Indian History Questions for APPSC Exams

Indian History

1. The officer responsible for the safe custody of land records during the Gupta period was known as—

(A) Dhruvadhikarana

(B) Karanika

(C) Samaharta

(D) Shaulkika

Ans : (B)

2. The Prakrit text Gaudavaho describes the deeds of—

(A) Bhaskaravarman

(B) Isanavarman

(C) Sasanka

(D) Yasovarman

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty ?

(A) Kadambari

(B) Harshacharita

(C) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha

(D) Yuan-Chwang

Ans : (B)

4. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was—

(A) Srigupta

(B) Chandragupta I

(C) Samudragupta

(D) Ghatotkacha

Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following statements about Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien’s travel in India is not correct ?

(A) He came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II

(B) His object was to visit the holy places of Buddhism

(C) He came by the sea route

(D) He visited whole India and went back to his country by the land route

Ans : (C)

6. Which was the first work to recognise the payment of officers by grants of land ?

(A) Kautilya’s Arthasastra

(B) Indica of Megasthenese

(C) Manusmriti

(D) Harsacharita of Bana

Ans : (C)

7. Below are given the pairs of names of the Dharmashastra-writers and their patrons. Indicate the incorrect match—

(A) Ballalasena – Dharmapala

(B) Hemadri – Yadava Mahadeva

(C) Laxmidhara – Govindachandra Gahadawala

(D) Mitra Misra – Virasinha Bundela

Ans : (A)

8. Who among the following was celebrated with the title of ‘Gangai-Konda’ ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Mahendravarman I

(D) Kulottunga I

Ans : (B)

9. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden leaves from the Burmese king Kyanzittha ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Kulottunga I

(D) Rajadhiraja I

Ans : (C)

10. Who among the following boldly stood for the sacrificial vedic tradition and opposed the theory of Sanyasa ?

(A) Kumarila

(B) Ramanuja

(C) Gaudapada

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (A)

11. In the case of a man dying without a son, whom Yajnavalkya places first in order of succession ?

(A) Wife

(B) Daughters

(C) Parents

(D) Brothers

Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : The Gahadawalas had friendly relations with the Cholas.

Reason (R) : A fragmentary Gahadawala inscription has been found incised below an inscription of Kulottunga I.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country ?

(A) Dutch

(B) British

(C) Portuguese

(D) French

Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following gives the administrative divisions of the chola kingdom in the correct descending order ?

(A) Mandalam, Valanadu, Kurram

(B) Mandalam, Nadu, Kottam

(C) Kurram, Nadu, Kottam

(D) Nadu, Kurram, Taniyur

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following was the primary village assembly in the chola village administration ?

(A) Nadu

(B) Sabha

(C) Ur

(D) Mahasabha

Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following states was a milch-cow for the British ?

(A) Hydrabad

(B) Punjab

(C) Mysore

(D) Avadh

Ans : (D)

17. Match the authors with their books—

(a) Subramanya Bharti

(b) Bhai Vir Singh

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Michael Madhusudan Dutt

1. Gitanjali

2. Meghnad Badh Kavya

3. Rana Surat Singh

4. Kuyil Pattu

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (C)

18. “The emergence of British power in India is from the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement ?

(A) Sir Stephen

(B) Ramsay Muir

(C) Dr. K. K. Datta

(D) Dr. R. C. Majumdar

Ans : (B)

19. In 1757 Siraj-ud-Daulah attacked British factory at—

(A) Dhaka

(B) Calcutta

(C) Kasimbazar

(D) Murshidabad

Ans : (B)

20. Which Governor of Madras presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu ?

(A) Eyercoote

(B) Stephenson

(C) Wellesely

(D) Lord Macartany

Ans : (D)

21. What was the bone of contention between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the English ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Karnataka

(C) The Sarkar of Guntur

(D) The Northern Sarkars

Ans : (C)

22. The statement “we have crippled our enemy without making our friends too formidable.” is associated with—

(A) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war

(B) Third Anglo-Mysore war

(C) Second Anglo-Mysore war

(D) First Anglo-Mysore war

Ans : (B)

23. Who among the following Mughal emperors, granted permission to trade free of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to the British ?

(A) Muhammad Shah

(B) Aurangzeb

(C) Bahadur Shah

(D) Farrukh Siyar

Ans : (D)

24. Where did the British East India Company open its first factory in India ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Surat

(C) Bharuch

(D) Mumbai

Ans : (B)

25. The Whitley commission was concerned with—

(A) Labour

(B) Education

(C) Public Health

(D) Reorganisation of civil services

Ans : (A)

26. Match the following treaties with the years of their conclusion—

(a) Treaty of Srirangapatnam

(b) Treaty of Sangoli

(c) Treaty of Manglore

(d) Treaty of Rajghat

1. 1792 2. 1806

3. 1816 4. 1784

Find the correct answer from code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (D)

27. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British Resident of Sindh ?

(A) Alexander Burnier

(B) James Outram

(C) Sir John Karne

(D) Sir Eyre Coote

Ans : (B)

28. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control ?

(A) 1773

(B) 1784

(C) 1793

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of control’ ?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Act of 1813

(D) Act of 1833

Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following historians has written about the nature of the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor national nor a war of independence.” ?

(A) T. R. Holmes

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) S. B. Chaudhuri

(D) G. B. Mallison

Ans : (B)

31. Which one of the following pairs

is not correctly matched ?

(A) Jhansi —Laxmi Bai

(B) Gwalior —Tatya Tope

(C) Kanpur —Nana Saheb

(D) Allahabad —Kunwar Singh

Ans : (D)

32. The official historian of the movement of 1857 was—

(A) S. N. Sen

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) Tarachand

(D) V. D. Savarkar

Ans : (A)

33. Match the following associations with their presidents—

(a) British Indian Association, 1851

(b) Deccan Association, 1852

(c) Bombay Association, 1852

(d) British Indian Madras Association, 1850

1. Raja Radhakant Dev

2. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

3. C. Y. Mudaliar

4. Jamshedji Jijabhai

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 4 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 1 2 4 3

Ans : (D)

34. Who had chaired the Indian Education commission in 1882 ?

(A) Macaulay

(B) Sadler

(C) W. W. Hunter

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay ?

(A) Baharamji Malabari

(B) Shiva Narrain Agnihotri

(C) R. G. Bhandarkar

(D) B. K. Jayakar

Ans : (A)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given below—

List-I

(a) Laxmi Bai

(b) Tatya Tope

(c) Nana Saheb

(d) Bahadur Shah

List-II

1. Deported to Rangoon

2. Fled to Nepal

3. Captured and executed

4. Killed in battle

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 2 4 3 1

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Brahmo Samaj – Swami Brahmanand

2. Dev Samaj – Swami Satyanand Agnihotri

3. Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand

4. Ram Krishna Mission – Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following journals had conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition of the practice of Sati ?

