Showing posts with label APPSC GROUP-2. Show all posts
Showing posts with label APPSC GROUP-2. Show all posts

Tuesday, May 8, 2012

Group-II Services recruitment (39/2011) Exam Schedule

The candidates who are applying on-line for the posts of Group-II  Services recruitment vide Notification No.39/2011 are hereby informed that  the written examination for the posts will be held in all the District Centers on  the dates mentioned under: 

Paper  - I  14/07/2012 AN . 
Paper - II 15/07/2012   FN. 
Paper -III 15/07/2012  AN. 

Wednesday, April 25, 2012




Name of the Service                          Existing                        Read as
Executive Posts                                     119                            119
Non-Executive Posts                            406                             502

Online submission is scheduled between 27/04/2012 to 27/05/2012 and Written Examination will be held on 15/07/2012. Candidates are advised to view the Commission’s Website: ( for details.

Tuesday, March 27, 2012

Additional 96 Non-Executive posts in Group II

APPSC has announced an additional 96 posts under Non executive category 

Executive Posts: 119 

Non-Executive Posts: 502 (previous - 406 posts)

Online submission is scheduled between 27/04/2012 to 27/05/2012 and Written 

Examination will be held on 15/07/2012.

Executive Posts: 119posts
  1. Asst. Commercial Tax Officer in A.P. Commercial Taxes Sub-Service: 41posts
    A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University in India established or incorporated by or under Central Act, Provincial Act, a State Act or an Institution recognized by the U.G.C. or an equivalent qualification 
  2. Assistant Labour Officer in A.P. Labour & Employment Sub-Service: 42posts
    A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University in India established or incorporated by or under Central Act, Provincial Act, a State Act or an Institution recognized by the U.G.C. or an equivalent qualification 
  3. Executive Officer Grade-I in A.P. Endowments Sub-Service: 31posts
    A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University in India established or incorporated by or under Central Act, Provincial Act, a State Act or an Institution recognized by the U.G.C. or an equivalent qualification 
  4. Assistant Development Officer in A.P. Handlooms and Textiles Sub- Service: 05posts
    A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University in India established or incorporated by or under Central Act, Provincial Act, a State Act or an Institution recognized by the U.G.C. or an equivalent qualification. (OR) Must posses a Diploma in Textile Technology or a Diploma in Handloom Technology issued by the A.P. State Board of Technical Education or an equivalent qualification.
For more details Click here

Saturday, November 5, 2011



Monday, October 17, 2011




Saturday, October 1, 2011


1. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) 95% of the countrys’s trade was through sea lanes. So to protect the sea lanes, India launched “INS Chennai” the third missile destroyer of project - 15 A.
(b) Chennai is the third and last Kolkata class warship, It is propelled by four gas turbines, and is designed to achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots.
(c) It is being built for the navy at the Garden rich Shipbuildersand Engineers Ltd. (Kolkata)
(d) It will be fitted with the indigenous Supersonic Brah Mos surface to surface missile system.

2. SIMBEX is an annual naval exercise this was formalised in 1994. between India and ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Singapore

3. Consider the following Statements : -
1. Cryogenic engines use liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen at very low temperatures,
2. This technology is needed to put heavier, Communication Satellites in a geosynchronous transfer orbit with an apogee of 36,000 km and a perigee of 200 km.
Which of the above statement is in correct ?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The Liquid propulsion systems centre (LPSC) of the Indian space Research organisation (ISRO) is at ?
(a) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(c) Hydrabad (Andhra Prades)
(d) Ahmedabad (Gujrat)

5. Consider the following statements :
1. GSLV- D3 has failed to put in orbit an advanced communication satellite called GSTA-4.
2. The main high lights of GSAT-4 were its communication system in ka band. Its GAGAN Payload which would help in the landing accuracy of commercial aircraft at airports in India.
3. GAGAN Stands for GPS-aided Geo-Augmented navigation System. GPS is short for Global positioning system.
Which of the above statement is/are wrong ?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 3 Only
(d) Non of the above

6. Consider the following statements :
1. Cobalt - 60 was leaked when a worker cut open a pece of metal in a Delhi market this cobalt-60 is used for medical purposes, industrial radiography for nondestructive testing and in the food processing industry for irradiation process.
2. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is meant to maintain a “Cradle to grave” System to keep track of such equipment, including through on-site inspection.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above.

7. In a break through the scientist have isolated an exotic radioactive gas which they claim would
make it easier to detect under ground nuclear tests from air samples. the name of this radioactive gas is ?
(a) Xenon - 133.
(b) Xenon - 135
(c) Nion - x - 133.
(d) Nion - x - 135.

8. The Garden Reach shipbuilder and Engineers limited has built the country’s first Anti submarine warfare
corvette (ASWC). The name of this corvette is ?
(a) Andaman sea
(b) Ganga Sagar
(c) Kamorta
(d) Kachu baria

9. ‘MALABAR’ is a naval exercise between India and ?
(a) Singapore
(b) U.S.A
(c) China
(d) Britain

10. Consider the following Statements : -
1. Brah Mos armed with su- 30MKI would be a game changer in the India ocean because it has a range of 290 Km and Can also travel at a top speed of mach 2.8 barely 3-4 metres above the sea Surface, the missile cannot be intercepted by any Known weapon system in the world.
2. Brah Mos Acrospace, a joint venture between India and Russia has started designing a hypersonic Verson
of the Brahmos missile Brahmos - II
Which of the above statement is / are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. The Defence ministry announced plans to make the Defence Research and Development organisation
(DRDO) more accountable and leaner on the basis of the recommendations made by ?
(a) V.K. Saraswat
(b) Mr. Prabhat kumar
(c) P. Rama Rao
(d) P. Suryakant

12. The union Government has given the approval for the setting up of an autonomous defence university that
is expected to provide inputs to strategic policy making. This university will come up in ?
(a) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(b) Gaziabad (Uttar pradesh)
(c) New Delhi
(d) Lucknow (Uttar pradesh)

13. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has set up a Committee to study the Capability
of the national Aerospace Laboratory (NAL) to build Civil aircraft. The panel is headed by ?
(a) V.K. Saraswat
(b) K. Kasturirangan
(c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) S. Ramakrishnan.

