Tuesday, June 16, 2015

New Appointments in India 2015


• National Institution for Transforming India (Niti Aayog) : Narendra Modi, Chairman
• Lok SabhaSpeaker : Mrs. Sumitra Mahajan
• Lok Sabha, Secretary-General : T. K. Viswanathan
• Rajya Sabha, Chairman : Mohammad Hamid Ansari
• Rajya Sabha, Deputy Chairman : P. J. Kurien
• Rajya Sabha, Leader of House : Arun Jaitley
• Rajya Sabha, Leader of Opposition : Ghulam Nabi Azad
• Rajya Sabha, Secretary-General : Shumsher K. Sheriff
• National Institution for Transforming India (Niti Aayog) : Arvind Panagariya, Vice-Chairman
• Chief Election Commissioner : Syed Nasim Zaidi
• Election Commissioner : Achal Kumar Jyoti 
• Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) : K. V. Chowdary
• Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) : Vijai Sharma
• Comptroller and Auditor-General of India : Shashi Kant Sharma
• National Human Right Commission (NHRC) : Justice K. G. Balakrishnan, Chairperson
• Cabinet Secretary : Ajit Kumar Seth 
• Principal Secretary to Prime Minister : Nripendra Misra
• National Commission for Backward Classes : Justice V. Eshwaraiah, Chairman
• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) : Ms. Shanta Sinha, Chairperson
• National Commission for Scheduled Castes : Dr. P. L. Punia, Chairman
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) : Dr.Rameshwar Oraon, Chairman
• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) : Deepak Gupta, Chairman
• National Commission on Farmers (NCF) : Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, Chairman
• National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security) : Ajit Kumar Doval
• National Investigation Agency (NIA) : Sharad Kumar, Director-General
• Railway Board : A. K. Mital, Chairman
• Intelligence Bureau (IB) : Dineshwar Sharma, Director
• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) : Anil Kumar Sinha, Director
• Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) : Rajinder Khanna, Director
• National Security Guard (NSG) : Jayanto Narayan Choudhury, Director-General
• Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) : Prakash Mishra, Director-General
• Border Security Force (BSF) : Devendra Kumar Pathak, Director-General
• Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) : Arvind Ranjan, Director-General
• Railway Protection Force. (RPF) : P. K. Mehta, Director-General
• Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) : Krishna Chaudhary, Director-General
• Sashastra Seema Bal : B. D. Sharma, Director-General
• Indian Coast Guard : Vice-Admiral Anurag G. Thapliyal, Director-General
• Defence Intelligence Agency : Lt. Gen. Avtar Singh, Director-General
• University Grants Commission (UGC) : Prof. Ved Prakash, Chairman
• Defence Research and Development Organisation. (DRDO) : Dr. S. ChristopherDirector-General
• Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government : Dr. R. Chidambaram
• Space Commission and ISRO : A. S. Kiran Kumar, Chairman 
• Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, Dept. of Atomic Energy : Ratan Kumar Sinha, Chairman
• National Commission for Minorities : Naseem Ahmad, Chairperson
• Staff Selection Commission (SSC) : Amitava Bhattacharya, Chairman
• Indian Council of Medical Research : Dr. Vishwa Mohan Katoch, Director-General
• India and Census Commissioner : C. Chandramouli, Registrar-General
• Law Commission : Justice D. K. Jain, Chairman
• Indian National Academy of Engineering (INAE) : Dr. B. N. Suresh, President
• National Forest Commission : Justice (Retd.) B. N. Kirpal, Chairman
• National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) : T. Nanda Kumar, Chairperson
• Border Roads Organisation : Lt. General AT Parnaik, Director-General
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) : Dr. Raghuram Rajan, Governor
• Press Council of India : Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad, Chairman
• Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC) : Ravindra Pisharody, Chairman
• Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) : R. K. Tewari, Chairman
• Central Board of Excise and Customs : Mrs. J.M. Shanti Sundharam, Chairman
• Competition Commission of India : Ashok Chawla
• Central Administrative Tribunal : Justice Syed Rafat Alam, Chairman
• National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) : R.S.T. Sai, CMD
• Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) : Dinesh K. Sarraf, CMD
• GAIL : B. C. Tripathi, CMD
• Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) : S. Behuria, Chairman
• Oil India Ltd : Sunil Kumar Srivastava, CMD
• Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) : Dr. Satbir Bedi, Chairperson
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) : U. K. Sinha, Chairman
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) : Dr. Harsh Kumar Bhanwala, Chairman
• State Bank of India (SBI) : Smt. Arundhati Bhattacharya, Chairman 
• Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) : M. S. Raghavan, Chairman 
• Company Law Board : Justice Dilip Raosaheb Deshmukh, Chairman
• India's Permanent Representative to UN : Asoke Kumar Mukerji
• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) : S. K. Roy, Chairman
• Central Water Commission : Ashwin Pandya, Chairman 
• National Commission for Women : Ms. Lalitha Kumarmangalam, Chairperson
• 14th Finance Commission : Dr. Y. V. Reddy, Chairman
• National Statistical Commission : Dr. Pronob Sen, Chairman
• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) : Pahlaj Nihalani, Chairperson
• Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) : Dr. Rakesh Tewari, Director-General
• Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) : Dr. Jyotsna Suri, President
• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) : Dr. Rahul Khullar, Chairman
• Enforcement Directorate : Dr. Rajan Katoch, Director
• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) : R. V. Verma, Chairman
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre : Dr. Sekhar Basu, Director
• Indian Olympic Association : N. Ramachandran, President
• National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) : Prof. B.K.Tripathi, Acting Director
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) : Ajay S. Shriram, President
• Prasar Bharti Board : Dr. A. Surya Prakash, Chairman
• Investment Commission : Ratan Tata, Chairman
• Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) : Jagmohan Dalmiya, President
• NASSCOM : R. Chandrasekaran, Chairman
• National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) : Ramesh Sippy, Chairman
• Children's Film Society : Mukesh Khanna, Chairman
• United News of India : Ravindra Kumar, Chairman
• Press Trust of India (PTI) : Mahendra Mohan Gupta, Chairman
• Indian Newspaper Society (INS) : Kiran B. Vadodaria, President
• The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) : Rana Kapoor, President