(A) Sambad Kaumadi

(B) Bangadoot

(C) Samachar Darpan

(D) Samachar Chandrika

Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following places ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ a parallel government was formed during the Quit India Movement ?

(A) Satara

(B) Tamaluk

(C) Ballia

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the following was elected as president of Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(C) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Ans : (A)

41. The party which observed ‘Black day’ on 3 July, 1947 against partition of India was—

(A) Indian National Congress

(B) Forward Bloc

(C) Hindu Mahasabha

(D) Communist Party of India

Ans : (C)

42. Who was the author of ‘Pather Dabi’ a novel which glorified the path of violent revolution and which was banned by the British Government ?

(A) Premchand

(B) Sharatchandra Chatterji

(C) Bankimchandra Chatterji

(D) Ajai Ghosh

Ans : (B)

43. The newspaper ‘Man in India’ was edited by—

(A) Surjit Chadra Sinha

(B) Ashok Kumar Sarkar

(C) Ram Gopal Maheshwari

(D) Shiv Prasad Gupta

Ans : (A)

44. Who edited “Sahid Bhagat Singh : Dastavejo Ke Aine Mein” ?

(A) Irfan Habib

(B) Malavinder Jit Singh

(C) Chaman Lal

(D) Amalesh Tripathi

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following writers was not associated with ‘economic nationalism’ ?

(A) R. C. Dutt

(B) G. V. Joshi

(C) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) Annie Besant

Ans : (D)

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.

Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following was not a member of the Hunter committee set up to enquire into the Jallianwala bagh massacre ?

(A) Lord Hunter

(B) General Dyer

(C) W. F. Rice

(D) Sir Thomas Smith

Ans : (B)

48. Which one of the following was not a slave of Mohammad Ghori ?

(A) Ikhtiyaruddin Bhakhtiyar Khalji

(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz

(C) Qutbuddin Aibak

(D) Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Ans : (D)

49. Who among the following writers has described the seven fold division of the Hindu society ?

(A) Ibn Khordadbah

(B) Abu zaid-Alhasan

(C) Al-Beruni

(D) Utbi

Ans : (A)

50. The foreign invader who plundered somnath temple was—

(A) Mohammad Ghori

(B) Masud III

(C) Muhammad Bin-Qasim

(D) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Ans : (D)

51. The first hand account of conquest of India by Mohammad Ghori and the history of newly established Turkish kingdom is found in which of the following texts ?

(A) Faqra-i-Muddabir

(B) Qamil-ut-Tawarikha

(C) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri

(D) Kitab-ul-Yamini

Ans : (C)

52. Select from the following options, the Arab invader who defeated Dahira, the king of Sindh in 712 A.D.—

(A) Budail

(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(C) Sultan Mahmud

(D) Ubaidullah

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Diwan-i-Mushtakharaj – Alauddin Khalji

(B) Diwan-i-Amirkohi – Mohammad Tughlaq

(C) Diwan-i-Khairat – Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat – Balban

Ans : (D)

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Alauddin built the siri fort.

Reason (R) : He wished to safeguard Delhi from Mongol invasions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

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GENERAL STUDIES QUESTIONS

Economy & Industry

1. Which of the following is not a Central Government tax?
a. Corporation Tax
b. Land Revenue
c. Customs Duty
d. Income Tax
Ans : B

2. The main cause of International Trade is
a. Equal cost difference
b. Absolute cost difference
c. Comparative cost difference
Ans :C

3. Which petroleum company has introduced an improved quality petrol called 'Speed'?
a. Bharat Petroleum
b. Indian Oil
c. Hindustan Petroleum
d. None of these
Ans : A

4. In the recent past, Reliance has found the gas in..........
a. Mumbai offshore
b. Mahanadi basin
c. Krishna -Godavari basin
d. Kaveri basin
Ans : C

5. Which company uses the ad line, 'Knowing is everything'?
a. BBC World
b. Star
c. Sony
d. Zee
Ans : A

6. K.L.M. Royal Airlines belongs to
a. Italy
b. Japan
c. Netherlands
d. Austria
Ans : C

7. Who among the following persons is closely associated with the leading company ITC Ltd?
a. M.S Banga
b. K. Gopalkrishnan
c. Yogi Deveshwar
d. Deepak Satwalekar
Ans : C

8. Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana has been launched by
a. National Insurance Co.
b. United India Insurance Co.
c. LIC of India
d. Oriental Insurance Co.
Ans : C

9. Suvidha Fixed Deposit scheme was launched by which bank?
a. IDBI
b. ICICI
c. SBI
d. City Bank
Ans : A

10. BPO is an abbreviation for
a. Bharat Petroleum Organisation
b. Business Process Outsourcing
c. Business Products Outsourcing
d. Bharat Pesticides Outlet
Ans : B

11. Which one of the following is not manufacturing mobile telephone handsets?
a. Samsung
b. Nokia
c. Videocon
d. Sony
Ans : C

12. Which is the largest tea producing country in the world?
a. Kenya
b. Indonesia
c. China
d. India
Ans : D

13. Recession in the market implies
a. Slump in trade & industry due to fall in demand
b. Increase in trade industry due to rise in demand
c. No change in trade and industry due to stability in demand
d. None of these
Ans : A

14. 'Bottle neck inflation' means
a. No rise in prices despite increase in aggregate demand
b. Rise in prices without increase in the aggregate demand
c. Decline in prices due to increase in aggregate demand
d. None of these
Ans : B

15. Nandan Nilekani is associated with which company?
a. Satyam Computers
b. Wipro
c. Infosys
d. Polaris
Ans : C

16. Which is South Korea's largest car manufacturing company?
a. Hyundai
b. Honda
c. Suzuki
d. Toyota
Ans : A

17. Ashok Leyland is owned by the
a. Tatas
b. Birlas
c. Hindujas
d. None of these
Ans : C

18. NABARD stands for
a. National Bank of Agriculture and Regional Development
b. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
c. National Bureau of Aeronautical Research and Development
d. None of these
Ans : B

19. The part of profit or other surpluses of a company distributed proportionately among shareholders is called
a. Preference Share
b. Equity Share
c. Face Value
d. None of these
Ans : B

20. Which brand/company uses the ad line "We know India better"?
a. Max New York Life Insurance
b. LIC of India
c. Amul
d. Bajaj
Ans : B

