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Monday, May 27, 2013

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-II KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.   What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)   The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)   The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)   The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)   The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.   Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)   In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)   The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)   No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)   In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
   Answer (C)

3.   Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
   Geographical Feature       Region
(a)   Abyssinian Plateau:           Arabia
(b)   Atlas Mountains:           North Western Africa
(c)   Guiana Highlands:       :   South Western Africa
(d)   Okavango Basin:           Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.   With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.   The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.   The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.   At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.   Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.   across different species of plants
2.   from animals to plants
3.   from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.   The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.   The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2.   As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.   The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only-
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.   Consider the following:
1.   Star tortoise
2.   Monitor lizard
3.   Pygmy hog
4.   Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.   Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.   Arsenic
2.   Sorbitol
3.   Fluoride
4.   Formaldehyde
5.   Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 3 only
(b)   2, 4 and 5 only
(c)   1, 3 and 5 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.   With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)   directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)   nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)   elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)   selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.   Consider the following animals:
1.   Sea cow
2.   Sea-horse
3.   Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 3 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.   Consider the following statements:
1.   An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.   If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.   Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.   take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.   be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.   speak in the Lok Sabha
4.   vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 4
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.   With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.   Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.   Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.   Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.   Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)   the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)   the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)   latitudinal position of the place
(d)   revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.   The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.   It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.   It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.   The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

16.   On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)   is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)   is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)   exists as groundwater
(d)   exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.   Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve   : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake   Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :   Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

18.   Consider the following:
1.   Electromagnetic radiation
2.   Geothermal energy
3.   Gravitational force
4.   Plate movements
5.   Rotation of the earth
6.   Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)   1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)   1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)   2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.   Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.   National Development Council
2.   Planning Commission
3.   Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.   The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)   the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)   the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)   the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)   writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)

21.   The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)   with   the   consent   of all   the States
(b)   with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)   with the consent of the States concerned
(d)   without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.   In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)   insects and fungi
(b)   limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)   water limits and fire
(d)   None of the above
Answer (C)

23.   Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)   Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)   Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)   Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)   Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)   Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)   low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)   Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)   None to the above
Answer (A)

25.   The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)   To provide self- governance
(b)   To recognize traditional rights
(c)   To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)

26.   Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)   State Forest Department
(b)   District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)   Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)   Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.   Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)   bacteria
(b)   protozoa
(c)   moulds
(d)   viruses
Answer (C)

28.   'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)   the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)   the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)   the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)   None of the above
Answer (B)

29.   Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.   Beryllium
2.   Cadmium
3.   Chromium
4.   Heptachlor
5.   Mercury
6.   Lead
7.   Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)   1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)   2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.   Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)   carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)   carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)   ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)   nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.   With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.   A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.   Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.   A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
   National Park   River flowing through the Park
1.   Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.   Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.   Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   3 only
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (D)

33.   Consider the following organisms:
1.   Agaricus
2.   Nostoc
3.   Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   3 only
Answer (C)

34.   Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.   Excretion of urea by animals
2.   Burning of coal by man
3.   Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.   In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.       Tamil Nadu
2.        Kerala
3.   Karnataka
4.   Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   1 only
(c)   1, 3 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.   Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)   Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)   Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)   Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)   There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.   Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)   The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)   The complete annihilation of self
(c)   A state of bliss and rest
(d)   A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.   According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)   Fundamental Rights
(b)   Fundamental Duties
(c)   Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)   Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.   The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)   Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)   Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)   there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)   the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.   Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)   Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)   Cripps Proposals
(c)   Simon Commission Report
(d)   Wavell Plan
Answer (B)