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. Andaman and Nicobar Command is– 
(A) a Command of the Indian Army 
(B) a regional Command of the Indian Coast Guard 
(C) an integrated theater Command operating directly under the Chiefs of Staff Committee 
(D) a joint Command of the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force (Ans : C)

2. Arihant is a– 
(A) Multi barrel rocket launcher 
(B) Airborne Early Warning and Control System 
(C) Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle 
(D) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (Ans : D)

3. Which one among the following is not a Command of the Indian Army? 
(A) South-Western Command (B) South-Eastern Command 
(C) Army Training Command (D) Central Command (Ans : B)

4. 'Project Seabird' is connected with– 
(A) Greenfield naval base at West Coast of India 
(B) Anti pirate operation at Somalia 
(C) Indian Navy's island development project 
(D) Shipyard in Kutch district, Gujarat (Ans : C)

5. Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for the conservation of– 
(A) Hawksbill turtles (B) Olive Ridley sea turtles 
(C) Green turtles (D) Leatherback turtles (Ans : B)

6. Baiji oil refinery is located at– 
(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) South Sudan (D) Russia (Ans : B)

7. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of– 
(A) Returns to scale (B) Diminishing returns 
(C) Increasing returns (D) Constant returns (Ans : A)

8. A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as– 
(A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly 
(C) Monopolistic competition (D) Oligopoly (Ans : C)

9. The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country arid their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as– 
(A) Gross National Income (B) Net National Income 
(C) Gross Domestic Product (D) Net Domestic Product (Ans : B)

10. National product at factor cost is equal to– 
(A) Domestic product + Net factor income from abroad 
(B) National product at market prices – indirect taxes + subsidies 
(C) Gross domestic product – depreciation 
(D) National product at market prices + Indirect taxes + subsidies (Ans : B)

11. Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India? 
(A) Income tax (B) Customs duties 
(C) Service tax (D) Motor Vehicle tax (Ans : D)

12. Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments? 
(A) Export and import of goods (B) Export and import of services 
(C) Income receipts and payments (D) Capital receipts and payments (Ans : D)

13. Novak Djokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from– 
(A) Serbia (B) Spain (C) Switzerland (D) England (Ans : A)

