
At present, the EPA is being extensively used by the Centre for water-related action. For instance, the Central Groundwater Authority was set up in 1998 by a notification under the EPA. More recently, when it was considered necessary to set up a National Ganga River Basin Authority this was done under the EPA, instead of following the right but difficult course of enacting legislation under Entry 56.
Finally, putting water into the Concurrent List is not necessarily an act of centralisation, though it could lead to such a development. That danger is real and needs to be avoided. Legislation and executive action must continue to be undertaken at the appropriate level (Central, State or local) in each case. The subsidiarity principle, i.e., the principle that decisions must be taken at the lowest appropriate level, will continue to be valid.
Friday, June 17, 2011
CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs
1. United Nations Climate Change Conference 2010 is officially referred to as the … session of the Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
a. 18th
b. 17th
c. 16th
d. 15th
2. Neutrino Observatory (INO) project is located near which of the following hills?
a. Anamalai Hills
b. Nilgiri Hills
c. Khasi Hills
d. Patkai Hills
3. Where was fi rst the Asia–Europe Meeting (ASEM) summit held?
a. Thailand
b. Malaysia
c. India
d. Pakistan
4. Who has been awarded the Nobel Prize for medicine 2010?
a. Richard Heck
b. Ei-ichi Negishi
c. Akira Suzuki
d. Robert Edwards
5. Ajay Jayaram is a well known … player.
a. Badminton
b. Golf
c. Tennis
d. Hockey
6. Toxic red sludge, a waste product from making which metal, burst out of a Hungarian factory’s reservoir reached Danube River of Europe?