14. Consider the following Statements :
1. Agni - II is a Surface - to - surface intermediate range missile that can carry nuclear weapons and has a range of more than 2000 km.
2. The missile re-entry vehicle is made with C a r b o n - Carbon Composits. to withstood very high temperatures of up to 3,000 degree Celsius.
which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Recently which Country has Successfuly launched a rocket to probe the planet venus ?
(a) China
(b) U.S.A
(c) European Space Agency
(d) Japan

16. The Garuda Series is a joint Air force exericise which started in 2003. In 2010, the singa pore Air force
was a part of this exercise. The Garuda exercise is conducted between india and ?
(a) U.S.A
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) Japan

17. Consider the following statements :
1. Medium range surface - to- surface prithni-II ballistic missile is a single stage, liquid propelled missile, that is capable of striking targets at a maximum range of 350km.
2. The Prithvi is the first of the missiles developed under the country’s Integrated Guided missile development
programme. It has now two variants - Air force version (Prithvi-II) and Naval (Dhanush) both having a range of 350 km.
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. C - 130 J Super Hercules is the World’s most advanced airlifter. Indian Air Force has purchased six of these airlifter from ?
(a) U.S.A
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Israel

19. Vajra prahar is a bilateral military exercise between India and ?
(a) Banladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A

20. Shatrujeet and Yudh Abhyas are the two bilateral military exericise between India and ?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) U.S.A
(d) Israel

21. Hand in Hand is a bilateral military war game between India and ?
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) U.S.A

22. Consider the following statements :
1. INSAT - 4 B satellite of the ISRO have developed a glitch power supply from one of its two solar panels has been cut off, affecting telecast by several channels.
2. INSAT- 4 B, Built by the ISRO Satellite Centre in Bangalore, was put in orbit in March 2007 by an Ariane launch Vehicle from kourou in Franch Guyana.
Which of the above statement is/are in correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Consider the following statements :
1. ISRO’s Polar Satellite launch Vehicle (PSLV - C13) has successfully put five satellite in the orbit.
2. This was the 16th Consecutive Successful fight of PSLV.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

24. The DRDO is building a new test range for its aeronautics missions for flight-testing sophisticated
unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) air - to ground weapons, huge parachutes, light combat Aircraft Tejas, aerostates and also for testing electronic warfare systemThis new test range is in which state?
(a) Solapur (Mharashtra)
(b) Vishaka patnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Chitradurgo (Karnataka)
(d) Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu)

25. The 600 MW Loharing Pala power Project, Constructed by NTPC is in news recently. It is on the river of ?
(a) Bhagirathi
(b) Satluj
(c) Chenab
(d) Indus

26. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s Second moon mission, chandrayaan - II will carry Seven indigenous payloads.
2. The Rs. 425 Crore mission is Scheduled to be launched in 2013.
3. Chandryaan - 2, with a lift- off weight of 2, 650 kg will be launched by GSLV from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
4. ISRO’s physical Research Laboratory is in Ahmedabad.
Which of the above statement’s are correct.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 2 and 4
(d) All of the above

27. Consider the following Statements :
1. The Fast Breeder test Reactor (FBTR) is at the heart of the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) at kalpakkam, and it is a forerunner to the second stage of the country’s nuclear power programme.
2. Fast Reactors use “Fast” (high energy) neutrons to sustain the fission process, in contrast to water colled reactors that use thermal (low energy) neutrons. Fast reactors are commonly known as breeders because they breed more fuel than they consume.
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Nuclear programme
1. In the first stage, India is using natural uranium as fuel to pressurised Heavy water Reactors (PHWR).
2. In the Second Stage, plutonium reprocessed from the spent fuel of the PHWRs, depleted uranium and
thorium kept in the blanket form will be used as fuel to power a series of breeder reactors. Thorium used in the breeders gets converted into uranium- 233, a fissile material.
3. In the third stage, reactors will use thorium and uranium - 233 to generate electricity.
4. India’s Nuclear Fuel Complex is in Hydrabad.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3,
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above

29. “Indra” is a bilateral military exercise between India and ?
(a) Russia
(b) U.S.A
(c) France
(d) None of the above.

30. Which of the following statement is incorrrect ?
(a) Rustom I, a medium altitude and long- endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehichle (UAV).
(b) Lakshy (UAV) -A drone that is remotely piloted by a ground control station provides aerial subtargets for
live fire training.
(c) Nishant (UAV) is a Surveillance aircraft primarily tasked with intelligence gathering over enemy
(d) All the above UAV are developed by the Hydrabad -based Aeronautical Development Establishment

31. “Indradhanush” is a bilateral Air Exercise between India and ?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) France
(c) U.K
(d) Israel

32. Scorpian Submarins are built by the Mazagaaon Dock limited this is expected to be available to the Indian Navy in 2015. India got the scorpian Submarins from?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) U.K.
(d) Israel

33. What is Project 75-I ?
(a) It is a project for building indigenous AWACS.
(b) It is a project for developing Kaveri engine.
(c) It is a project for developing Submarines.
(d) It is a project for developing Arjun- Mark II Tank

34. “Connect 2 Decode” (C2D) Project is related with ?
(a) It is related with the biological and genetic information relating to the mycobacterim tuberculosis (M+b) genome.
(b) It is related with decoding of HYV virus.
(c) It is related with the decoding of Bt brinjal and its effect on human health.
(d) None of the above.

35. What is top kill operation ?
(a) It is a military operation launched by NATO force in the Af-pak region to kill the top talibani leaders.
(b) It is a military operation launched by the Israel force in the Gaza area to kill the top hamas leaders.
(c) It is the use of heavy drilling fluids that would be injected into the well to stem the flow of oil and gas in the gulf of mexico.
(d) It is a military operation launched by the Indian force to kill the top naxal leaders.

36. Consider the following Statements :
1. Rare earth elements are a select group of 17 elements that are crucial to many of the world’s most advanced technologies, including missiles, mp3, mobile phones.
2. China is estimated to account for more than 95% of the global supply of rare earth elements.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

37. Consider the following statements :
1. Calcium carbide is generally used to ripen fruits.
2. Clalcium Carbide, Popularly Known as masala, It has carcinogenic Properties and is used in gas welding for steel goods.
3. Other way to ripen fruits is include dipping fruits in a solution of ethephon or exposing fruits to ethylene gas.
Which of the above statements is / are correct ?
(a) 1 an d 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

38. India has joined the Thirty Metre Telescope (TMT) project, the next generation astronomical observatory
that will be located in ?
(a) Hawaii (U.S.A)
(b) Tegucigalpa (Honduras)
(c) Managua ( Nicaragua)
(d) Havana (Cuba)

39. Consider the following statements regarding Thirty Meters Telescope (TMT)
1. The proposal to join the TMT Project was initiated by three Indian institutes engaged in astronomy . The IUCAA, The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)
Bangalore, and the Aryabhata Research Institute of observational Sciences (ARIES) Nanital.
2. TMT is scheduled to begain operations in 2018. Which of the above statement is / are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. In which country the archeologists have uncovered an ancient clay fragment dating back some 3,400 years, the oldest ever sample of writing found ?
(a) Jerusalem (Israel)
(b) madurai (India)
(c) Jakarta (Indonesia)
(d) Athens (Greece)

41. Celebrating 15 years of mobility in India, which company has announced an initiative called project “ujwal”, It is to provide 100% house hold mobility in five villages in Raebareli.
(a) Motorola
(b) Nokia
(c) Reliance
(d) Tata

42. Consider the following statements :
1. The department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is get
permission to locate the India- based neutrino observatory (INO) at singara in Nilgiri district in Tamil Nadu.
2. The INO is a major underground experimental facility to study the elusive and nearly mass- less fundamental particles of nature called neutrinos.
Which of the above statement is /are in correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Nither 1 nor 2.