21. Zero Coupon Bonds are that variety of loans
a. which fail to yield an income for the creditors
b. which are issued at a discount and redeemed at par
c. on which the entire interest income is paid at the time of purchase
d. the market price of which may fall suddenly and heavily
Ans : B

22. The term 'Third World' refers to
Economically developing nations

23. ADB was setup in the year
1966

24. National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established in the year
1992

25. SEBI was established in the year
1988

26. Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) was setup in the year
1978

27. GIC was setup in the year
1973

28. LIC was established in the year
1956

29. HDFC was established in the year
1977

30. HUDCO was setup in the year
1970

31. NABARD was established in the year
1982

32. SIDBI was setup in the year
1990

33. IDBI was setup in the year
1964

34. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in the year
1948

35. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was established in the year
1955

36. Reserve Bank of India was established in the year
1935

37. The oldest oil refinery in India is located in
Digboi (Assam)

38. Command Area Development Program was launched to
Ensure better utilization of irrigation potential

39. Which two iron and steel plants have been setup in collaboration with the former Soviet Union
Bokaro and Bhilai

40. Which city is known as the silicon valley of India
Bangalore

41. Ranigiri in Andhra Pradesh is famous for
Gold

42. Where has the Geological Survey of India located most of India Chromite deposits
Cuttack

43. Firozabad in U.P is famous for which industry
Glass

44. Which is the largest rubber producing state in India
Kerala

45. Ankaleshwar in India is known for the production of
a. Petroleum
b. Coal
c. Iron ore
d. Bauxite
Ans : A

46. For which one of the following items, Tirupur is famous as a huge exporter to many parts of the world
a. Handicrafts
b. Gems and Jewelry
c. Leather goods
d. Knitted garments
Ans : D

47. Which of the following Indian cities was the venue for the festival of Gold 2005
a. Chennai
b. Delhi
c. Kolkotha
d. Bangalore
Ans : B

48. Which of the following states is the largest producer of cashew nuts in India
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Assam
c. Kerala
d. Karnataka
Ans : C

49. Which Indian state leads in the production of cotton
Maharashtra

50. The region known as the Rice-Bowl of India is
Krishna-Godavari Delta region

Geography

1.Name the world only floating National park

Ans : Keibul Lamjao

2.Kimberley mines in South Africa is famous for
a. Silver
b. Coal
c. Gold
d. Diamonds
Ans : D


3.The length of the river Nile from its remotest headstream in Burundi is

Ans : 6695 km

4.Which is the principle source of the river Nile

Ans : Lake Victoria

5.The longest river in the world Nile flows north to the Mediterranean Sea through the countries

Ans : Uganda, Sudan and Egypt

6.The term Dawn Under denotes
a. Arctic Ocean
b. Australia
c. Cape of Good Hope
d. South Pole
Ans : B

7.The term COP is related with

Ans : UN framework on climate change held in Italy

8.Pong dam has been constructed over the river

Ans : Beas

9.What is Angkor Wat of Kampuchea

Ans : A temple

10.Which is the longest river in the African continent

Ans : Nile

11.What is sobriquet (Geographical surname) of Finland

Ans : The land of Thousand Lakes

12.Durand line is the International boundary which separates the countries

Ans : Pakistan-Afghanistan

13.Which countries are linked by the Khyber Pass

Ans : Afghanistan and Pakistan

14.The longest river in the world Nile, drains into which sea

Ans : Mediterranean Sea

15.Po is the largest river of

Ans : Italy

16.The Great Barrier Reef is situated on the coast of

Ans : Australia

17.The third largest continent in the world

Ans : North America

18.The longest river of Europe is

Ans : Volga

19.A European country has 5500 lakes within its territory. Which is the country

Ans : Finland

20.Eritrea is on the banks of which sea

Ans : Red sea

21.The Grand Canyon is located on the

Ans : Colorado River

22.The second largest desert in the world is

Ans : Gobi

23.The largest desert in the world is

Ans : Sahara

24.Location of Mohave desert is in

Ans : Southwestern United States

25.Location of Simpson desert is in

Ans : Australia

26.Location of Thar desert is in

Ans : India/Pakistan

27.Location of Kyzyl Kum desert is in

Ans : Uzbekistan

28.Location of Kalahari desert is in

Ans : Southwestern Africa

29.Location of Sonoran desert is in

Ans : Mexico/southwestern United States

30.Takla Makan desert is in which country

Ans : Northern China

31.Chihuahuan desert is in

Ans : Mexico/southwestern United States

32.Great Victoria desert is in

Ans : Southwestern Australia

33.Great Sandy desert is in

Ans : Northwestern Australia

34.Rub al Khali desert in in

Ans : Southern Arabian peninsula

35.Patagonian desert is in which country

Ans : Argentina

36.Congo river falls into which ocean

Ans : Atlantic Ocean

37.The fifth largest river in the world is

Ans : Congo river

38.The second longest river in Africa after the Nile is

Ans : Congo

39.Earth is the third nearest planet to the Sun orbiting between the planets

Ans : Venus and Mars

40.The wind blowing in a spiral form around a region of low atmospheric pressure is a

Ans : Cyclone

41.What is a leap year

Ans : Year in which the month of February has 29 days

42.What is called the two points in the calender when we experience the longest day or the longest night of the year

Ans : Solstice

43.Term applied to either of the two points in the ecliptic at which the sun is farthest from the celestial equator

Ans : Solstice

44.The equinoxes occur around

Ans : March 21 and September 23

45.One of two times of year when the sun position makes day and night of nearly equal length in all parts of the earth

Ans : Equinoxes

46.Earth moves faster at

Ans : Perihelion

47.Earths distance from the sun has little to do with seasons. Instead, what causes seasonal climate changes

Ans : The tilt of the earth on its axis

48.The earth's perihelion occurs in the month of

Ans : January

49.The earths aphelion occurs in the month of

Ans : July

50.The earths aphelion is only about ....... km farther away from the sun than its perihelion

Ans : 5.9 million

Five-year plans of India

The economy of India is based in part on planning through its five-year plans, developed,
executed and monitored by the Planning Commission. With the Prime Minister as the ex officio
Chairman, the commission has a nominated Deputy Chairman, who has rank of a Cabinet
minister. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is currently the Deputy Chairman of the Commission. The
tenth plan completed its term in March 2007 and the eleventh plan is currently underway.