14. The technique of inducing rain from cloud is called– 
(A) Cloud computing (B) Cloud control 
(C) Cloud engineering (D) Cloud seeding (Ans : D)

15. The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively– 
(A) concave and convex (B) convex and concave 
(C) both concave of different focal lengths (D) both convex of different focal lengths (Ans : B)

16. Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its– 
(A) high specific resistance (B) low specific resistance 
(C) high light emitting power (D) high melting point (Ans : D)

17. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to– 
(A) increase the intensity of light emitted 
(B) increase the life of the filament 
(C) make the emitted light colon-red 
(D) make the production of bulb economical (Ans : B)

18. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light wave of shortest wavelength is– 
(A) accelerated and refracted the most 
(B) slowed down and refracted the most 
(C) accelerated and refracted the least 
(D) slowed down and refracted the least (Ans : B)

19. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by– 
(A) visible light (B) X-rays (C) sound (D) Gamma rays (Ans : C)

20. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr, is– 
(A) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M -orbit 
(B) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 32 electrons in the M-orbit 
(C) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit 
(D) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 16 electrons in the M-orbit (Ans : C)

21. Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process– 
(A) the neutrons are made fast (B) the protons are made fast 
(C) the neutrons are made slow (D) the protons are made slow (Ans : C)

22. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as– 
(A) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) a circle (D) an ellipse (Ans : D)

23. Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis? 
(A) Filaria (B) Microfilaria (C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Culex pipiens (Ans : C)

24. Which one among the following statements is not correct? 
(A) Pulses are rich in proteins 
(B) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A 
(C) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates 
(D) Vegetables are rich source of minerals (Ans : C)

25. Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine? 
(A) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra (B) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters 
(C) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys (D) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra (Ans : A)

26. Which of the following parts are found in both plant and animal cells? 
(A) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole (B) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole 
(C) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus (D) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm (Ans : C)

27. ‘Garuda-V’, concluded recently, is a joint exercise between the Air Forces of India and– 
(A) Japan (B) Canada (C) Russia (D) France (Ans : D)

28. Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct ? 
(A) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States 
(B) The organization of the sub- ordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State 
(C) Every State in India has separate High Court 
(D) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side (Ans : C)

29. MONEX is associated with– 
(A) Montreal experiment (B) Monetary experiment 
(C) Lunar experiment (D) Monsoon experiment (Ans : D)

30. Which one of the following would have happened if the Himalayas did not exist? 
(A) Monsoon rains would have taken place in winter months 
(B) Coastal India would have experienced Mediterranean climate 
(C) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter 
(D) North western part of India would have experienced humid condition (Ans : C)

31. Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to– 
(A) clouds which extend beyond freezing level 
(B) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level 
(C) all types of clouds (D) cumulonimbus cloud (Ans : B)

32. The Patola weave was traditionally done in– 
(A) Pochampally and Kanchipuram (B) Surat and Patan 
(C) Dacca and Benares (D) Benares and Paithan (Ans : B)

33. V. M. Dandekar and Neel Kanth Rath were well-known for their– 
(A) study on the spread of the Green Revolution (B) advocacy of nuclear power 
(C) advocacy of liberalization (D) study on poverty in India (Ans : D)

34. Marco Polo's trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of– 
(A) his having discovered a safe route to India 
(B) his having established amicable relations with many Kings of India 
(C) his account of commercial, religious and social conditions in the East 
(D) All of the above (Ans : D)

35. Which one among the following is a state-of-the-art acoustic sensor-based target training system developed by the CSIR for shooters of the Indian Army? 
(A) SHANKH (B) DHVANI (C) NISHAN (D) PRAHAR (Ans : B)

36. Which of the following was the theme of World Environment Day 2014? 
(A) Green Economy. Does it include you? 
(B) Think. Eat. Save 
(C) Many Species. One Planet. One Future 
(D) Small Islands and Climate Change (Ans : D)

37. Which one of the following types of pesticides is convenient to control stored grain pests? 
(A) Systemic pesticides (B) Fumigants 
(C) Contact poisons (D) Stomach poisons (Ans : B)

38. Which one among the following cattle breed produces highest amount of milk? 
(A) Brown Swiss (B) Holstein (C) Dutch belted (D) Blaarkop (Ans : B)

39. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, is used for the production of– 
(A) glass (B) paper (C) rubber (D) cement (Ans : B)

40. The main constituent of Gobar gas is– 
(A) Ethane (B) Methane (C) Propane (D) Acetylene (Ans : B)

41. Which of the following is a good lubricant? 
(A) Diamond powder (B) Graphite powder 
(C) Molten carbon (D) Alloy of carbon and iron (Ans : B)

42. In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are– 
(A) 1 P and 1 N (B) 1 P and 2 N 
(C) 1 P and 3 N (D) 2 P and 1 N (Ans : D)

43. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the solution turns milky, but, on prolonged passage, the solution turns clear. This is because– 
(A) the calcium carbonate for-med initially is converted to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide 
(B) the reaction is reversible and lime water is regenerated 
(C) the calcium bicarbonate for-med initially is converted to soluble calcium carbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide 
(D) the initially formed insoluble compound is soluble in carbonic acid (Ans : A)

44. The form of carbon known as graphite– 
(A) is harder than diamond 
(B) contains a higher percentage of carbon than diamond 
(C) is a better electrical conductor than diamond 
(D) has equal carbon-to-carbon distances in all directions (Ans : C)

45. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change? 
(A) The melting of an ice cube (B) The boiling of gasoline 
(C) The frying of an egg (D) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet (Ans : C)

46. Which of the following is not correct about Baking Soda? 
(A) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher (B) It is added for faster cooking 
(C) It is a corrosive base (D) It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach (Ans : C)

47. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint– 
(A) Green (B) White (C) Red (D) Blue (Ans : A)

48. Which of the statements given below about the Mughal rule in India is false? 
(A) Peasant communities were a united and homogeneous group 
(B) There was an abundance of food grain 
(C) The State encouraged those crops that brought in more revenue 
(D) most regions produced two crops in a year. (Ans : A)

49. The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt ? 
(A) Punjab (B) Bengal (C) United Provinces (D) Bihar (Ans : A)

50. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by– 
(A) Colonel Colin Mackenzie (B) Sir John Shore 
(C) Andrew Fraser (D) John Marshall (Ans : A)
 

Wednesday, May 13, 2015

Mission Indradhanush


Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) has launched Mission Indradhanush on 25th December 2014 with the aim of expanding immunization coverage to all children across India by year 2020. The Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases namely Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Childhood Tuberculosis, Polio, Hepatitis B and Measles. In addition to this, vaccines for JE (Japanese Encephalitis) and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type B) are also being provided in selected states.  Immunization is the key to protect children from life threatening conditions that are preventable. As per MOHFW, immunization coverage in India has increased from 61% to 65% only from 2009-2013. So, MOHFW has decided to intensify its efforts in immunization though this mission.      
 
Objectives of Mission Indradhanush
The government intends to cover 201 high focus districts in the first phase of year 2015.  These districts have nearly 50% of all unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children. Out of these 201 districts, 82 districts lie in just four states of India namely, UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Nearly 25% of the unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children of India live in these 82 districts of 4 states. Furthermore, another 297 districts will be targeted in the second phase of year 2015.
 
Strategy of Mission Indradhanush
The government has planned to conduct four special vaccination campaigns between January and June 2015.  All vaccines are already available free of cost under universal immunisation programme in India. Under this mission, government plans to intensify its efforts and thus increase accessibility of these vaccines to all the children of India. 

National AIDS Control Programme

HIV infection in India is a major challenge  with no State free from the virus. HIV/AIDS continues to show itself to be one of India's most complex epidemics - a challenge that goes beyond public health, raising fundamental issues of human rights and threatening development achievements in many areas. The need to prevent the progression of the epidemic and provide care and support for those infected or affected is calling for an unprecedented response from all sections of society. The National AIDS Control Organization, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched the National AIDS Control Programme- II, from December, 1999. The new national programme in implementation sees the country on the threshold of a new approach - marked by focusing on encouraging and enabling the States themselves to take on the responsibility of responding to the epidemic. It is also leading to growing partnerships between government, NGOs and civil society.
Objectives:
1. To reduce spread of HIV infection in India
2. Strengthen India's capacity to respond to HIV/AIDS on a long term basis.
Reflecting the extreme urgency with which HIV prevention and control need to be pursued in India, the AIDS - II project of the National AIDS Control Programme is across all States and Union Territories and a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% financial assistance from Government of India direct to State AIDS Control Societies and selected Municipal Corporations/AIDS Control Societies.