43. Consider the following statements regarding Nagoya protocol ?
1. It is a new international treaty to ensure that the benefit of natural resources and their commercial derivatives were shared with local communities.
2. The protocol was Signed in the Japanese city of Nagoya, hence it is called Nagoya protocol.
3. United states one of the largest users of natural resources is not signed the protocol.
4. The next U.N. Summit on biodiversity is to be held in New Delhi in 2012.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

44. The first Indian Scientific Expedition to the south pole was launched recently the name of the India station on the antarctic is ?
(a) Maitri
(b) Sarada
(c) Sptami
(d) Tawangi

45. Consider the following statements :
1. “Synchrotron” - a high energy electron - accelerator typically hundreds of metres in diameter, where electrons move at a high speeds close to the speed of light through a circular tunnel generating bright beams of electromagatic radiation.
2. Indian Institute of science is going to install the “Synchrotron” in its campus.
Which of the above statement is/are in correct .
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Match the following
List I (wild life Sanctuary) List II (States)
A. Majthal wild life sanctuary 1.Andhra pradesh
B. Chambal river sanctuary 2. Himachal pradesh
C. Kolleru lake Sanctuary 3. Rajas than
D. Narayan sagar sanctuary 4. Gujrat
     A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3

47. Which India’s national park has the highest density of tigers in the world ? previously this status was held by Corbett Tiger reserve.
(a) Kaziranga
(b) Manas
(c) Sundarban
(d) Pench

48. Olive ridley turtle lay their eggs, generally at the nesting site in ?
(a) Goa Coast
(b) Orissa Coast
(c) Bengal Coast
(d) Tamil Nadu Coast

49. Consider the following statemens :
1. India has released its first green house gas emissions inventory Since 1994 - Showing a 30% fall in the emissions intensity of the GDP from that date till 2007.
2. The 30% drop in the emissions per unit of GDP boded well for India’s voluntary target of reducing emissions intensity further by 20 to 25 % by 2025
3. In per Capita terms, emissions rose from 1.4 tonnes to 1.7 tonnes without taking forestary compansations into account.
Which of the above statements is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

50. Whatis REDD + ?
(a) It is the U.N.’s programme for Reducing Emission from Deforestation and forest degradation.
(b) It is the U.N’s programme for Research in Ecology in Developing world.
(c) It is a programme launched by the Red cross Society for making awarness of blood donation.
(d) It is a programme launched by India for Reducing Emission in Defence sector.

51. Consider the following statements :
1. Jarawas people are lived in Andaman Island.
2. Jarawas people lived with out contact with outsiders for probably about 55,000 years until 1998.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Consider the following statements :
1. The nilgiri, Nanda Devi, Sundar bans, Gulf of mannar, Pachmarhi, Nokrek and simlipal reserves have been included in a world network of biosphere reserves.
2. Biosphere reserves are sites recognised under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme, which Innovate and demonstrate approaches to conservation and sustainable development.
3. In a biosphere reserve, a holistic approach is adoted for conservation of the core, buffer and transition areas to ensure sustainable development. Human occupants of the buffer and transition areas form an integral part of the reserve.
4. Great nicobar, manas and kanjan janga might be declared biosphere reserve in India.
Which of the above Statements are correct.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above.

53. Consider the following statements regarding Vulture conservation :
1. Over the past decade nearly 99% of the vultures in India have been brought to the point of extinction with a veterinary drug, Diclofenac, which leads to kidney failure.
2. The valture conservation Breeding centre (VCBC) is in Pinjore (Haryana), Rajabhatkhawa (West Bengal) and in Assam.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. Consider the following statements : -
1. The Ministry of Environment and Forests and the defence Research and Development organisation have
launched a major national initiative for Seabuckthorn cultivation in the high- altitude, cold desert ecosystems under the Leh declaration.
2. Sea buck thorn, also called the “wounder plant” and “Ladakh gold” has multi- purpose medicinal
and nutritional properties, and also helps in soil conservation and nitrogen fixation.
3. Long considered a hurble shrub of the himalayas, every part of the plant - fruit, leaf, twig, root and thorn- has been traditionally used for medicine, nutritional supplements, fuel and fencing.
4. The initiative is to be included in the submission on cold desert Ecosystems to be established under the green India mission- which is a part of the National Action plan on climate change.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of the above

55. The 2000 - MW lower subansiri Hydro- Electric project of the national Hydroelectric power coporation (WHPC) is at ?
(a) Assam
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) West Sengal
(d) Bhutan.

56. Math the following :
List I (Grass land) List II (State)
A. Kuno - palpur wild life sanctuaries. 1. Assam
B. Nauradehi wild life sanctuaries. 2. Rajasthan.
C. Shahgarh Landscape 3. Madhy pradesh
D. Manas 4. Madhy pradesh
     A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 1 2 4

57. Consider the following statements :
1. Cheetah - the only large wild mammalian species that India has lost.
2. Cheetah will be reintroduced from middle East, where North African Cheetahs are bread.
Which of the above statement is/ are incorrect ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Consider the following statements : -
1. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) based in New Delhi has developed “Oilzapper” technology for containing the oil leak that happened from MSC chitra.
2. The process of using oilzapper technology is called bioremediation. In this process a combination of microbes or bacteria is used to clean the oil Spill. The microbes feed on oil and degrade it completely. These
microbes die with in few hour and form food for other marine animal.
3. Another method is chemical method where emulsifyers are Sprayed over the slick. It does not clean up the oil, but makes it invisible,
4. Other method is creating makeshift bioremediation tanks near the affected area. In this method the contaninated Sand has to be physically scooped out and shifted to the tanks.

1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (c)
2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (d)
3. (d) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c)
4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (d)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (b)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c)
7. (a) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (c)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (d)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (d)
10. (c) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (a) 50. (a)

Tuesday, June 14, 2011



Saturday, June 11, 2011

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

Indian History
(Exam Held on 20-2-2011)

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)

3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)

4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)

5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)

6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)

7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)

8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)

10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)

11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)

12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)

13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)

14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)

16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)

18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)

19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)

20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)

21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)

23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)

25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)

26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)

27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)

28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)

30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)

31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)

34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)

36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)

37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)

38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)

39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)

41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)

42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)

46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)

47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)

48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)

50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

51. Bahlul Lodi’s significant achievement was the successful war against the underwritten kingdom of—
(A) Mewat
(B) Jaunpur
(C) Chandwar
(D) Sambhal
Ans : (B)

52. Rulers of which kingdom built Atala Masjid and Lal Darwaza Masjid ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Khandesh
(C) Malwa
(D) Jaunpur
Ans : (D)