1.1 First plan (1951-1956):

The first Indian Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru presented the first five-year plan to the
Parliament of India on December 8, 1951. The first plan sought to get the country's economy out
of the cycle of poverty. The plan addressed, mainly, the agrarian sector, including investments in
dams and irrigation. Agricultural sector was hit hardest by partition and needed urgent attention.
The total plan budget of 206.8 billion INR (23.6 billion USD in the 1950 exchange rate) was
allocated to seven broad areas: irrigation and energy (27.2 percent), agriculture and community
development (17.4 percent), transport and communications (24 percent), industry (8.4 percent),
social services (16.64 percent), land rehabilitation (4.1 percent), and other (2.5 percent).
The target growth rate was 2.1 percent annual gross domestic product (GDP) growth; the
achieved growth rate was 3.6 percent. During the first five-year plan the net domestic product
went up by 15 percent. The monsoon was good and there were relatively high crop yields,
boosting exchange reserves and the per capita income, which increased by 8 percent. National
income increased more than the per capita income due to rapid population growth. Many
irrigation projects were initiated during this period, including the Bhakra Dam and Hirakud Dam.
The World Health Organization, with the Indian government, addressed children's health and
reduced infant mortality, indirectly contributing to population growth.
At the end of the plan period in 1956, five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were started as
major technical institutions. University Grant Commission was set up to take care of funding and
take measures to strengthen the higher education in the country.

1.2 Second plan (1956-1961):

The second five-year plan focused on industry, especially heavy industry. Domestic production
of industrial products was encouraged, particularly in the development of the public sector. The
plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian
statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal
allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic
growth . It used the prevalent state of art techniques of operations research and optimization as
well as the novel applications of statistical models developed at the Indian Statiatical Institute.
The plan assumed a closed economy in which the main trading activity would be centered on
importing capital goods. Hydroelectric power projects and five steel mills at Bhilai, Durgapur,
and Rourkela were established. Coal production was increased. More railway lines were added in
the north east.
The Atomic Energy Commission was formed in 1957 with Homi J. Bhabha as the first chairman.
The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research was established as a research institute. In 1957 a
talent search and scholarship program was begun to find talented young students to train for
work in nuclear power.

1.3 Third plan (1961-1966):

The third plan stressed on agriculture and improving production of rice, but the brief Sino-Indian
War in 1962 exposed weaknesses in the economy and shifted the focus towards defence. In
1965-1966, The war led to inflation and the priority was shifted to price stabilisation. The
construction of dams continued. Many cement and fertilizer plants were also built. Punjab begun
producing an abundance of wheat.
Many primary schools were started in rural areas. In an effort to bring democracy to the
grassroot level, Panchayat elections were started and the states were given more development
responsibilities.
State electricity boards and state secondary education boards were formed. States were made
responsible for secondary and higher education. State road transportation corporations were
formed and local road building became a state responsibility.

1.4 Fourth plan (1969-1974):

At this time Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister. The Indira Gandhi government nationalised
14 major Indian banks and the Green Revolution in India advanced agriculture.. In addition, the
situation in East Pakistan (now independent Bangladesh) was becoming dire as the Indo-
Pakistani War of 1971 and Bangladesh Liberation War took place.
Funds earmarked for the industrial development had to be used for the war effort. India also
performed the Smiling Buddha underground nuclear test in 1974, partially in response to the
United States deployment of the Seventh Fleet in the Bay of Bengal to warn India against
attacking West Pakistan and widening the war.

1.5 Fifth plan (1974-1979):

Stress was laid on employment, poverty alleviation, and justice. The plan also focused on selfreliance
in agricultural production and defence. In 1978 the newly elected Morarji Desai
government rejected the plan. Electricity Supply Act was enacted in 1975, which enabled the
Central Government to enter into power generation and transmission.

1.6 Sixth plan (1980-1985):

When Rajiv Gandhi was elected as the prime minister, the young prime minister aimed for rapid
industrial development, especially in the area of information technology. Progress was slow,
however, partly because of caution on the part of labour and communist leaders.
The Indian national highway system was introduced for the first time and many roads were
widened to accommodate the increasing traffic. Tourism also expanded.
The sixth plan also marked the beginning of economic liberalization. Price controls were
eliminated and ration shops were closed. This led to an increase in food prices and an increased
cost of living.
Family planning also was expanded in order to prevent overpopulation. In contrast to China's
harshly-enforced one-child policy, Indian policy did not rely on the threat of force. More
prosperous areas of India adopted family planning more rapidly than less prosperous areas,
which continued to have a high birth rate.

1.7 Seventh plan (1985-1989):

The Seventh Plan marked the comeback of the Congress Party to power. The plan lay stress on
improving the productivity level of industries by upgradation of technology.
The main objectives of the 7th five year plans were to establish growth in the areas of increasing
economic productivity, production of food grains, and generating employment opportunities.
As an outcome of the sixth five year plan, there had been steady growth in agriculture, control on
rate of Inflation, and favourable balance of payments which had provided a strong base for the
seventh five Year plan to build on the need for further economic growth. The 7th Plan had
strived towards socialism and energy production at large. The thrust areas of the 7th Five year
plan have been enlisted below:
Social Justice
Removal of oppression of the weak
Using modern technology
Agricultural development
Anti-poverty programs
Full supply of food, clothing, and shelter
Increasing productivity of small and large scale farmers
Making India an Independent Economy
Based on a 15-year period of striving towards steady growth, the 7th Plan was focused on
achieving the pre-requisites of self-sustaining growth by the year 2000. The Plan expected a
growth in labour force of 39 million people and employment was expected to grow at the rate of
4 percent per year.
Some of the expected outcomes of the Seventh Five Year Plan India are given below:
Balance of Payments (estimates): Export - Rs. 33 thousand crore, Imports - (-)Rs.54
thousand crore, Trade Balance - (-)Rs.21 thousand crore
Merchandise exports (estimates): Rs. 60,653 crore
Merchandise imports (estimates): Rs. 95,437 crore
Projections for Balance of Payments: Export - Rs.60.7 thousand crore, Imports - (-) 95.4
thousand crore, Trade Balance- (-) Rs.34.7 thousand crore
Seventh Five Year Plan India strove to bring about a self-sustained economy in the country with
valuable contributions from voluntary agencies and the general populace.

1.8 Period between (1989-91):

1989-91 was a period of political instability in India and hence no five year plan was
implemented. Between 1990 and 1992, there were only Annual Plans.
In 1991, India faced a crisis in Foreign Exchange (Forex) reserves, left with reserves of only
about $1 billion (US). Thus, under pressure, the country took the risk of reforming the socialist
economy. P.V. Narasimha Rao)was the twelfth Prime Minister of the Republic of India and head
of Congress Party, and led one of the most important administrations in India's modern history
overseeing a major economic transformation and several incidents affecting national security. At
that time Dr. Manmohan Singh (currently, Prime Minister of India) launched India's free market
reforms that brought the nearly bankrupt nation back from the edge. It was the beginning of
privatisation and liberalisation in India.

