UPSC Civil Service Mains 2013 General Studies Paper 1 Question Paper (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

Instructions :-
• 250 marks, 3 hours
• Content of the answer is more important than its length.
• Answer questions in not more than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis.
Q1. Though not very useful from the point of view of a connected political history of South India , the Sangam literature portrays the social and economic conditions of its time with remarkable vividness. Comment. 10 marks-200 words

Q2. (a) Discuss the Tandava dance as recorded in the early Indian inscriptions. 5 marks, 100 words
      (b) Chola architecture represents a high watermark in the evolution of temple architecture. Discuss. 5 marks, 100 words.

Q3. Defying the barriers of age, gender and religion, the Indian women became the torch bearer during the struggle for freedom in India. Discuss. 10 marks-200 words

Q4. Several foreigners made India their homeland and participated in various movements. Analyze their role in the Indian struggle for freedom. 10 marks-200 words

Q5. In many ways, Lord Dalhousie was the founder of modern India. Elaborate.10 marks-200 words

Q6. Critically discuss the objectives of Bhoodan and Gramdan movements initiated by Acharya Vinoba Bhave and their success. 10 marks-200 words

Q7. Write a critical note on  the evolution and significance of the slogan “Jai Jawana Jai Kisan”. 10 marks-200 words

Q8. Discuss the contribution of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad to pre-and post independent India. 10 marks-200 words

Q9. Analyse the circumstances t hat led to Tashkent Agreement in 1966. Discuss the highlights of the agreement. 10 marks-200 words

Q10. Critically examine the compulsions which prompted India to play a decisive roles in the emergence of Bangladesh. 10 marks-200 words

Q11. “Latecomer” Industrial revolution in Japan involved certain factors that were markedly different from what west had experience. 10 marks-200 words

Q12. Africa was chopped into states artificially created by accident of European competition. Analyse. 10 marks-200 words

Q13. American Revolution was an economic revolt against mercantilism. Substantiate. 10 marks-200 words

Q14. What policy instruments were deployed to contain the great economic depression? 10 marks-200 words

Q15. Discussion the various social problems which originated out of the speedy process of urbanization in India. 10 marks-200 words

Q16. Male membership needs to be encouraged in order to make women’s organization free from gender bias. Comment. 10 marks-200 words

Q17. Critically examine the effects of globalization on the aged population in India. 10 marks-200 words

Q18. Growing feeling of regionalism is an important factor in the generation of demand for a separate state. Discuss. 10 marks-200 words

Q19. (a) What do you understand by the theory of continental drift? Discuss the prominent evidences in its support. 5 marks 100 words
       (b) The recent cyclone on the east coast of India was called “Phailin”. How are the tropical cyclones named across the world? Elaborate. 5 marks-100 words.

Q20. (a) Bring out the causes for the formation of heat islands in the urban habitat of the world. 5 marks 100 words   
       (b) What do you understand by the phenomenon of temperature inversion in meteorology? How does it affect the weather and the habitants of the place? 5 marks 100 words

Q21. Major hot deserts in northern hemisphere are located between 20-30 degree north and on the western side of the continents. Why?  10 marks-200 words.

Q22. (a) Bringout the causes for more frequent landslides in the Himalayas than in Western Ghats. 5 marks 100 words
       (b) There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the Western Ghat. Why? 5 marks 100 words

Q23. (a) Do you agree that there is a growing trend of opening new sugar mills in the Southern states of India ? Discuss with justification. 5 marks 100 words
       (b) Analyse the factors for highly decentralized cotton textile industry in India . 5 marks 100 words

Q24. With growing scarcity of fossil fuels, the atomic energy is gaining more and more significance in India. Discuss the availability of raw material required for the generation of atomic energy in India and in the world. 10 marks-200 words

Q25. It is said the India has substantial reserves of shale oil and gas, which can feed the needs of country for quarter century. However, tapping of the resources doesn’t appear to be high on the agenda. Discuss critically the availability and issues involved. 10 marks-200 words

UPSC Civil Service Mains 2013 General Studies Paper 2 Question Paper (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations)

Q1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law, which was legislated but with a different intention?

Q2. Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the Constitution.

Q3. Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the `Nagas’ as a threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371A of the Indian Constitution.

Q4. The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament in amending the Constitution.’ Discuss critically.

Q5. Many State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and Talukas for better governance. In light of the above, can it also be justified that more number of smaller States would bring in effective governance at State level? Discuss.