53. Rai Bharmal wrote on Muslim Literary traditions in the following language—
(A) Persian
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Arabic
(D) Turkish
Ans : (A)

54. ‘Chaitanya Charitamrita’ was authored by—
(A) Wasweshwara
(B) Madhav
(C) Ramanand
(D) Krishnadas Kaviraj
Ans : (D)

55. Who succeeded Nizamuddin Aulia ?
(A) Sheikh Farid
(B) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chiraghi-Delhi
(C) Sheikh Salim Chishti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

56. Raidas, Sena and Kabir were the followers of—
(A) Namdeo
(B) Ramanuj
(C) Vallabhacharya
(D) Ramanand
Ans : (D)

57. When was Vijayanagar visited by Abdurrajjak ?
(A) 1443
(B) 1433
(C) 1423
(D) 1427
Ans : (A)

58. Tuluva dynasty was founded by—
(A) Narasa Nasyaka
(B) Immadi Narsimha
(C) Vir Narsimha
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

59. Who founded the independent Bahamani kingdom in South India ?
(A) Abu Muzaffar Alauddin Bahmanshah
(B) Mujahid Shah
(C) Muhammad Shah I
(D) Adil Shah
Ans : (A)

60. Who founded the independent Muslim kingdom of Malwa ?
(A) Hoshangshah
(B) Mahmudshah
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) Dilawarkhan
Ans : (D)

61. Babur had three wives. Which one of the following was not his wife ?
(A) Maham
(B) Gulrus
(C) Gulbadan
(D) Dilbar
Ans : (C)

62. Who was Mehdi Khwaza ?
(A) Ruler of Bihar
(B) Prime Minister of Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Brother-in-law of Humayun
(D) Brother of Babur
Ans : (C)

63. Humayun ascended the throne at Agra on—
(A) 7th January 1530
(B) 29th December 1530
(C) 23rd September 1530
(D) 16th February 1530
Ans : (B)

64. Which of the following statements is true of the Sher Shah Suri ?
(A) He was a fanatic Muslim
(B) He was a staunch Muslim but not a fanatic
(C) He was a staunch Muslim and ill-treated Hindus
(D) He was intolerant towards other religions
Ans : (B)

65. Which out of the following was not one of the purposes of ‘Sarais’ built during Sher Shah ?
(A) Post-house
(B) For travellers
(C) For officers
(D) Warehouse for arms and ammunition
Ans : (D)

66. Who was not appointed as Vazir during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) Bahadurkhan Uzbeg
(B) Shamsuddin Atkakhan
(C) Todarmal
(D) Nizamuddin Khalifa
Ans : (A)

67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(A) Akbar—Ralph Fich
(B) Darashikoh—Manucci
(C) Jahangir—Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Shah Jahan—Jourdon
Ans : (D)

68. Which of the following statements is true of Akbar’s policy towards the Hindus ?
(A) He abolished the pilgrim tax but not the Jaziya
(B) He abolished the Jaziya, but not the pilgrim tax
(C) He abolished both the Jaziya and the pilgrim tax
(D) He neither abolished the pilgrim tax nor the Jaziya
Ans : (C)

69 Who was the author of ‘Nuskhai-Dilkusha’ ?
(A) Khafi Khan
(B) Murshidkuli Khan
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Bhimsen Burhanpuri
Ans : (D)

70. Guru Govind Singh was killed in 1708 at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Keeratpur
(C) Nanded
(D) Anandpur
Ans : (C)

71. Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdusamad were the court painter during the time of—
(A) Humayun, Akbar
(B) Akbar, Jahangir
(C) Jahangir, Shah Jahan
(D) Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following elements was not found in Akbar’s architecture ?
(A) Use of red sandstone
(B) Hindu elements
(C) Foliated arches
(D) Charbagh surrounding the tombs
Ans : (C)

73. Who composed ‘Ganga Lahri’ ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Panditraj Jagannath
(D) Haridasa
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following was not a silver coin during Akbar ?
(A) Jalal
(B) Dam
(C) Darab
(D) Pandau
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following revolts had agrarian causes at its root ?
(A) Rajput revolt
(B) Satnami and Jat revolt
(C) Sikh revolt
(D) Maratha revolt
Ans : (B)

76. From whom Shahji received the jagir of Poona ?
(A) Mughals
(B) Adilshah
(C) Nizamshahi
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (B)

77. What is ‘Mokasa’ ?
(A) Jagir
(B) Religious practice
(C) Cavalry
(D) Religious endowment
Ans : (A)

78. Who was not alive at the time of Shivaji’s Coronation ?
(A) Ganga Bhatt
(B) Tukaram
(C) Ramdas
(D) Dadaji Konddeva
Ans : (D)

79. Which of the following Peshwas is connected with the treaty of Sagola ?
(A) Balaji Bajirao
(B) Balaji Vishwanath
(C) Bajirao I
(D) Bajirao II
Ans : (A)

80. In which year Ahilyabai Holkar breathed her last ?
(A) 1792
(B) 1793
(C) 1794
(D) 1795
Ans : (D)

81. The French East India Company was formed in—
(A) 1664 AD
(B) 1660 AD
(C) 1656 AD
(D) 1680 AD
Ans : (A)

82. La Bourdonnais was the Governor of—
(A) Madras
(B) Pondicherry
(C) Mauritius
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

83. Mir Kasim removed his court from Calcutta to—
(A) Patna
(B) Dacca
(C) Monghir
(D) Purnea
Ans : (C)

84. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) English and the French
(B) English and the Marathas
(C) English and the Nawab of Carnatic
(D) English and Hyderali
Ans : (A)

85. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power of—
(A) French
(B) Dutch
(C) Portuguese
(D) Danes
Ans : (B)

86. The Treaty of Surat was concluded by the British with the following Maratha chief—
(A) Narayan Rao
(B) Madhav Rao
(C) Nana Phadnvis
(D) Raghoba
Ans : (D)

87. The triple alliance against Tipu was formed by Cornwallis consisted of the following—
(A) The English, Nizam and the Marathas
(B) The English, Nizam and Awadh
(C) The English, Nizam and Carnatic
(D) The English, Marathas and Carnatic
Ans : (A)

88. In the Second Sikh War the decisive battle was fought at—
(A) Chilianwala
(B) Peshawar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Multan
Ans : (C)

89. In the Third Maratha War, the English defeated Peshwa Bajirao II at—
(A) Mahidpur
(B) Sitabuldi
(C) Kirki
(D) Bassein
Ans : (D)

90. The Treaty of Shrirangpattam took place in—
(A) 1791
(B) 1792
(C) 1793
(D) 1794
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following states was not annexed to British Empire by Dalhousie under the doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Baghat
(B) Nagpur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Benaras
Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following rebellions is associated with Sidhu and Kanhu ?
(A) Munda Rebellion
(B) Kole Rebellion
(C) Santhal Rebellion
(D) Bhil Rebellion
Ans : (C)