1.9 Eighth plan (1992-1997):

Modernization of industries was a major highlight of the Eighth Plan. Under this plan, the
gradual opening of the Indian economy was undertaken to correct the burgeoning deficit and
foreign debt. Meanwhile India became a member of the World Trade Organization on 1 January
1995.This plan can be termed as Rao and Manmohan model of Economic development. The
major objectives included, containing population growth, poverty reduction, employment
generation, strengthening the infrastructure, Institutional building, Human Resource
development, Involvement of Panchayat raj, Nagarapalikas, N.G.OSand Decentralisation and
people's participation. Energy was given prority with 26.6% of the outlay. An average annual
growth rate of 6.7% against the target 5.6% was achieved.

1.10 Ninth Plan (1997 - 2002):

Ninth Five Year Plan India runs through the period from 1997 to 2002 with the main aim of
attaining objectives like speedy industrialization, human development, full-scale employment,
poverty reduction, and self-reliance on domestic resources.
Background of Ninth Five Year Plan India: Ninth Five Year Plan was formulated amidst the
backdrop of India's Golden jubilee of Independence.

The main objectives of the Ninth Five Year Plan India are:
to prioritize agricultural sector and emphasize on the rural development
to generate adequate employment opportunities and promote poverty reduction
to stabilize the prices in order to accelerate the growth rate of the economy
to ensure food and nutritional security
to provide for the basic infrastructural facilities like education for all, safe drinking water,
primary health care, transport, energy
to check the growing population increase
to encourage social issues like women empowerment, conservation of certain benefits for
the Special Groups of the society
to create a liberal market for increase in private investments
During the Ninth Plan period, the growth rate was 5.35 per cent, a percentage point lower than
the target GDP growth of 6.5 per cent.

1.11 Tenth plan (2002-2007):

The main objectives of the 10th Five-Year Plan were:
Reduction of poverty ratio by 5 percentage points by 2007;
Providing gainful and high-quality employment at least to the addition to the labour
force;
All children in India in school by 2003; all children to complete 5 years of schooling by
2007;
Reduction in gender gaps in literacy and wage rates by at least 50% by 2007;
Reduction in the decadal rate of population growth between 2001 and 2011 to 16.2%;
Increase in Literacy Rates to 75 per cent within the Tenth Plan period (2002 to 2007);
Reduction of Infant mortality rate (IMR) to 45 per 1000 live births by 2007 and to 28 by
2012;
Reduction of Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) to 2 per 1000 live births by 2007 and to 1
by 2012;
Increase in forest and tree cover to 25 per cent by 2007 and 33 per cent by 2012;
All villages to have sustained access to potable drinking water within the Plan period;
Cleaning of all major polluted rivers by 2007 and other notified stretches by 2012;
Economic Growth further accelerated during this period and crosses over 8% by 2006.