National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme

Launched in 2003-04 by merging National anti -malaria control programme ,National Filaria Control Programme and Kala Azar Control programmes .Japanese B Encephalitis and Dengue/DHF have also been included in this Program Directorate of NAMP is the nodal agency for prevention and control of major Vector Borne Diseases
List of Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme Legislations:
1)    National Anti - Malaria programme
2)    Kala - Azar Control Programme
3)    National Filaria Control Programme
4)    Japenese Encephilitis Control Programme
5)    Dengue and Dengue Hemorrhagic fever
1)    NATIONAL ANTI - MALARIA PROGRAMME
Malaria is one of the serious public health problems in India. At the time of independence malaria was contributing 75 million cases with 0.8 million deaths every year prior to the launching of National Malaria Control Programme in 1953. A countrywide comprehensive programme to control malaria was recommended in 1946 by the Bhore committee report that was endorsed by the Planning Commission in 1951. The national programme against malaria has a long history since that time. In April 1953, Govt. of India launched a National Malaria Control Programme (NMCP).
Objective:
  •  To bring down malaria transmission to a level at which it would cease to be a major public health problem.
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2)    KALA -AZAR CONTROL PROGRAMME
Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a chronic disease caused by an intracellular protozoan (Leishmania species) and transmitted to man by bite of female phlebotomus sand fly.Currently, it is a main problem in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and some parts of Uttar Pradesh. In view of the growing problem planned control measures were initiated to control kala-azar.
Objectives:
The strategy for kala-azar control broadly included three main activities.
  • Interruption of transmission by reducing vector population through indoor residual insecticides.
  • Early diagnosis and complete treatment of Kala-azar cases; and
  • Health education programme for community awareness. 
3)    NATIONAL FILARIA CONTROL PROGRAMME
Bancrftian filariasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is transmitted to man by the bites of infected mosquitoes - Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia and Aedes. Lymphatia filaria is prevalent in 18 states and union territories. Bancrftian filariasis is widely distributed while brugian filariasis caused by Brugia malayi is restricted to 6 states - UP, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Gujarat. The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in 1955. The activities were mainly confined to urban areas. However, the programme has been extended to rural areas since 1994. 
Objectives:
  • Reduction of the problem in un-surveyed areas
  • Control in urban areas through recurrent anti-larval and anti-parasitic measures.
4)    JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS CONTROL PROGRAMME
Japanese encephalitis (JE) is a zoonotic disease and caused by an arbovirus, group B (Flavivirus) and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes. This disease has been reported from 26 states and UTs since 1978, only 15 states are reporting JE regularly. The case fatality in India is 35% which can be reduced by early detection, immediate referral to hospital and proper medical and nursing care. The total population at risk is estimated 160 million. The most disturbing feature of JE has been the regular occurrence of outbreak in different parts of the country.
Govt. of India has constituted a Task Force at National Level which is in operation and reviews the JE situations and its control strategies from time to time. Though Directorate of National Anti-Malaria Programme is monitoring JE situation in the country.
Objectives:
  • Strengthening early diagnosis and prompt case management at PHCs, CHCs and hospitals through training of medical and nursing staff.
  • IEC for community awareness to promote early case reporting, personal protection, isolation of amplifier host, etc.;
  • Vector control measures mainly fogging during outbreaks, space spraying in animal dwellings, and antilarval operation where feasible; and
  • Development of a safe and standard indigenous vaccine. Vaccination for high risk population particularly children below 15 years of age.