Q6. Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the inter-state water disputes have failed to address and solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural or process inadequacy or both? Discuss.

Q7. Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission which have been a departure from the previous commissions for strengthening the local government finances.

Q8. The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

Q9. The concept of Mid-Day Meal (MDM) scheme is almost a century old in India with early beginnings in Madras Presidency in pre-independent India. The scheme has again been given impetus in most states in the last two decades. Critically examine its twin objectives, latest mandates and success.

Q10. Pressure group politics is sometimes seen as the informal face of politics. With regards to the above, assess the structure and functioning of pressure groups in India.

Q11. The legitimacy and accountability of Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their patrons, the micro-finance outfits, need systematic assessment and scrutiny for the sustained success of the concept. Discuss.

Q12. The Central Government frequently complains on the poor performance of the State Governments in eradicating suffering of the vulnerable sections of the society. Restructuring of Centrally sponsored schemes across the sectors for ameliorating the cause of vulnerable sections of population aims at providing flexibility to the States in better implementation. Critically evaluate.

Q13. Electronic cash transfer system for the welfare schemes is an ambitious project to minimize corruption, eliminate wastage and facilitate reforms. Comment.

Q14. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment.

Q15. Identify the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that are related to health.Discuss the success of the actions taken by the Government for achieving the same.

Q16. Though Citizen’s charters have been formulated by many public service delivery organizations, there is no corresponding improvement in the level of citizens’ satisfaction and quality of services being provided. Analyse.

Q17. ‘A national Lokpal,however strong it may be,cannot resolve the problems of immorality in public affairs’. Discuss.(200 words).

Q18. The proposed withdrawal of International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) from Afghanistan in 2014 is fraught with major security implications for the countries of the region. Examine in light of the fact that India is faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to safeguard its own strategic interests.

Q19. What do you understand by The String of Pearls’? How does it impact India? Briefly outline the steps taken by India to counter this.

Q20. Economic ties between India and Japan while growing in the recent years are still far below their potential. Elucidate the policy constraints which are inhibiting this growth.

Q21. The protests in Shahbag Square in Dhaka in Bangladesh reveal a fundamental split in society between the nationalists and Islamic forces. What is its significance for India?

Q22. Discuss the political developments in Maldives in the last two years. Should they be of any cause of concern to India?

Q23. In respect of India — Sri Lanka relations, discuss how domestic factors influence foreign policy.

Q24. What is meant by Gujral doctrine? Does it have any relevance today? Discuss.

Q25. The World Bank and the IMF, collectively known as the Bretton Woods Institutions, are the two inter-governmental pillars supporting the structure of the world’s economic and financial order. Superficially, the World Bank and the IMF exhibit many common characteristics, yet their role, functions and mandate are distinctly different. Elucidate.

UPSC Civil Service Mains 2013 General Studies Paper-3 Question Paper (Tecnology, Economic Develpement, Bio Diversity, Enviroment, Security and Disaster Management)

Time Allowed: Three Hours                                                                                         Maximum Marks: 250