1.12 Eleventh plan (2007-2012):

The eleventh plan has the following objectives:
Income & Poverty:
o Accelerate GDP growth from 8% to 10% and then maintain at 10% in the 12th
Plan in order to double per capita income by 2016-17
o Increase agricultural GDP growth rate to 4% per year to ensure a broader spread
of benefits
o Create 70 million new work opportunities.
o Reduce educated unemployment to below 5%.
o Raise real wage rate of unskilled workers by 20 percent.
o Reduce the headcount ratio of consumption poverty by 10 percentage points.
Education:
o Reduce dropout rates of children from elementary school from 52.2% in 2003-04
to 20% by 2011-12
o Develop minimum standards of educational attainment in elementary school, and
by regular testing monitor effectiveness of education to ensure quality
o Increase literacy rate for persons of age 7 years or above to 85%
o Lower gender gap in literacy to 10 percentage points
o Increase the percentage of each cohort going to higher education from the present
10% to 15% by the end of the plan
Health:
o Reduce infant mortality rate to 28 and maternal mortality ratio to 1 per 1000 live
births
o Reduce Total Fertility Rate to 2.1
o Provide clean drinking water for all by 2009 and ensure that there are no slipbacks
o Reduce malnutrition among children of age group 0-3 to half its present level
o Reduce anaemia among women and girls by 50% by the end of the plan
Women and Children:
o Raise the sex ratio for age group 0-6 to 935 by 2011-12 and to 950 by 2016-17
o Ensure that at least 33 percent of the direct and indirect beneficiaries of all
government schemes are women and girl children
o Ensure that all children enjoy a safe childhood, without any compulsion to work
Infrastructure:
o Ensure electricity connection to all villages and BPL households by 2009 and
round-the-clock power.
o Ensure all-weather road connection to all habitation with population 1000 and
above (500 in hilly and tribal areas) by 2009, and ensure coverage of all
significant habitation by 2015
o Connect every village by telephone by November 2007 and provide broadband
connectivity to all villages by 2012
o Provide homestead sites to all by 2012 and step up the pace of house construction
for rural poor to cover all the poor by 2016-17
Environment:
o Increase forest and tree cover by 5 percentage points.
o Attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12.
o Treat all urban waste water by 2011-12 to clean river waters.
o Increase energy efficiency by 20 percentage points by 2016-17.
Infrastructure:
The key to sustaining India's growth rate during a global meltdown lies in developing India's
infrastructure. Keeping this in mind, the government is targeting an investment of US$ 20.38
billion over the next two years in the infrastructure sector. The scheme aims to take up
infrastructure projects under public-private partnership (PPP) with minimal private investment.
The government has asked the Infrastructure Investment Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) to put
together a corpus of over US$ 8.15 billion for this purpose.
IIFCL plans to provide US$ 1.2 billion for infrastructure projects during 2009-10, which is
nearly double the amount disbursed by it during 2008-09. The company had disbursed US$
640.8 million for various projects during 2008-09.
This is in addition to the US$ 320 billion that the government plans to invest for the upgradation
of ports, railroads, highways and airports over the next 15 years.
In a bid to accelerate the infrastructure projects through PPP initiatives in India, the Asian
Development Bank (ADB) has decided to provide close to US$ 700 million in loans.
Also, representatives from the Government of India, IIFCL, Power Grid Corporation and World
Bank, have signed loan agreements for three projects amounting to US$ 4.2 billion, which will
go into long-term finance for infrastructure projects, capacity building of IIFCL, assisting public
sector banks in credit growth and strengthening the power transmission system.
Further, the core sector growth is back on track. The index for six core industries—crude oil,
petroleum refinery products, coal, power, cement and finished steel—turned in a growth of 10.4
per cent in August 2009. Cumulatively, during April-September this fiscal, core sector output
rose 5 per cent compared with 3.4 per cent in the same period in 2008-09.
The infrastructure basket has a 27 per cent weightage in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Ports:
The government has identified 276 projects entailing an investment of US$ 12 billion.
According to the Planning Commission, there is an investment opportunity of US$ 25 billion by
2011-12 in India's shipping and ports sectors, as the country seeks to double its ports capacity to
1,500 million tonnes.
Segment-wise, while the ports sector would provide a US$ 13.75 billion investment opportunity,
shipping and inland waterways are likely to present a US$ 11.25 billion investment opportunity.
In a major thrust to expand capacity at important ports in the country, the Ministry of Shipping
has awarded seven projects worth over US$ 386.9 million, to be developed through the PPP
route. Another 19 projects, estimated to cost around US$ 3.87 billion, are expected to be
awarded on similar PPP basis by early 2010.
Further, in a move to boost capacity at major ports in the country, Public-Private Partnership
Approval Committee (PPPAC), a government panel, has approved three projects worth over US$
1.65 billion, to be developed through the PPP mode.
Also, the Kerala State Cabinet has approved US$ 97.17 million for work on the initial phase of
the proposed Vizhinjam International Container Transshipment Terminal project on the lines of
the Cochin International Airport (CIAL) model of PPP.
Airports:
The government plans to attract private players through the PPP mode for the development of
over 300 airports and airstrips. It would invest US$ 9 billion to modernise existing airports by
2010.
The Civil Aviation Ministry plans to develop 35 Greenfield airports across India by 2010 with an
investment of US$ 35 billion for the proposed airports.
Investment in airport infrastructure was over US$ 5 billion in 2008 and will go up US$ 9 billion
by 2013, of which close to US$ 6.8 billion is expected to come through the PPP model, states a
recent study by research firm Frost & Sullivan.
The study further states that a key driver for the airport infrastructure market is the upgradation
of 35 non-metro airports identified by the Airport Authority of India (AAI).
Railroads:
The Indian Railways took up the most ambitious ever annual plan for fiscal 2008-09, entailing an
enormous investment of US$ 7.91 billion, registering a 21 per cent increase over the previous
year. The plan includes a total budgetary support of US$ 1.66 billion including US$ 163.33
million to be provided from the Central Road Fund.
A total investment of US$ 5.6 billion has been planned for the two corridors, US$ 3.3 billion for
the Western and US$ 2.3 billion for the Eastern, respectively.
The Government of Japan has committed an amount of US$ 28.48 million for the engineering
services loan under the dedicated freight corridor project (Phase-I). The objective of the project
is to cope with the increase of freight transport demand in India by constructing new dedicated
freight railway system.
Roads:
During 2007-08, US$ 1.86 billion had been provided for the national highways and for state
roads. Of this amount, US$ 1.5 billion is for national highways and US$ 0.36 billion for state
roads. An amount of US$ 0.04 billion has also been allocated during 2007-08 for the
development of state roads.
According to a consultation paper by the Planning Commission, investment in the roads sector
during the Eleventh Plan is projected at US$ 93.11 billion.
Moreover, as per the Transport Minister Mr Kamal Nath the road and highways sector would
require an investment of about US$ 12.36 billion in the next three years.
Recently, the government has approved eight road projects, entailing an estimated cost of US$
2.35 billion.
Investments:
According to the Planning Commission consultation paper, US$ 494 billion of investment is
proposed for the Eleventh Plan period (2007-12), which would increase the share of
infrastructure investment to 9 per cent of GDP from 5 per cent in 2006-07.
An investment of US$ 627.3 million will be made by industries in the Aeropsace and Precision
Engineering Special Economic Zone in Andhra Pradesh.
The Kerala State Industrial Development Corporation (KSIDC) and GAIL (India) have signed a
bilateral agreement that envisages investment of up to US$ 1.75 billion in gas-based
infrastructure in the State.
The Karnataka government has drawn up a blueprint for the overall development of Bangalore
city with a massive financial outlay of US$ 4.5 billion.
Moreover, sensing huge opportunities, a clutch of private equity (PE) players are rushing in to
raise funds for the infrastructure sector. At present, close to US$ 1.78 billion is in the process of
being raised.
An investment of more than US$ 5.33 billion would be made in the next four years on improving
national highways in Madhya Pradesh.
Sembmarine Kakinada Limited (SKL), a joint venture of Singapore-based Sembawang Shipyard
Pvt Ltd and Kakinada Seaports Ltd, has announced the establishment of a shipyard at Kakinada
port at an estimated cost of US$ 375 million to cater to offshore units and merchant vessels
operating in Indian waters.
Investment in Rural Infrastructure:
The government has started a special programme, Bharat Nirman, for the improvement of India's
rural infrastructure. Out of the total projected investment of US$ 301.37 billion to be incurred by
the centre and the states in the Eleventh Plan, US$ 85.53 billion would be spent entirely towards
improvement of rural infrastructure.
With a view to promote rural infrastructure beyond core areas, such as roads, bridges and
irrigation, National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development (NABARD) has taken initiatives
to channel more funds to build marketing infrastructure in rural belts and remove bottlenecks in
allied agriculture activities, such as fishery, poultry and dairy.
Government Initiatives:
The Eleventh Plan targets a growth rate of 9 per cent. Initiatives such as the National Highways
Development Programme (NHDP), the Airport Financing Plan, and the National Maritime
Development Programme and the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(JNNURM) are efforts in the same direction.
To enhance liquidity and check depreciation of the rupee, the Ministry of Finance has modified
norms to permit companies in the mining, exploration and refineries sectors to bring in up to
US$ 500 million in external commercial borrowing (ECB). Earlier, the limit was US$ 50 million.
Further, the ministry has stated a five-fold increase in the figure that companies building roads,
ports and other infrastructure projects are allowed to bring in from overseas.

CIVIL SERVICES 2010 G.S. EXPLANATIONS

1. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 meters has following characteristics:

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be ?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest
Answer: Tropical Rain Forests
Explanation:
The Tropical Rain forests have an annual rainfall of 1,750 millimetres to 2,000 millimetres. In the given question it comes out to be 1734 mm. The mean monthly temperatures of tropical rains forests is somewhere above Mean monthly 18 °C.
In Moist temperate coniferous forest the annual precipitation is less that 1000 mm. The altidude of Montane subtropical forest varies from 500 m to 4000 m above sea level. For temperate forests the moderate annual average temperature is normally from 3 to 15.6 °C.

2. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas' paper is a dead organic material

Correct Answer: Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water

A microwave oven works on the principle of diaelectric heating, the process in which radiowave or microwave electromagnetic radiation heats a dielectric material. This heating is caused by dipole rotation. The water molecules are electric dipoles, and they have a positive charge at one end and a negative charge at the other, and therefore rotate as they try to align themselves with the alternating electric field of the microwaves. This molecular movement represents heat which is then dispersed as the rotating molecules hit other molecules and put them into motion. The microwaves readily pass through many materials, such as glass, most plastics, paper and china, with little or no effect. Generally, these materials make excellent utensils for cooking in a microwave oven. some other materials, such as metal and foil, tend to reflect microwave energy.

3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B : Directive Principles of State Policy

National Social Assistance Programme

1. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995, is a 100 % Centrally Sponsored Programme.
2. NSAP is a social assistance programme for poor households and represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Articles 41 and 42 of the Constitution recognizing the concurrent responsibility of the Central and State governments in the matter.
3. It has three components namely, National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS), National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) and National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS).
4. The NMBS has since been transferred to the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare w.e.f. 1-4-2001. The NSAP aims at providing social security in case of old age, death of primary breadwinner andmaternity.
5. The main objectives and features of the two schemes, NOAPS and NFBS are given below:
6. The Programme aims at ensuring a minimum national standard of social assistance in addition to the benefit that States are already providing.
7. The Central assistance is not to displace expenditure by States on social protection schemes. However, the States/UTs are free to expand their own coverage of social assistance whenever they wish to do so.

4. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El-Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.
2. Normal EI Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither .1 nor 2

Correct Answer: 2 only . UPSC has intentionally reverse the order in first question.

5. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop
(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production

Correct Answer: B
MON863 is a genetically engineered (GE) insect resistant maize (corn) that expresses a Bt-toxin (Cry3Bb1). This toxin, which stems from a micro-organism (Bacillus thuringiensis), is meant to protect the maize against the corn rootworm pest. This GE maize is different from other GE maize plants (Mon 810, Bt11, Bt 176) already placed on the market, as they produce another toxin (Cry1Ab), which is toxic to the European corn borer. Further, GE maize MON863 contains an antibiotic resistance marker gene (ntpII conferring resistance to kanamycin).

8. Genetically modified "golden rice" has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice ?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.

Correct Answer: B
9. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played ?
(a) 105
(b) 91
(c) 85
(d) 78
Correct Answer: B

10. Consider the following statements :
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is B and it is an obvious answer.
11. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to, water
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to wate
The first 2 options have been used by UPSC to confuse you, because the reaction is as follows:
Cl2 + H2O <--> HOCl + HCl
So both hydrochloric acid & hypochlorous acid are formed. the question asks about "disinfecting action". Here HOCl is a weak acid which dissociates as follows:
Hypochlorous Acid ? Hydrogen Ion + Hypochlorite Ion
HOCl <---> H+ + OCl-
The HOCL in undissociated form is 20 to 50 times more effective for killing than is its ion OCl¯ . The dissociation depends upon Ph of water. The free available chlorine for disinfection is both the HOCl and OCl- together. Chlorine, being a very reactive element, will oxidize organic and inorganic matter alike when added to water. On this principle, the Sodium Hypochlorite and Calcium Hypochlorite are used and Hypochlorites and bleaches work in the same general manner as chlorine gas. They react with water and form the disinfectant hypochlorous acid.
Correct Answer: B
12. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Correct Answer: None of the above statements is correct

14. Though coffee and. tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee, is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The second statement is incorrect. Coffee is generally propagated by seeds yet budding, grafting, and cuttings have been used for proagation of coffee. Tea is grown in in tropical and sub-tropical climates, Coffee is able to tolerate Warm Temperate Dry to Rain (with little or no frost) through Tropical Very Dry to Wet Forest.
Correct Answer: Statement 1 is correct only

15.In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase "Special Safeguard Mechanisms" mentioned in the news frequently ?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement
(d) G-20 Summits

Correct answer: World Trade Organisation

16.Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government ?
(a) Cash Credit Ratio
(b) Debt Service Obligation
(c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Correct Answer: SLR
Commercial banks provide long-term credit to government by investing their funds in government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills. This comes under SLR.

17.In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are:
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

A GI is an indication which shows that a particular agricultural, natural or manufactured good (statement 3 is incorrect) originates from a definite geographical territory. The main aim of GI tag is to promote economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct because, a trade mark is a sign which is used in the course of trade and it distinguishes goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises. Whereas a geographical indication is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory. The GI is not licensed but has to be registered with Registrar of Geographical Indications.

Correct Answer: B

18. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following :
1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ?
(a) 1 and 2 only. (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: Statement 3 is incorrect so Option A is correct
The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
(a) generation of additional economic activity
(b) promotion of exports of goods and services;
(c) promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources;
(d) creation of employment opportunities;
(e) development of infrastructure facilities;

19. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation ?
(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
Correct Answer: C is the correct answer. D is not correct, because fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time is disinflation. Inflation must be negative for deflation.

20. Consider the following statements :
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Correct Answer: Both the statements are incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect because out of 34 Biodiversity Hotspots India is home to 3 viz. 1. Eastern Himalaya 2. Indo-Burma (Andaman & Nicobar and also Meghalaya subtropical forests) and 3 Western Ghats. There is no Biodiversity Hotspot named as Western Himalaya. Statement 1 is also incorrect.

21.Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(b) Man does not develop, immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

For most infectious diseases for which effective vaccines are available , a single infection confers long standing protective immunity. A person who had measles does not develop measles again. This type of sterile protective immunity does not exist for malaria. So man lacks naturally acquired protective immunity against the plasmodium or other malarial parasites. Plasmodium has its own ingenious way of avoiding hosts’ immune response and that is why it has been very difficult. RTS,S is one of the malarial vaccine candidates.

Correct answer: B

22. Consider the following statements:
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited ' biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Lets discuss this tricky question:
Statement 2 is correct: A biosphere reserve is a unique concept, which includes one, or more protected areas and surrounding lands that are managed to combine both conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. In India 13 states in have Biosphere Reserves and the funds allocated to them is utilized to monitor and promote bio-diversity conservation through surveys and assessment of flora and fauna. Basically Biosphere reserves are to protect larger areas of natural habitat, and often include one or more national parks and/or preserves, along buffer zones that are open to some economic uses as per the IUCN Category V.

Statement 3 is correct:
The difference between a national park and a sanctuary is that no human activity is allowed inside a national park, while limited activities are permitted within the sanctuary.

Now lets discuss statement 1:
please refer to The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, amended 1993, CHAPTER IV, 35.