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5)    DENGUE AND DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER
One of the most important resurgent tropical infectious disease is dengue. Dengue Fever and Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) are acute fevers caused by four antigenically related but distinct dengue virus serotypes (DEN 1,2,3 and 4) transmitted by the infected mosquitoes, Aedes aegypti. Dengue outbreaks have been reported from urban areas from all states. All the four serotypes of dengue virus (1,2,3 and 4) exist in India. The Vector Aedes Aegypti breed in peridomestic fresh water collections and is found in both urban and rural areas.
Objectives:
  •  Surveillance for disease and outbreaks
  •  Early diagnosis and prompt case management
  •  Vector control through community participation and social mobilization
  •  Capacity building

National Leprosy Eradication Programme

The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is a centrally sponsored Health Scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India. The Programme is headed by the Deputy Director of Health Services (Leprosy ) under the administrative control of the Directorate General Health Services Govt. of India. While the NLEP strategies and plans are formulated centrally, the programme is implemented by the States/UTs. The Programmes also supported as Partners by the World Health Organization, The International Federation of Anti-leprosy Associations (ILEP) and few other Non-Govt. Organizations.
The year 2012-13 started with 0.83 lakh leprosy cases on record as on 1st April 2012, with PR 0.68/10,000. Till then 33 States/ UTs had attained the level of leprosy elimination. A total of 542 districts (84.7%) out of total 640 districts also achieved elimination by March2012. A total of 209 high endemic districts were identified for special actions during 2012-13. After thorough analysis a total of 1792 blocks and 150 urban areas were identified for special activity plan (SAP- 2012). The States were advised to post well trained District Leprosy Officer in all the districts where these blocks are located. In addition one officer should be identified in each of these blocks to strengthen the process of supervision and monitoring. Active house to house survey was the main strategy alongwith IEC and capacity building of the workers and volunteers. This activity helped in detection of more than 20,000 new cases during 2012-13
Objectives:
1.  Early detection through active surveillance by the trained health workers;
2.  Regular treatment of cases by providing Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) at fixed in or centres a nearby village of moderate to low endemic areas/district;
3.  Intensified health education and public awareness campaigns to remove social stigma attached to the disease.
4.  Appropriate medical rehabilitation and leprosy ulcer care services.

REVISED NATIONAL TUBERCULOSIS CONTROL PROGRAMME (RNTCP): DOTS STRATEGY

The National TB Control Programme was stated in 1962 with the aim to detect cases earliest and treat them. In the district, the programme is implemented through the district Tuberculosis Centre (DTC) and the Primary Health Institutions. The District Tuberculosis Programme (DTP) is supported by the state level organization for the coordination and supervision of the programme. The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), based on the DOTS strategy, began as a pilot project in 1993 and was launched as a national programme in 1997 but rapid RNTCP expansion began in late 1998
The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme has initiated early and firm steps to its declared objective of Universal access to early quality diagnosis and quality TB care for all TB patients'. The year 2012 witnessed innumerable activities happening towards the same. Notification of TB; case based web based recording and reporting system ( NIKSHAY); Standards of TB care in India; Composite indicator for monitoring programme performance; Rapid scale up of the programmatic management of drug resistant TB services are few of the worthwhile mention in this regard.
NIKSHAY, the web based reporting for TB programme has been another notable achievement initiated in 2012 and has enabled capture and transfer of individual patient data from the remotest health institutions of the country.
Objectives :
  • Pursue quality DOTS expansion and enhancement, by improving the case finding are cure through an effective patient-centred approach to reach all patients, especially the poor.
  • Address TB-HIV, MDR-TB and other challenges, by scaling up TB-HIV joint activities, DOTS Plus, and other relevant approaches.
  • Contribute to health system strengthening, by collaborating with other health programmes and general services
  • Involve all health care providers, public, nongovernmental and private, by scaling up approaches based on a public-private mix (PPM), to ensure adherence to the International Standards of TB care.
  • Engage people with TB, and affected communities to demand, and contribute to effective care. This will involve scaling-up of community TB care; creating demand through  context-specific advocacy, communication and social mobilization.
  • Enable and promote research for the development of new drugs, diagnostic and vaccines. Operational Research will also be needed  to improve programme performance.

Pulse Polio Programme

With the global initiative of eradication of polio in 1988 following World Health Assembly resolution in 1988, Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched in India in 1995. Children in the age group of 0-5 years administered polio drops during National and Sub-national immunization rounds (in high risk areas) every year. About 172 million children are immunized during each National Immunization Day (NID).
The last polio case in the country was reported from Howrah district of West Bengal with date of onset 13th January 2011. Thereafter no polio case has been reported in the country (25th May 2012).
WHO on 24th February 2012 removed India from the list of countries with active endemic wild polio virus transmission.
Objective :
The Pulse Polio Initiative was started with an objective of achieving hundred per cent coverage under Oral Polio Vaccine. It aimed to immunize children through improved social mobilization, plan mop-up operations in areas where poliovirus has almost disappeared and maintain high level of morale among the public.