a. Copper
b. Aluminum
c. Lithium
d. Rubidium
7. Who authored Aunt Julia and the Scriptwriter?
a. Ruskin Bond
b. Mario Vargas
c. Jonathan
d. None of these
8. Suresh Tendulkar is associated with …
a. Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
b. Telecom Regulatory Au- thority of India
c. UN
d. None of these
9. Omkar Singh and Anisa Sayyed are associated with which of the following games?
a. Hockey
b. Basketball
c. Shooting
d. Cricket
10. With which company would you associate Partha S. Bhattacharyya?
a. Coal India Limited
b. NTPC
c. IOC
d. Bharat Electronics Limited
11. Robert Edwards shares an association with?
a. Physics
b. Chemistry
c. Biology
d. Mathematics
12. The total number of medals that India has won in Common Wealth Games 2010 is …
a. 101
b. 102
c. 103
d. 105
13. Which of the following is a Tennis Player?
a. Dan Carter
b. Greg Jones
c. Johnny Weissmuller
d. None of these
14. H. R. Bhardwaj is the governor of …
a. Karnataka
b. Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andra Pradesh
15. Who has been awarded the Nobel Economics Prize2010?
a. Peter Granger
b. Jilly Cooper
c. Dale Mortensen
d. None of these
16. Jaitapur nuclear power plant is in which city?
a. Ratnagiri
b. Nagpur
c. Pune
d. Mumbai
17. Russian Prime Minister Vladimir Putin fl agged off the construction of which space centre?
a. Vostochny Space Center
b. Vladimir Space Center
c. Hioto Space Center
d. None of these
18. Who is the State Chief Information Commissioner of Chennai?
a. Hiren Singh
b. R. K. Narayan
c. Vinod Joshi
d. K. S. Sripathi
19. Who is known as the “Father of the Green Revolution in India”?
a. Norman Ernest Borlaug
b. M. S. Swaminathan
c. J. S. Thomson
d. None of these
20. Burning Bright: Irom Sharmila and the Struggle for Peace in Manipur has been written by …
a. Arundhati Ray
b. Deepti Priya Mehrotra
c. Shivani Jain
d. None of these
21. South Korean Pohang-class cor-vette sank because of which of the following torpedoes?
a. Wang Geon
b. Ulchi Mundok
c. Cheonan
d. None of these
22. Naoto Kan, the Prime Minister of Japan was preceded by …
a. Yukio Hatoyama
b. Yon Ki
c. Chiang Zell
d. Yukoto Ziang
23. Srikumar Banerjee is associated with which of the following?
a. Atomic Energy Commission
b. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre
c. Defence Research And Development Organisation
d. None of these
24. Who built the Brihadishwara Temple?
a. Rajaraja
b. Vengi
c. Rajendra Chola
d. None of these
25. Sutlej River originates from?
a. India
b. China
c. Pakistan
d. None of these
26. Pallavan Double Plus and Pallavan Muthusaram RD are deposit schemes that belong to …
a. Indian Bank
b. Bank of Baroda
c. State Bank of India
d. Allahabad Bank
27. Indian Constituent Assembly adopted the design of Indian National flag on?
a. August 23, 1947
b. September 13, 1947
c. August 15, 1947
d. July 22, 1947
28. The Indian National Anthem was sung for the fi rst time in …
a. 1910
b. 1911
c. 1947
d. 1945
29. National fruit of India is?
a. Apple
b. Sugarcane
c. Orange
d. Mango
30. When was the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution adopted?
a. 1970
b. 1972
c. 1974
d. 1976
31. Who elects the Vice President of India?
a. Members of Parliament
b. Members of Lok Sabha
c. Only b
d. Both a and b
32. Department of Agricultural Research and Education comes under the Ministry of …
a. Commerce and Industry
b. Agriculture
c. Commerce and Industry
d. Food Processing Industries
33. An insurance plan, ‘JiyoFit’, has been launched by …
a. HDFC standard life
b. Bharti AXA
c. LIC
d. Bajaj Allianz
34. Where is the National Institute of Smart Government located?
a. Hyderabad
b. Mumbai
c. Pune
d. Chennai
35. Defender Z+ is a …
a. Locker
b. Fighter plane
c. Car
d. Motorbike
36. Asia’s 1st EPZ was set up at …
a. Kandla
b. Delhi
c. Falta
d. Noida
37. In which year was the Integrated Defence Staff formed?
a. 1959
b. 1961
c. 1981
d. 2001
38. How many Integrated Test Ranges does DRDO have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
39. The Integrated Education for Disabled Children scheme was launched in …
a. 1954
b. 1965
c. 1974
d. 1991
40. When was the Rural Electrifi -cation Corporation Limited incorporated as a Company under Companies Act, 1956?
a. 1969
b. 1971
c. 1989
d. 1991
41. Fort William is located in …
a. Chennai
b. Goa
c. Kolkata
d. Mysore
42. The Indian Tennis player who turned to Hollywood filmmaking is …
a. Leander Paes
b. N. Night Shyamlan
c. Vijay Amritraj
d. Ashok Amritraj
43. Tritum is an isotope of …
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Phosphorous
44. In which country would you buy things using Lira?
a. Germany
b. Italy
c. USA
d. Myanmar
45. What does the acronym cc in an email mean?
a. Character conversion
b. Column code
c. Carbon Copy
d. Computer control
46. “Love” is associated with which of the following games?