Declaration of National Parks. Ref
1. Whenever it appears to the State Government that an area, whether within a sanctuary or not, is, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to be constituted as a National Park for the purpose of protecting& propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment, it may, by notification, declare its intention to constitute such area as a National Park.

3. Where any area is intended to be declared as a National Park, the provisions of Sec. [1219 to 26-A (both inclusive except clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 24)] shall, as far as may be, apply to the investigation and determination of claims and extinguishment of rights, in relation to any land in such area as they apply to the said matters in relation to any land in a sanctuary.

4. When the following events have occurred, namely

(a) the period for preferring claims has elapsed, and all claims, if any, made in relation to any land in an area intended to be declared as a National Park, have been disposed of by the State Government, and

(b) all rights in respect of lands proposed to be included in the National Park have become vested in the State Government the State Government shall publish a notification specifying the limits of the area which shall be comprised within the National Park and declare that the said area shall be a National Park on and from such date as may be specified in the notification.

5. No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the Legislature of the State.

The fifth para holds the first statement in the question correct
Correct answer D.
23. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop - Rat -Snake - Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
The examiner uses the term "chlorinated hydrocarbon" instead of a simply using DDT which is dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, a persistent well-known synthetic pesticide with a long controversial history. The question just wants to know whether, you are aware of the concept of Bio Magnification. Bio Magnification is also known as bioamplification. Simply, it states that some pesticides are biomagnified. They reach higher and higher levels with each successive step in the food chain. Small amounts of pesticides are absorbed by the plants and they get transferred to increased concentration in fishes, birds, animals and man. Indian White-rumped Vulture (we call it a Gidhh in Rajasthan) getting disappeared due to the same phenomena.

Correct answer: D (Hawk)

24. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :
1. Crop rotation
2 Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer : D all are appropriate

25.With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements :
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stock/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other securities of like marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. so statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2. an NBFC cannot accept demand deposits; statement 2 is correct.

Correct Answer B : Two only.

26. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ?
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
(b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
(c) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
Please refer tThe FRBM Act 2003 ref
FRBM Act 2003:
4. (1): The central government shall take appropriate measures to reduce the fiscal deficit and revenue deficit so as to eliminate the revenue deficit by the 31st march 2008. (statement 1 stipulated)
(2): The central government shall by rules made by it specify-
(a): the annual targets for reduction of fiscal deficit and revenue deficit during the period beginning with commencement of this act and ending on March 31, 2008

2 (b) the government shall specify the annual targets of assuming contingent liabilities in the form of guarantees and the total liabilities as a percentage of GDP (statement d was stipulated)

5(1): the central government will not borrow from the RBI excpet under certain circumstances.
Here I would like to mention that as per the target, revenue deficit, which is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, had to be reduced to nil in five years beginning 2004-05. Each year, the government was required to reduce the revenue deficit by 0.5% of the GDP. The fiscal deficit was required to be reduced to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09. It would mean reduction of fiscal deficit by 0.3 % of GDP every year. Under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, the Centre should have eliminated the revenue deficit and brought down the fiscal deficit to 3 per cent of gross domestic product by March 2008. This target was extended by a year. Then, due to the global economic crisis, the government decided to suspend implementation of the FRBMA.

Correct Answer: C there was no stipulation of primary deficit to be brought to zero in the act.

27. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart ?
(a) 3/2 (b) 4/3 (c) ¾ (d) 15/2

Correct Answer A

28. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 512 (d) 1024

Correct Answer: D

29. In the parlance of financial investments, the term 'bear' denotes
(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
(b) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
(c) A shareholder or a bondholder who has' an interest in a company, financial or otherwise
(d) Any lender, whether by making a loan or buying a bond

Correct Answer : A, You must know about bull & bear.

30. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
(a) India has preference, for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
(b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
(d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India

Correct Answer B

31. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Correct Answer D


32. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above ?
(a) Mustard (b) Cotton (c) Pepper (d) Virginia tobacco

The above climate conditions are found in India in Western coastal area from Maharastra, Goa, Kerala, Coastal Karnataka including the Western Ghats, and hilly area of north east except some parts of Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh. Virginia tobacco is cultivated in Andhra Pradesh and can be grown in dry weather. So Pepper should be the correct option.

Correct answer C pepper.
33. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1-5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train ?
(a) 250 m
(b) 500 m
(c) 1000 m
(d) 1500 m

Correct Answer : B
34. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: All statements are correct.
The neutrino observatory was amid controversy recently. it is country's biggest physics projects. The proposed site in Tamil nadu was recently rejected by the Government due to the proximity of the lab near a wild life sanctuary.

35. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India

Instruments of instructions were issued by British Government under the 1935 Act under the Draft Constitution.
Correct Answer B

36. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as "exhaust"
(a) NH3 (b) CH4 (c) H2O (d) H2O2
One of the few questions which did not confuse the candidates. C is the correct answer.

37. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct ?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye
(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea
(c) It reduces a person's dependence on glasses or contact lenses
(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age

The first 3 options are correct. LASIK involves cutting of the cornea and B is a correct statement. D is an incorrect statement. The FDA stipulates the correct minimum age 18 years for most situations.

38. Consider the following:
1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Again this is a tricky question. Oxide of Hydrogen is water and Hydrogen Oxide is the simple and systematic name of water. The acid rain is basically a result of reactions of Oxides of Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Sulphur.
The Acid rain is acid rain because of the presence of Nitric acid and Sulphuric Acid.
Water Reacts with CO2 in the atmosphere to form carbonic acid (the one which we enjoy in Cola drinks) . It is a weak acid and partially gets dissociated in the following Ions.
CO2 + H2O <----> H2CO3 <-----> H+ + HCO3-

Oxide of Nitrogen that is Nitric Oxide reacts with oxide of Hydrogen that is water to give rise to Nitric acid as follows:
2NO2 + H2O ----> HNO2 + HNO3

Oxide of sulphur reacts with oxide of Hydrogen (water) to form H2SO3 known as a unstable sulphurous acid.
SO2 + H2O <-----> H2SO3

The Oxide of Sulphur reacts with atmospheric Oxygen to also create sulphur trioxide (SO3) which is again unstable.
2SO2 + O2 -----> 2SO3

This unstable Sulphur Trioxide reacts with Oxide of water to get Sulphuric acid.

SO3 + H2O -----> H2SO4

This means acid rain is a result of reactions of oxides of Hydrogen. Nitrogen and Sulphur.
Correct Answer: D (all 1, 2,3 )


39. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R, O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N ?
(a) R
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) M
Correct Answer B

40. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 8
Correct Answer B