93. The following officer was connected with the suppression of Thugee—
(A) Hastings
(B) Sleeman
(C) Bentinck
(D) Aukland
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following British Officers was not in favour of annexation of Awadh ?
(A) Outram
(B) Napier
(C) Hugh Rose
(D) Sleeman
Ans : (D)

95. Charles Metcalf was the Governor General of India during—
(A) 1835-36
(B) 1839-40
(C) 1837-38
(D) 1832-33
Ans : (A)

96. Sindh was invaded during the following Governor General’s time—
(A) Lord Aukland
(B) Lord Ellenborough
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans : (B)

97. The Second Burmese War was fought in the year—
(A) 1849
(B) 1850
(C) 1851
(D) 1852
Ans : (B)

98. Which one of the following Acts abolished the trading rights of the East India Company ?
(A) Regulating Act of 1773
(B) Charter Act of 1813
(C) Charter Act of 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ryotwari Settlement : Madras
(B) Talukdari Settlement : Bombay
(C) Permanent Settlement : Bengal
(D) Mahalwari Settlement : North-Western Province
Ans : (B)

100. The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under the British rule was due to—
1. Fragmentation of Landholdings
2. Decline of cottage industries
3. Lack of development of irrigational facilities
4. Introduction of cash crops Which of these are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

101. At Lucknow the revolt of 1857 broke out on—
(A) May 30, 1857
(B) June 4, 1857
(C) May 15, 1857
(D) June 15, 1857
Ans : (B)

102. The Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta was founded by—
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Sir Williams Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Keshabchandra Sen
Ans : (B)

103. The Theosophical Society allied itself to the—
(A) Christian revival movement
(B) Islamic revival movement
(C) Hindu revival movement
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

104. Which of the following statements about the Ramakrishna Mission is wrong ?
(A) It held the pure Vedantic doctrine as its ideal
(B) It aimed at the development of the highest spirituality in man
(C) It prohibited the worship of images
(D) It recognised modern developments in Science and Technology
Ans : (C)

105. Fifth Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1889 at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Dacca
Ans : (C)

106. The moderates and extremists were united in the Congress Session of—
(A) Lahore
(B) Bombay
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

107. Who among the following was not in Khilafat Committee ?
(A) Majhar ul Haq
(B) Hasrat Mohani
(C) Maulana Shauqat Ali
(D) Hakim Azmalkhan
Ans : (A)

108. Who among the following was the president of All India Trade Union Congress in 1929 ?
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) N. M. Joshi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

109. Swaraj Party was formed by—
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

110. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was concluded between—
(A) Congress and the British Government
(B) Muslim League and the British Government
(C) Congress and the Muslim League
(D) Congress, the Muslim League and the British Government
Ans : (C)

111. An All Party Conference appointed a sub-committee with Ali Imam, Tejbahadur Sapru and Subhash Bose. Who was presiding this subcommittee ?
(A) Maulana Azad
(B) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(C) Madan Mohan Malviya
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

112. Who among the following participated in all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil : Second Lahore Conspiracy Case
(B) Surya Sen : Chatgaon Case
(C) Bhagat Singh : Kakori Conspiracy Case
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad : Delhi Bomb Case
Ans : (B)

114. When were the Congress Governments formed in seven out of eleven provinces ?
(A) July 1935
(B) July 1936
(C) July 1937
(D) July 1938
Ans : (C)

115. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chelmsford : Rowlatt Act
(B) Lord Reading : Delhi Darbar
(C) Lord Willington : Arriving of Prince of Wales in India
(D) Lord Hardinge : II Round Table Conference
Ans : (A)

116. Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the government of Free India at—
(A) Burma
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

117. In December 1931 two school girl students killed the District Judge in Komilla by shooting—
(A) Suniti Choudhary and Bina Das
(B) Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary
(C) Bina Das and Kalpana Datta
(D) Kalpana Datta and Shanti Ghosh
Ans : (B)

118. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chuar Revolt : Orissa
(B) Sanyasi Revolt : Bihar
(C) Parlakhemundi Revolt : Orissa
(D) Rampa Revolt : Karnatak
Ans : (B)

119. The following countries undertook the responsibility of organising the Bandung Conference—
(A) Indonesia, Burma, Cambodia
(B) India, Burma, Indonesia
(C) Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Cambodia
(D) China, Japan, Thailand
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution declares it is a primary duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the “Improvement of the Public Health” ?
(A) Article 46
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49
Ans : (B)