a. Tennis
b. Horse riding
c. Lawn ball
d. Billiards
47. Which country will host the Commonwealth Games 2014?
a. Australia
b. Srilanka
c. Scotland
d. Canada
48. The Vrindavan Gardens are located in…
a. Mathura
b. Manali
c. Mysore
d. Mohali
49. For measuring the diameter of a thin wire, you would use …
a. Screw driver
b. Screw gauge
c. Screw metre
d. Measuring tape
50. El sueno del celta has been written by …
a. Pablo Neruda
b. Shakespeare
c. Mario Llosa
d. None of these
ANSWERS
CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. c. 16th
2. b. Nilgiri Hills
3. a. Thailand
4. d. Robert Edwards
5. a. Badminton
6. b. Aluminum
7. b. Mario Vargas
8. a. Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
9. c. Shooting
10. a. Coal India Limited
11. c. Biology
12. a. 101
13. b. Greg Jones
14. a. Karnataka
15. d. None of these
16. a. Ratnagiri
17. a. Vostochny Space Center
18. d. K.S. Sripathi
19. a. Norman Ernest Borlaug
20. b. Deepti Priya Mehrotra
21. c. Cheonan
22. a. Yukio Hatoyama
23. b. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre
24. a. Rajaraja
25. b. China
26. a. India Bank
27. d. 22nd July 1947
28. b. 1911
29. d. Mango
30. d. 1976
31. d. Both a and b
32. b. Agriculture
33. d. Bajaj Allianz
34. a. Hyderabad
35. a. Locker
36. a. Kandla
37. d. 2001
38. b. 2
39. c. 1974
40. a. 1969
41. c. Kolkata
42. c. Vijay Amritraj
43. c. Hydrogen
44. b. Italy
45. c. Carbon copy
46. a. Tennis
47. c. Scotland
48. c. Mysore
49. b. Screw guage
50. c. Mario Llosa
Thursday, June 16, 2011
TN to implement e-waste policy
India’s southern state, Tamil Nadu where a large number of IT giants have settled, has created the necessary policy framework for e-Waste management and implementation of best practices in the state.
The e-Waste policy of Government of Tamil Nadu announced in 2010 was aimed at minimizing e-waste generation, utilization and disposal of e-waste in an environmentally sound manner.
The e-Waste policy of Government of Tamil Nadu announced in 2010 was aimed at minimizing e-waste generation, utilization and disposal of e-waste in an environmentally sound manner.
Wednesday, June 15, 2011
Tamil Nadu a wetland-rich State
The drought-prone and arid districts of Ramanathapuram, Pudukottai, Sivaganga and Villupuram in the State have a very good distribution of wetlands.
The National Wetland Atlas, prepared by the Ahmedabad-based Space Applications Centre (SAC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), has classified Puducherry and Tamil Nadu as wetland-rich States as they have 12.88 per cent and 6.92 per cent of geographic area under wetlands respectively.
Lakshadweep leads with 96.12 per cent of its geographic area under wetlands, followed by Andaman & Nicobar Islands (18.52%), Daman & Diu (18.46%) and Gujarat (17.56%).
In Tamil Nadu, wetlands occupy as high as 18.05 per cent of the geographic area in Ramanathapuram and as low as 1.08 per cent in Coimbatore.
In terms of total wetland area, Kancheepuram is the leading district with 80,445 hectares (8.91%) and Chennai has the smallest area, 917 ha (0.10%).
While Ramanathapuram and Pudukottai have over 70,000 ha as total wetland area, Sivaganga and Villupuram have over 60,000 ha and Tiruvannamalai and Nagapatinam districts have a wetland area of over 50,000 ha.
Lake/pond and tank/pond are the dominant wetland types found in all the districts, accounting for 61 per cent. About 4,369 natural lakes and ponds have a total wetland area of 3.16 lakh ha. And there are 19,343 man-made tanks and ponds with a total wetland area of 2.37 lakh ha. Pudukottai district has the highest area under lake/pond (38,966 ha) as well as tank/pond (26,419 ha). Most of the major lakes and tanks were created during the rule of monarchs.
Only small tanks and percolation ponds have been created in the post-Independence era.
In coastal areas, lagoons, inter-tidal mudflats and salt pans are the dominating wetland types.
Lagoons are observed in eight districts, with Tiruvallur leading in terms of area. Salem district leads in area under reservoir/barrage. While mangrove type has been observed in 11 districts, coral reef is restricted to Ramanathapuram and Tuticorin. Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary has been cited as an important wetland of the country in the atlas.