                    QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:
There are TWENTY FIVE questions printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.
All questions are compulsory. 
The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it.
Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.
Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.
Any page or portion  of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length :
1. With a consideration towards the strategy of inclusive growth, the new Companies Bill, 2013 has indirectly made CSR a mandatory obligation. Discuss the challenges expected in its implementation in right earnest. Also discuss other provisions in the Bill and their implications. [200 words]  10
2. What were the reasons for the introduction of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 ? Discuss critically its salient features and their effectiveness. [200 words] 10
3. What is the meaning of the term 'tax expenditure' ? Taking housing sector as an example, discuss how it influences the budgetary policies of the government.              [200 words] 10
4. Food Security Bill is expected to eliminate hunger and malnutrition in India. Critically discuss various apprehensions in its effective implementation along with the concerns it has generated in WTO. [200 words] 10
5. What are the different types of agriculture subsidies given to farmers at the national and at state levels ? Critically analyse the agriculture subsidy regime with reference to the distortions created by it. [200 words] 10
6. India needs to strengthen measures to promote the pink revolution in food industry for ensuring better nutrition and health. Critically elucidate the statement. [200 words] 10
7. Examine the impact of liberalization on companies owned by Indians. Are they competing with the MNCs satisfactorily ? Discuss. [200 words] 10
8. Establish relationship between land reforms, agriculture productivity and elimination of poverty in the Indian economy. Discuss the difficulties in designing and implementation of agriculture friendly land reforms in India. [200 words] 10
9.(a) Discuss the impact of FDI entry into Multi-trade retail sector on supply chain management in commodity trade pattern of the economy. [100 words] 5   (b) Though India allowed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in what is called multi-brand retail through the joint venture route in September 2012, the FDI, even after a year, has not picked up. Discuss the reasons. [100 words] 5
10. Discuss the rationale for introducing Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Bring out critically the reasons for the delay in roll out for its regime. [200 words] 10
11. Write a note on India's green energy corridor to alleviate the problem of conventional energy. [200 words] 10
12. Adoption of PPP model for infrastructure development of the country has not been free of criticism. Critically discuss pros and cons of the model. [200 words] 10
13. Bringing out the circumstances in 2005 which forced amendment to the section 3(d) in Indian Patent Law, 1970, discuss how it has been utilized by the Supreme Court in its judgement in rejecting Novratis' patent application for 'Glivec'. Discuss briefly the pros and cons of the decision. [200 words] 10
14. What do you understand by Fixed Dose Drug Combinations (FDCs) ? Discuss their merits and demerits. [200 words] 10
15. What do you understand by Umpire Decision Review System in Cricket ? Discuss its various components. Explain how silicone tape on the edge of a bat may fool the system ? [200 words] 10
16. (a) What is a digital signature ? What does its authentication mean ? Give various salient built-in features of a digital signature. [100 words] 5     (b) How does the 3D printing technology work ? List out the advantages and disadvantages of the technology. [100 words] 5
17. (a) What is an FRP composite material ? How are they manufactured ? Discuss their application in aviation and automobile industries. [100 words] 5     (b) What do you understand by Run-of-river hydroelectricity project? How is it different from any other hydroelectricity project ? [100 words]  5
18. How important are vulnerability and risk assessment for pre-disaster management? As an administrator, what are key areas that you would focus on in a Disaster Management System. [200 words] 10
19. What are the consequences of Illegal mining ? Discuss the Ministry of Environment and Forests' concept of GO AND NO GO zones for coal mining sector. [200 words] 10
20. Enumerate the National Water Policy of India. Taking river Ganges as an example, discuss the strategies which may be adopted for river water pollution control and management.     What are the legal provisions of management and handling of hazardous wastes in India ? [200 words] 10
21. Money laundering poses a serious security threat to a country's economic sovereignty. What is its significance for India and what steps are required to be taken to control this menance ? [200 words] 10
22. What are social networking sites and what security implications do these sites present ? [200 words] 10
23. Cyber warfare is considered by some defense analysts to be a larger threat than even Al Qaeda or terrorism. What do you understand by Cyber warfare? Outline the cyber threats which India is vulnerable to and bring out the state of the country's preparedness to deal with the same. [200 words] 10
24. Article 244 of the Indian Constitution relates to administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. Analyse the impact of non-implementation of the provisions of the Fifth schedule on the growth of Left Wing extremism. [200 words] 10
25. How far are India's internal security challenges linked with border management particularly in view of the long porous borders with most countries of South Asia and Myanmar ? [200 words] 10

UPSC Civil Service Mains Essay 2013 Question Paper

Write an essay on any one of the following topics, in not more than 2500 words. (250 marks)
1. Be the change you want to see in others (Gandhi)
2. Is the Colonial mentality hindering India’s Success?
3. GDP (Gross Domestic Product) along with GDH (Gross Domestic Happiness) would be the right indices for judging the wellbeing of a country
4. Science and technology is the panacea for the growth and security of the nation.

UPSC EXAMINATION SCHEDULE 2014

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-II KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)

21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (C)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)

41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)

89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER

New format of civil services exams declared

The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) has notified fresh changes in the format of country’s prestigious exam- the Civil Services Exam conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). The decision had come in the wake of recommendations of a committee headed by Prof Arun S Nigavekar, former Chairman, UGC.

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UPSC Civil Service Examination, 2013

 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2013 on 26/05/2013 for recruitment of various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.

Eligibility:

• Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2013. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
• Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
• Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
• Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
  • General Category : Four
  • Physical Handicapped : Seven
  • OBC : Seven
  • SC / ST : No Limit

Online Application Submission : Candidates must apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php from 05/03/203 to 04/04/2013 .

Fee: Deposit Rs.100/- (No fee for Female/ SC/ST/PH candidates) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/ State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/ Sate Bank of Hyderabad/ State Bank of Mysore/ State Bank of Patiala /State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/ Master Credit/ Debit Card.