Wednesday, May 11, 2011


1.     The total length of the Coastline of India including mainland, Lakshadweep Island and Andaman & Nikobar Island is
    (a) 2933 km     (b) 7516.6 km
    (c) 6230     (d) 7215 km
2.    Which country has not the common border with India?
    (a) China     (b) Bhutan
    (c) Maldives     (d) Nepal
3.     The Brahmaputra rises from Tibet. In Tibet this river is known as
    (a) Padma         (b) Tsangpo
    (c) Dihang         (d) Yamuna
4.     Sri Lanka is separated from India by
    (a) Palk strait     (b) Arabian Sea
    (c) Gulf of Adan     (d) Gulf Jafana
5.    Which one of these not a principal tributary of the river Brahmaputra in India?
    (a) Subansiri (b) Dhansiri
    (c) Chanan (d) Pulhimari
6.    Which river of Daccan region not flowing eastward?
    (a) Godavari (b) Krishna
    (c) Mahanadi (d) Tapti
7.    Which is the correct sequence of the rivers flowing in southern peninsular India in context of length?
    (a) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi
    (b) Godavari, Cauvery, Mahanadi, Krishna
    (c) Krishna, Cauvery, Godavari, Mahanadi
    (d) Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Cauvery
8.     Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is situated in which city of India?
    (a) New Delhi     (b) Kolkata
    (c) Surat     (d) Mumbai
9.    What is the number of spokes in wheel of Ashoka Chakra placed in the National Flag?
    (a) 40     (b) 24
    (c) 16     (d) 32
10.    The new flag code of India ‘flag code’ has taken effect from
    (a) 26 January 2002
    (b) 26 January 2006
    (c) 26 January 2008
    (d) 26 January 2009
11.     The National Anthem ‘Jan Gana Man’, composed originally in Bengali by
(a) Bankim Chand
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Arbindo Ghosh
(d) Somnath Chatterjee
12.    When was the constitutional Assembly adopted the National Anthem?
(a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 24 January 2006
(c) 24 January, 1949 (d) 26 January, 1949.
13.     The National Song ‘Vande Mataram’ composed in Sanskrit by
(a) Bankim Chandra
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Jyoti Basu
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
14.    Match the following:
    List I             List II
    (State)         (Density of population)
    A. Haryana         1. 109
    B. Orissa             2. 165
    C. Rajasthan         3. 236
    D. Himachal Pradesh    4. 478
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
15.    Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) National Tree – The Banyan
(b) National Fruit – Mango
(c) National Bird – Swan
(d) National Animal – Tiger
16. Indian Constitution was adopted by     constitutional assembly on
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 26 November 1949
(c) 26 November, 1950
(d) 15 August, 1950
17. At present, what is the number of members in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 244 (b) 233
(c) 250 (d) 230
18. In order to be chosen a member of parliament, what is the lower age limit?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years
(c) 35 years (d) 40 years
19.Which one is not a standing committee of the parliament?
(a) Public account committee
(b) Committee on estimates
(c) Public undertakings committee
(d) Committee on MPCADS
20.Which department is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
(a) Department of official language
(b) Department of boarder management
(c) Department of states
(d) Department of public distribution
21. The chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by
(a) The President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister (d) HRD Minister
22. On which day the civil services day celebrated every year in India?
(a) April 28 (b) April 21
(c) June 5 (d) July 10
23. A committee of parliament on official languages was constituted in which year?
(a) 1956 (b) 1976 (c) 1983 (d) 1987
24.Which statement is not true about Inter-state Council?
(a) The inter-state council is a recommendatory body.
(b) It was constituted in year 1990 under Article 263 of Indian constitution.
(c) Prime Minister is the chairman of the interstate council.
(d) None
25.     Consider the following statements
1. Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body.
2. The election commission was established on 25 January 1950.
3. The president appoints chief election commissioner and election commissioners.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
26. The National Bamboo Mission was launched in 2006-07 as a centrally sponsored scheme to promote the growth of bamboo sector. Which one is not the aim of National Bamboo Mission.
(a) Plantation Development
(b) Handicrafts Development
(c) Marketing
(d) Establishment of paper industries.
27.    Which one of these are not correct about Micro irrigation?
(a) The main objective of this scheme is to increase the coverage of area under improved method of irrigation.
(b) Quality production is the main concern of Micro irrigation.
(c) During the current year  10 crore has been earmarked for North East region.
(d) This is only implemented in western India.
28. Recognizing the importance of institutional support for the development of horticulture in the North East region, the establishment of a central Institute of Horticulture has been approved for implementation in 2005-06. In which state the central Institute of horticulture established.
(a) Manipur (b) Nagaland
(c) Tripura (d) Mizoram
29.    What is the objective of multi state cooperative societies Act 2002?
(a) Use of modern tools for more efficient and transparent functioning.
(b) Enabling the business growth by providing a conducive environment.
(c) Strengthening and expanding the multistate co-operative societies.
(d) All of the above.
30. Kisan Call Centres (KCC) have been functioning since
(a) 21 January 2004 (b) 26 January 2005
(c) 26 January 2006 (d) 21 January 2007
31.What is the number of Farmers benefited with Kisan Call centres since start functioning of this programme till December 2010?
(a) 47.19 Lakh (b) 36.13 Lakh
(c) 38.17 Lakh (d) 45.12 Lakh
32. National e-governance plan in Agriculture is started by which department of centre to improve services accessible to farmers using information and communication technology?
(a) Department of Agriculture & Cooperation
(b) Department of IT
(c) Department of HRD
(d) Department of Irrigation
33. The National Oilseeds and Vegetable Oils Development (NOVOD) board was constituted on
(a) 8th March 1984
(b) 5th March 1985
(c) 8th March 1986
(d) 5th March 1987
34. Consider the following statements
1. Small Farmers Agri-business Consortium (SFAC) was registered by Department of Agriculture and Cooperation on 18th January, 1994.
2. SAFC is managed by the Board of Managing Consisting of 20 members and Chaired by the union minister of agriculture as its ex-officio president.
3. SAFC has established 18 state level SFACS by contributing corpus fund.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
35. The National Academy of Dance, Drama and Music named Sangeet Natak Akademi was the first of these entities to be established by a resolution of the Ministry of Education on 31st May 1952. Who was the then Minister of Education in India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Indira Gandhi
36. ‘Gharana’ and ‘Sampradaya’ is related to which field of life in india?
(a) Dance (b) Music
(c) Drama (d) Sports
37. This organization is the Indian National Academy of Letters meant to promote the cause of Indian literature through publication, translations, seminars, workshops, cultural exchange programmes and literary meets organized all over the country
(a) Sangeet Kala Academy
(b) Lalit Kala Academy
(c) Sahitya Academy
(d) National School of Drama
38. The Sahitya Academy was founded in the year
(a) March 1984 (b) March 1954
(c) March 1964 (d) March 1936
39.Which one is not the followship of Sahitya Academy?
(a) Sahitya Academy Honorary Fellowship
(b) Anand Fellowship
(c) Premchand Fellowship
(d) Prasad Fellowship
40. The national school of Drama (NSD), one of the foremost theatre institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India was set up by Sangeet Natak Academy in the year
(a) 1954 (b) 1955
(c) 1959 (d) 1962
41. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) is one of the premier institutions working in the field of linking education and culture. The CCRT was set up in
(a) May 1979 (b) May 1989
(c) May 1999 (d) May 2009
42. The National Mission for Manuscripts was launched by the Government in 2003. Which is the nodal agency of the National Mission for Manuscripts.
(a) Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts
(b) National Gallery of Modern Art
(c) National Museum
(d) Archaeological Survey of India
43.When was the National Museum set up
(a) 1960 (b) 1949
(c) 1956 (d) 1968
44. The Anthropological survey of India is a premier research organization under
(a) Ministry of Science & Technology
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Ministry of Culture
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
45.Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) National Archives of India – New Delhi
(b) National Library – Kolkata
(c) Lalit Kala Akademi – Kolkata