Sunday, May 3, 2015

Chhattisgarh D.Ed (Pre.) Exam General Awareness Solved Question Paper (Exam Held on 25-5-2014)

1. The most suitable soil for cotton cultivation is–
(A) Red soil (B) Laterite (C) Black soil (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

2. In which of the following year Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement? 
(A) 1920 (B) 1928 (C) 1930 (D) 1942 (Ans : D)

3. Right to Education Act 2009 is meant for which age group of children? 
(A) 15-20 years (B) 5-10 years (C) 6-14 years (D) 7-12years (Ans : C)

4. The headquarter of ‘World Health Organisation’ is located at– 
(A) Geneva (B) London (C) Paris (D) India (Ans : A)

5. Which of the following body prepared the model syllabus in 2005 for O. Ed / B. Ed courses? 
(A) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) 
(B) National Council for Education Research and Training (NCERT) 
(C) (A) and (B) both 
(D) None of the above (Ans : C)

6. For which of the following invention Alexander Fleming is known for– 
(A) X-Rays (B) Gravitation (C) Penicillin (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

7. The apex body for Distance Education is– 
(A) University Grants Commission (B) Distance Education Council 
(C) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

8. The revamp of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was finalised in the year– 
(A) 2010 (B) 2011 (C) 2012 (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

9. As per census of 2011 the female: male sex ratio of India is– 
(A) 933 : 1000 (B) 1038 : 1000 (C) 1084 : 1000 (D) 943 : 1000 (Ans : D)

10. Which of the following city was founded by Akbar and made it his capital? 
(A) Delhi (B) Agra (C) Burhanpur (D) Fatehpur Sikri (Ans : D)

11. Who of the following was the famous woman ruler of the Gupta - Vakataka period in ancient India? 
(A) Kuber-naga (B) Prabhavati Gupta (C) Rajyashri (D) Kumardevi (Ans : B)

12. What is meaning of Quo-warranto? 
(A) By which authority (B) Be more fully informed
(C) We command (D) Let’s have the body (Ans : A)

13. Excise duty is a tax levied on– 
(A) Import of goods (B) Export of goods 
(C) Production of goods (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

14. The theory of ‘Basic Structure of the constitution’ was propound by the supreme court in which case? 
(A) Golaknath case (B) Menka Gandhi case 
(C) Keshavanand Bharti case (D) Minerva Mills case (Ans : C)

15. The Central Banking in India is performed by– 
(A) Central Bank of India (B) State Bank of India 
(C) Regional Rural Banks (D) None of the above (Ans : D)

16. As per census 2011 which of the following is not amongst the largest populous State in India? 
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal 
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh (Ans : D)

17. Indian Economy is a– 
(A) Mixed Economy (B) Free Economy 
(C) Socialist Economy (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

18. Who among these is known as ‘Father of Green Revolution’ ? 
(A) Vikram Sarabhai (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan 
(C) Hargovind Singh Khurana (D) Vergeese Kurian (Ans : B)

19. Why the signature of President is compulsory in the bills passed by parliament? 
(A) He is the Head of the Executive (B) He takes responsibility to executive the law 
(C) He is symbol of sovereignty of the state (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

20. Which one of the following is an example of non-metallic mineral? 
(A) Asbestos (B) Bauxite (C) Hematite (D) Chalcopyrite (Ans : A)

21. EDUSAT is– 
(A) Teaching Satellite (B) Teaching Television 
(C) Teaching Technology (D) Teaching Device (Ans : A)

22. Which is the main function of education in human life? 
(A) All round development of personality (B) To make a man researcher 
(C) To make good citizen (D) Inculcation of social feelings (Ans : A)

23. Teacher would be effective, if the teacher– 
(A) Has purposeful intention (B) Is master of his subject 
(C) Uses various instructional aids (D) Declares his objectives in the beginning (Ans : C)

24. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination you will– 
(A) Ridicule him 
(B) Advise him to sit at home and do some job 
(C) Advise him to appear in exam privately 
(D) Guide him in various subjects according to his needs (Ans : D)

25. Which of the followings institution is not related to the field of education? 
(A) NCERT (B) UGC (C) NCTE (D) IMF (Ans : D)

26. Curriculum should be– 
(A) Rigid (B) Unpsychological 
(C) Flexible (D) Not promoting democratic feeling (Ans : C)

27. Presently the schools, are not able to fulfil the following– 
(A) Development of moral values 
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity 
(C) Preparation for examinations for various degrees 
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children (Ans : A)

28. Characteristics of Infancy is– 
(A) Dependency on others (B) Rapidity in physical development 
(C) Rapidity in learning process (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

29. Meaning of Education is– 
(A) Knowledge (B) Dictionary (C) Grantha (D) Religion (Ans : A)

30. A successful teacher is one, who– 
(A) Finishes course prior to scheduled time 
(B) Motivates students for learning 
(C) Shows the performance of the class as good 
(D) Helps the students in preparing notes (Ans : B)

31. A knowledge of the nature of individual difference is essential for– 
(A) Principal (B) Parents (C) Teacher (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

32. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect? 
(A) Camp organization for students (B) Poetry recitation 
(C) Literarcy interests (D) Community service (Ans : C)

33. Who first attempted to make primary education free and compulsory ? 
(A) Dr. Radha Krishnan (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 
(C) Dr. Laxman Swami Mudaliar (D) Mahatma Gandhi (Ans : D)

34. In order to develop a good rapport with students, the most important activity of the teacher should be– 
(A) Love his students (B) Be friendly with students 
(C) Pay individual attention (D) Communicate well (Ans : C)

35. What will be most appropriate in case of students conduct indecently?
(A) To make them feel guilty (B) To get very angry upon them 
(C) To punish them (D) To make them full ashamed by preaching (Ans : A)

36. The main purpose of Parent Teacher Association in, any school is to– 
(A) Control students 
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching 
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school 
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning (Ans : D)

37. Teaching Aids are used– 
(A) To raise the teaching upto the understanding level of students 
(B) To make the teaching interesting 
(C) To impress the students 
(D) To develop the aptitude of students (Ans : B)

38. In students learning ability is dependent on– 
(A) Family (B) Individual differences (C) Culture (D) Society (Ans : B)

39. A teacher should be involved in social activities– 
(A) Seldom (B) Only when needed 
(C) Very frequently (D) Never (Ans : B)

40. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class? 
(A) Discriminating (B) He should pay more attention to weak students 
(C) Equal for all students (D) Pay more attention to intelligent students (Ans : C)

41. Education for equality means– 
(A) Education for women (B) Education for scheduled castes 
(C) Education for weaker sections (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

42. Your view towards slow learner students will be– 
(A) Sympathetic (B) Hateful (C) Revengeful (D) Disinteresting (Ans : A)

43. Students like the teacher who– 
(A) Dictates notes in the class (B) Reads and explain the books 
(C) Give less homework (D) Follows innovative practices in the class (Ans : D)

44. Life long process is called– 
(A) Motivation (B) Teaching (C) Education (D) Training (Ans : C)

45. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ? 
(A) To lead the society (B) To be the centre of social life 
(C) To remain engaged in social activities (D) To be honoured by society (Ans : B)

46. The main task of teacher is– 
(A) To prepare good citizens from his students (B) To complete the prescribed syllabus 
(C) To increase knowledge (D) To do politics in school (Ans : C)

47. What would be your reaction if a student interrupts the class? 
(A) You will ask him to leave the class 
(B) You will ask him to behave properly 
(C) You will assess the reasons to do the same 
(D) You will give him extra home work (Ans : C)

48. Emotional adjustment of the students is effective in– 
(A) Personality formation (B) Class teaching (C) Discipline (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

49. Which education provides many benefits to adults and those who are living in remote areas? 
(A) School education (B) Informal education (C) Distance education (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

50. Why is the parent teacher association considered to be important? 
(A) This helps the school function properly 
(B) Helps in understanding the students in a better way 
(C) Helps in solving student’s problems 
(D) Helps the parents and teacher coming closer (Ans : D)