“The objective of the atlas is to protect the wetlands. Due to development and population pressure, wetlands are being slowly encroached upon, especially in urban areas, to facilitate infrastructure and housing needs. The atlas will help the government to identify and protect wetlands,” says Prof. M. Ramalingam, Director, Institute of Remote Sensing, Anna University.
The institute was part of the team of the centres that assisted the SAC team led by Sushma Panigrahy in preparing the wetland atlas which was sponsored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
Tuesday, June 14, 2011
Monday, June 13, 2011
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
(Exam Held On : 12-06-2011)
Time Allowed: Two Hours, Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
2. ENCOLDE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AT THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
PAPER-I
(1) Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
(2) Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
Ans. d
(3) What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Ans. a
(4) What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(5) Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Ans. a
(6) A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
Ans. a
(7) Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
Ans. b
(8) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. a
(9) A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(10) With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(11) Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. b
(12) Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans. b
(13) Consider the following statements :In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in die metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
(14) What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(15) Regarding international Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country
Ans. c
(16) In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. b
(17) Consider the following:1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(18) Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular,
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4
Ans. a
(19) India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be thereasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the% people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above1 are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(20) At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(21) In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Production
(d) Consumption
Ans. a
(22) Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water, treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(23) Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal, stimulus”?(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
(c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion
Ans. b
(24) The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?(a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric’ clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
Ans. b
(25) Consider the following actions which the Government can take:1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. a
(26) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(27) Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
Ans. a
(28) A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) ‘given above is correct in this context
Ans. c
(29) India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
(d) Its high total population
Ans. b
(30) Regarding “carbon, credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
Ans. b
(31) Consider the following :1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(32) There is a concern: over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(33) Consider the following :1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. c
(34) Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them?1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar- Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(35) The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans. a
(36) A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Ans. b
(37) La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(38) The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?(a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
Ans. b
(39) Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
Ans. b
(40) Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation- of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
Ans. d
(41) India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing .explanation/explanations?(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
Ans. b
(42) What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas-Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
Ans. c
(43) With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(44) With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(45) What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants ofKheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(46) The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots
Ans. d
(47) The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
Ans. a
(48) Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
Ans. b
(49) The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
(50) Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(51) An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction Of Earth(a) does not exist at such distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
Ans. c
(52) In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(53) In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
Ans. a
(54) Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth?1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(55) Why is die Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ?1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned-from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
(56) What is die difference between asteroids and comets?1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(57) Economic growth is usually coupled with(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
Ans. b
(58) The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
Ans. a
(59) Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(60) Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which ofthe following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(61) Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation
Ans. c
(62) A “closed economy” is an economy in which(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place
Ans. d
(63) When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
(b) Roots are starved of energy
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
Ans. a
(64) The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade
Ans. a
(65) Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Ans. c
(66) Human activities in the recent past have Caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. the photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. c
(67) In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
(68) If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
Ans. a
(69) The Himalayan Range is Very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the mostappropriate reason for this phenomenon?
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference
Ans. b
(70) With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts
Ans. c
(71) Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
Ans. d
(72) A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(73) Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
Ans. b
(74) A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
Ans. a
(75) With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(76) Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the die since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?(a) They activate the enzyme necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and protein in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radical produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process
Ans. a
(77) Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(78) The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
Ans. c
(79) What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(80) The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(81) Consider the following statements:1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.c
(82) The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans. d
(83) A state in India has the following characteristics:1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. b
(84) What is “Virtual Private Network”?(a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network
Ans. b
(85) The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India, In this context, consider the following statements:1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(86) In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only .
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(87)The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction
Ans. a
(88) In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only’
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(89) India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under me law?1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(90) With what purpose is the-Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry-
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco—friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(91) The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime. Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance, Minister
Ans. b
(92) All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Ans. c
(93) Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are:1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
(94) Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character
Ans. d
(95) A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(96) Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
Ans. d
(97) With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(98) When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans. d
(99) Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans. a
(100) With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. d
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