(d) National Museum – New Delhi
46. The National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New Delhi was founded in
(a) 1954 (b) 1956
(c) 1960 (d) 1964
47. The National Sample Survey (NSS) was set up in 1950; when was this organization reorganized?
(a) 1965 (b) 1970
(c) 1977 (d) 1991
48.Where is the headquarter of survey Design and Research Division, which is one of the division of the National Sample Survey (NSS)?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Bhopal
49. In which year the first Economic Census came into existence?
(a) 1970 (b) 1977
(c) 1982 (d) 1990
50. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the founder member of the universal postal union (UPU) since 1876.
2. India is the member of Asia-pacific postal union (APPU) since 1964.
3. India exchanges mail with more than 217 countries by air and surface.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
51. Postal Life Insurance (PLI) was introduced in India in year
(a) 1884 (b) 1896
(c) 1936 (d) 1948
52. The Forest Conservation Division implements the forest (conservation) Act.
When was that Act enacted by the parliament of India?
(a) 25 October 1980 (b) 27 November 1992
(c) 16 September 1985
(d) 16 October 1987
53. Integrated Forest Protection Scheme (IFPS) was being implemented during the 10th five
year plan and is being continued during 11th plan. The planning commission has suggested to rename the scheme as :
(a) Intensification of Forest Management
(b) Strengthening Forest Management
(c) Conservation Forest Management
(d) Infrastructure Development.
54.What is the number of National Parks in India?
(a) 99 (b) 43
(c) 515 (d) 213
55.When the scheme ‘Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries’ has been modified as integrated Development Habitats.
(a) 2006 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
56.Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of Forest & Environment. When ‘WWI’ was established?
(a) 1980 (b) 1982
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
57. Zoos in India are regulated as per the provision of the wild life (protection) Act. When this act came in existence?
(a) 1969 (b) 1972
(c) 1980 (d) 1982
58.When was the centrally sponsored scheme ‘Project Tiger’ launched?
(a) 1972 (b) 1973
(c) 1975 (d) 1979
59.What is the number of tigers in India shown after the counting of tigers in 2011.
(a) 1411 (b) 1706
(c) 1905 (d) 1608
60. Number of Tiger Reservers in India is
(a) 38 (b) 49
(c) 53 (d) 113
61. India has a Memorandum of understanding with which country on controlling transboundary illegal trade in wild life and conservation?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan (d) China
62.When was the project Elephant launched?
(a) Feb. 1992 (b) Feb. 1990
(c) Feb. 1993 (d) Feb. 1995
63.Which statement/statements is/are true about project Elephant?
1. All India estimation of elephant is done every five years.
2. The total number of Elephant Reserve in country has become 27.
3. The project Elephant is being implemented in 13 states of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
64. In August 1980, where the GB Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment and Development (GBPIHED) was established?
(a) Almora (Uttrakhand)
(b) Shimla (Himachal Pradesh)
(c) Silchar (Assam)
(d) Sri Nagar (Uttrakahand)
65.Which one of these statements are not true about Forestry Research in India?
(a) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is an apex body in the national Forestry research system.
(b) This council promotes the solution based Forestry Research.
(c) The council enhances public confidence in the ability of forest managers and researches to successfully handle challenges to natural resource management.
(d) The council has only one research institute in New Delhi.
66. Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is the Research and development wing of the Department of which Ministry under government of India?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Environment
67. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is one of India’s Major Flagship Programes for universalisation of elementary education launched in
(a) 1998 (b) 2001
(c) 2007 (d) 2009
68.Which one of these are not a goal of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(a) Enrolment of all children in school.
(b) Retention of all children till the upper primary stage.
(c) Bridging of gender and social category gap in enrolment, retention and learning.
(d) Enrich the high class of Higher education.
69.What was the annual outlay for the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) in the year 2010-11?
(a) Rs. 15,000 crore (b) Rs. 20,000 crore
(c) Rs. 18,000 crore (d) Rs. 11,000 crore
70.Which one of these statements are not true about Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya Scheme?
(a) It provides the residential selting for upper primary school for girls.
(b) The scheme provides for a minimum reservation of 75% seats for girls from SC, ST and OBC.
(c) It provides 25% reservation to girls from families below the poverty line.
(d) There is the ratio of boys and girls student is 50:50 in Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya Scheme.
71. National programme of Nutritional support to primary education now knonw as MID DAY MEAL SCHEME was first introduced in which year in India?
(a) 1992 (b) 1995
(c) 1998 (d) 2001
72.When was the name of National Programme of Nutritional Support to primary education changed as ‘National Programme of Mid Day Meal in School’?
(a) 2004 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2010
73. The National Ball Bhawan is an autonomous organization fully funded by the Ministry of Human Resources Development. When was the National Bal Bhawan established?
(a) 1956 (b) 1962
(c) 1986 (d) 1972
74. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art, creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing?
(a) Bal Shree Scheme
(b) Bal Bodh
(c) Bal Sadan
(d) Bal Shiksha
75.When the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) was established?
(a) 17 August 1995 (b) 16 September 1996
(c) 14 January 1986 (d) 15 September 1996
76. The Right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years. This right inserted age group of 6 to 14 years. This right inserted to which article of the constitution?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 14
77. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) revised its existing regulations and norms in the year
(a) 1998 (b) 2002
(c) 2005 (d) 2009
78.When was the National population education project was launched?
(a) April 1976 (b) April 1980
(c) April 1992 (d) April 2002
79.Match the Following
    List I         List II
    A. NCERT         1. 1995
    B. NIOS         2. 1980
    C. NPEP         3. 1961
    D. NCTE         4. 1979
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
80.    Which Article of the constitution states that “The state shall promote, with special care the education and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people and in particular of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of social exploitation”?
(a) Article 46 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 14
81. IGNOU has established a network of open and Distance Learning institutes and centres in the region. At present, what is the number of regional centres of IGNOU?
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
82. The commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology prepares and publishes definition dictionaries and Terminology in various discipline in Hindi and in other languages. Where is the Headquarter of The Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata (d) Bhopal
83. The University Grant Commission (UGC) is a statutory organization for coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education. When the UGC was established?
(a) 1953 (b) 1956
(c) 1960 (d) 1962
84.Which statement is not true?
(a) India is a member of World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) since 1976.
(b) World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a special agency of the United Nationls which deals with copy right and other intellectual property rights.
(c) National Book Trust was established in 1959.
(d) NBT organizes the Work Bank Fair in New Delhi every year.
85. The installed power generation capacity in the country in the year 2010 is
(a) 1, 63, 669.8 MW (b) 1400 MW
(c) 16,429.4 MW (d) 72,274.3 MW
86. The National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd. A Navratna Company of the Government of India.When the NTPC was incorporated?
(a) 1972 (b) 1975 (c) 1985 (d) 1983
87. ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidytikaran Joyana’ For Rural Electricity infrastructure and household electrification was launched in
(a) 2004 (b) 2005
(c) 2007 (d) 2009
88. Consider the Following Statements
1. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) was incorporated in 1969
2. REC is a public financial institution, which is responsible to financing rural electrification schemes.
3. REC is the Nodal agency for implementation of ‘Rajeev Gandhi Grameen Vidhutikaran Yojana’.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) only 3 (d) 2 and 3