Candidates can obtain details of the examination, venues of the examination and syllabus etc. at  http://upsc.gov.in/exams/notifications/2013/csp_ifs/index.htm

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1

     

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-2

     

UPSC CIVILS 2012 ESSAY (COMPULSORY) QUESTION PAPER

Write an Essay  on any one of the following topics?    200 Marks



1.     In the Context of Gandhiji’s views on the matter,  explore on an evalutionary scale, the terms Swadhinata, Swaraj, and Dharmarajya. Critically  Comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian Democracy.


2.     Is the Criticism  that the ‘Public-Private-Partnership’ (PPP) model for development is more of  a bane that a boon in the Indian context, Justified?


3.     Science and Mysticism : Are they Compatible?


4.     Managing work and home - is the Indian working woman getting a fair deal?

PERSONS IN NEWS 2012 (International)

(Useful for UPSC Civil Services Mains)

Alana Seebarran

Alana Seebarran of Guyana has been crowned as the Miss India Worldwide 2012 in the 23rd edition of the pageant held in Suriname capital of Paramaribo. 

Alberto Contador

Spanish cyclist Alberto Contador on February 6, 2012 Received a two-year ban for doping during the 2010 Tour de France and was stripped of his victory in the race. Contador tested positive for the banned anabolic agent clenuterol.

Bosusco Paolo

Italian tour operator Bosusco Paolo was finally released by te Odisha State Organising Committee of the outlawed Communist Party of India  (Maoist) in Kandhamal district on April 12, 2012

Chandra Bahadur Dangi

Nepal's Chandra Bahadur Dangi was declared the world's shortest living  man at a ceremony in Kathmandu on February 26, 2012 Dangi, who measured at just 21.5 inches (54.6 centimetres), snatched the title from Junrey Balawing of the Philippines.

Christian Wulff

Germany's President Christian Wulff resigned on February 17, 2012 in a scandal over favours he allegedly received before becoming head of state, creating a major domestic distraction for Chancellor Angela Merkel as she grapples with Europe's debt crisis.

Charles Taylor

A U.N. –backed war crimes court sentenced the former President of Liberin, Charles Taylor, to 50 years in jail on May 30, 2012 for arming rebels in Sierra Leone in return for "blood diamonds" Taylor, 64 was earlier convicted of all 11 counts of war crimes and crimes against humanity for aiding and abetting Sierra Leone's Revolutionary United Front during the country's brutal 1991-2001 civil war.

SUMMITS & CONFERENCES

(Useful for UPSC Civil Services Mains)

OPEC Meet

The 160th Meeting of the Conference of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) convened in Vienna, Austria, on 14 December 2011, under the Chairmanship of its President, HE Eng Rostam Ghasemi, Minister of Petroleum of the Islamic Republic of Iran. The Conference reviewed recent oil market devel-opments, as presented by the Secretary General, in particular supply/ demand projections, as well as the outlook for 2012. The Conference noted, further, that, although world oil demand is forecast to increase slightly during the year 2012, this rise is expected to be partially offset by a projected increase in non-OPEC supply. The Conference decided that its next Ordinary Meeting will convene in Vienna, Austria, on 14 June 2012.

International Conference on climate change, Sustainable agriculture and Public leaderhsip

A two-day International Conference on Climate Change, Sustainable Agriculture and Public Leadership was held in New Delhi. The main objective of this conference was to bring scientists, teachers, researchers, economists, managers and policy makers from around the w orld on a single platform to discuss various aspects of climate change, sustainable agriculture and public leadership and develop a consensus containing a set of valuable recommendations, as a way forward for addressing the issues related to the future climate scenario, Indian agriculture and food security.

First Interpol Global Programme on Anti-Corruption and Asset Recovery

The first Global Programme on Anti-Corruption and Asset licovery for Investigators and Prosecutors (13-18 February,-2012) hosted by the CBI, was at-tended by 39 police officers, Birvestigators and prosecutors from various INTERPOL member countries from across the world, including Australia, Afghanistan, China, Hongkong, Sri Lanka, United Kingdom, jfcrcenesia, Fiji, Malaysia, Nepal, Singapore, Philippines and facia

The main purpose of the Global Programme was to enhance knowledge and skills of investigators and prosecutors in nc icing assets of mass corruption, and making effective use rf 1 egal assistance in international and trans-border investigations. Of India Dr. Manmohan Singh, UN Secretary General Mr. Ban Ki-Moon, and former Governor of California Mr. Arnold Schwarzenegger.