89.Where is the Corporate Centre of National Power Training Institute (NPTI) situated?
(a) Faridabad
(b) Ghaziabad
(c) Mathura (d) Nagpur
90. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was set up in
(a) 2001 (b) 2002
(c) 2003 (d) 2005
91. India is a member of International Energy Forum (IEF). Where is the permanent secretariat of IEF situated?
(a) Tehran (b) Riyadh
(c) New Delhi (d) London
92.When the Government of India was approved the New Exploration Licencing Policy (NELP)?
(a) 1995 (b) 1997
(c) 1999 (d) 2001
93.Which one of these, not a public sector petroleum company?
(a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(b) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
(c) Essar Oil Limited
(d) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
94. Pitambar Pane National Environment Fellowship is given every year to encourage and recognize excellence in any branch of research related to environmental Science. In which year this fellowship instituted?
(a) 1978 (b) 1977
(c) 1972 (d) 1982
95. ‘Medini Puraskar’ is given to encourage writing of original books in Hindi on which subject?
(a) Environment (b) Rural problems
(c) Petrolism (d) Education
96. World Environment Day celebrated on
(a) 5 June (b) 5 July
(c) 5 August (d) 5 October.
97. Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award was instated in the year
(a) 1988 (b) 1989
(c) 1990 (d) 1991
98. Senior citizen of 65 years of age or above are eligible for old age pension under NOAPS, but not getting pension covered under which scheme?
(a) Annapurna Scheme
(b) Nutrition programme
(c) Rural Foodgrain Scheme
(d) Old age meal programme
99. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) a scheme of Ministry of labour was launched on
(a) 2 Oct 2007 (b) 1 Oct 2007
(c) 2 Oct 2008 (d) 1 Oct 2008
100.Which country is not included in India’s ‘Look East Policy”?
(a) Japan (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Maldives
101. The Government of India launched the credit Gurantee Fund Scheme for Micro and small enterprises tomake available credit to Micro
    and small enterprises. When this scheme was launched?
(a) August 1998 (b) August 2000
(c) August 2002 (d) August 2005
102.Where is the National Institute of Miners health (NIMH) situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Nagpur
(c) Bhopal (d) Patna
103. The Attorney General of India appointed by
(a) The president
(b) The GOM
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Law Minister
104.Match the following
    List I         List II
    a. ITBF         1. 1992
    b. BSF         2. 1949
    c. CRPF         3. 1965
    d. RAF         4. 1962
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
105. The Employee’s Pension scheme was first came into effect from
(a) 16 November 1990(b) 16 November 1995
(c) 16 November 2003(d) 16 November 2005
106. The National Test House is a government laboratory of national importance in the field of testing and evaluation of material and products of all engineering branches except food. Where is the headquarter of the National Test House?
(a) New Delhi (b) Kolkat
(c) Bhopal (d) Patna
107. The NTH has its six regional laboratories in India. In which city of India NTH has no regional laboratory?
(a) Mumbai (b) Ghaziabad
(c) Jaipur (d) Bhopal
108.Match the Following
    List I             List II
    (Institutes)             (Headquarters)
A. Indian Institute     1. Hapur (UP)
of Legal Metrology
B. National Test         2. Kundi
House (Haryana)
C. National Institute     3. Ranchi of Food
Technology (Jharkhand)
D. Indian Grain         4. Kolkata (WB)
storage Management & Research Institute
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
109. An integrated Food Law, Food Safety and standards Act was notified on
(a) 24 August 2005 (b) 24 August 2006
(c) 24 August 2007 (d) 24 August 2007
110. In which year the National Health Policy was regular to achieving an acceptable standard of Health-for the general population of the country?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002
(c) 2005 (d) 2007
111. The National Rural Health Mission was launched by the Prime Minister of provide accessible, affordable and accountable quality health services to the poorest households in the remotest rural regions. When this mission was launched
(a) 12 April, 2005 (b) 12 April, 2007
(c) 12 April, 2008 (d) 12 April, 2009.
112. National programmed for control of Blindness (NPCB) was launched in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) 1998 (d) 2002
113. No persons shall engage in smoking in a public place. This rule have been notified and came in effect on
(a) 2 October 2006
(b) 2 October 2007
(c) 2 October 2008
(d) 2 October 2009
114. Rashtriya Aragya Nidhi was set up in which year to provide financial assistance to patients?
(a) 1996 (b) 1997
(c) 1998 (d) 1999
115. The National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS) was established in 1961 as a nonofficial body of Bio-medical Scientists. Where is the National Academy of Medical Science situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Bhopal (d) Ahmedabad
116. Consider the following statements
1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) launched on 3rd December 2005.
2. Basic Services to the urban poor provided in JNNURM.
3. The duration of Mission is for 7 years beginning from the year 2005-06 till 2011-12.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) only 1
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3.
117.When a dedicated Indian sports channel of Doordarshan was launched?
(a) 18th March 1999 (b) 25th April 1999
(c) 16th May 1998 (d) 16th May 1998
118. Doordarshan opened its window to the world by launching its international channel on
(a) 14th March 1995 (b) 16th March 1996
(c) 16th March 1997 (d) 14th March 1998
119.Match the following
    List I             List II
    A. DD Bharti     1. 1999
    B. D D Urdu     2. 1995
    C. D D India     3. 2006
    D. D D Sports     4. 2002
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
120. India’s largest news agency press Trust of India began functioning on
(a) 1 February 1949 (b) 1 February 195
(c) 1 July 1949 (d) 1 July 1956
121.Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Press Trust of India – 1949
(b) United News of India – 1961
(c) Press council of India – 1978
(d) NAM News Network – 2005
122. Consider the following statements.
1. The Central Board of Film Certification set up under the cinematograph Act 1952.
2. It consists of a Chairperson and twenty five other non-official members.
3. The Board has its headquarts at Mumbay and nine regional offices.
Which statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
123. In which city of India there is no regional office of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)?
(a) Bangalore (b) Cuttack
(c) Guwahati (d) Jaipur
124. The National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC) was formed by the Government of India with the primary objective of planning and promoting an organized, efficient integrated development of Indian Film Industry. When was the NFDC was incorporated?
(a) 1975 (b) 1979
(c) 1982 (d) 1985
125. The Film Finance Corporation was set up in the year 1964. When was this corporation menged within the National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC)?
(a) 1980 (b) 1982
(c) 1985 (d) 1989
126.Which statement is not correct?
(a) The film institute of India was setup by the Government of India in 1960 under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
(b) Films and Television Institute of India provides the latest education and technological experience in the art and technique of film making and television production.
(c) Children’s Film Society was established in 1965 to provide value based entertainment to children.
(d) The Directorate of Film Festivals was up under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in 1973.
127.Match the Following
    List I                 List II
A. First Five Year Plan         1. 1980-85
B. Third Five Year Plan         2. 1951-56
C. Fourth Five Year         3. 1961-1966
D. Sixth Five Year Plan         4. 1969-74
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
128.What was the achieved growth rate of GDP in Ninth Five Year Plan?
(a) 8.0% (b) 7.0%
(c) 7.5% (d) 8.5%
129. Three Annual Plans formulated between which years?
(a) 1964-67 (b) 1966-69
(c) 1980-83 (d) 1985-88
130. In which Five Year Plan, the National Rural Health Mission was launched?
(a) Sixth (b) Ninth
(c) Tenth (d) Eleventh
131. According to which Article of the constitution, the Gram Sabha is constituted in Panchayati Raj?
(a) Article 19A (b) Article 234
(c) Article 243 A (d) Article 335 A
132.Which statement is not true about the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(a) The Act came into Force on Feb. 2, 2006.
(b) It was implemented in 130 districts is phase two 2007-08.
(c) The scheme was extended to the remaining 274 districts of India.
(d) In First phase it was introduced in 150 districts.
133. In which year, the Ministry of Rural areas and Employment was renamed as Ministry of Rural Development?
(a) 1998 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 2005


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (b)