41.   The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)   all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)   goods exported from a country during a year
(c)   economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)   capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.   The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.   liquidity of assets
2.   branch expansion
3.   merger of banks
4.   winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 4 only
(b)   2, 3 and 4 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.   An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)   market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)   Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)   Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)   Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.   In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)   economic development
(b)   redemption of public debt
(c)   adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.   Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.   They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.   They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.   They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.   Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.   Chikungunya
2.   Hepatitis B
3.   HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)     1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.   The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.   Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.   Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.   Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.   Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)   NO2, O3 and   peroxyaceryl nitrate in the   presence of sunlight
(b)   CO, O2 and   peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the   presence    of
(c)   CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)   high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.   Consider the following minerals:
1.   Calcium
2.   Iron
3.   Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.   Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.   consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.   scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.   examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.   Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.   Dadu Dayal
2.   Guru Nanak
3.   Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)   1 and 3
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.   With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.   Virus
2.   Fungi
3.   Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.   The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)   warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)   rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)   warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)   continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.   Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.   Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.   Coexistence of a large number of species
3.   Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.   Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.   Foreign Loans
2.   Foreign Direct Investment
3.   Private Remittances
4.   Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   1, 2 and 4
(c)   2, 3 and 4
(d)   1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.   Consider the following historical places:
1.   Ajanta Caves
2.   Lepakshi Temple
3.   Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (B)

58.   With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the   following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.   Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.   Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.   In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.   Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.   Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.   Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   3 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.   The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.   Thermal difference between land and water
2.   Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.   Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.   Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.   High ash content
2.   Low sulphur content
3.   Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.   Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.   They are generally red in colour.
2.   They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.   They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.   Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   2, 3 and 4
(c)   1 and 4
(d)   2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.   Consider the following statements:
1.   Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.   Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.   Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (B)

64.   Consider the following crops:
1.   Cotton
2.   Groundnut
3.   Rice
4.   Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)   1 and 4
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.   "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
   The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
   (a)   African Savannah
   (b)   Central Asian Steppe
   (c)   North American Prairie
   (d)   Siberian Tundra
   Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
   1.   Inflation benefits the debtors.
   2.   Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a)   1 only
   (b)   2 only
   (c)   Both 1 and 2
   (d)   Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer (A)

67.   Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)   large number of people remain unemployed
(b)   alternative employment is not available
(c)   marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)   productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.   Consider the following statements:
1.   The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.   The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.   The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.   National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.   The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.   The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.   Consider the following statements:
1.   The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.   While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.   With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.   Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.   It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.   meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.   lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.   violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.   Consider the following pairs:
   Tribe       State
   1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
   2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
   3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
   4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
   Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)   1 and 3 only
(b)   2 and 4 only
(c)   1, 3 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.   Demand deposits with the banks
2.   Time deposits with the banks
3.   Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)   1-4-3-2
(b)   4-3-2-1
(c)   2-3-1-4
(d)   4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.   In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)   borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)   lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)   purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

76.   Priority Sector Lending by banks in
   India constitutes the lending to
(a)   agriculture
(b)   micro and small enterprises
(c)   weaker sections
(d)   All of the above
Answer (D)

77.   Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)   Engineering
(b)   Paper and pulp
(c)   Textiles
(d)   Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.   To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)   Promoting skill development
(b)   Introducing more social security schemes
(c)   Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)   Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.   In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)   One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)   Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)   Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)   A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.   Annie Besant was
1.   responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.   the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.   once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

81.   The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)   imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)   imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)   removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)   removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.   A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.   an increase in the money supply
2.   a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.   an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.   Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)   Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)   Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)   Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)   Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.   Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)   Repayment of public debt
(b)   Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)   Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)   Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.   Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)   a fall in the level of prices
(b)   an increase in the rate of interest
(c)   a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)   an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.   Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)   exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)   concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)   rate of respiration is decreased
(d)   there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.   Consider the following fauna of India:
1.   Gharial
2.   Leatherback turth
3.   Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (C)

89.   Consider the following phenomena:
1.   Size of the sun at dusk
2.   Colour of the sun at dawn
3.   Moon being visible at dawn
4.   Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.   Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   3, 4 and 5
(c)   1, 2 and 4
(d)   2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.   Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.   Dispersion
2.   Refraction
3.   Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)   the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)   most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)   most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)   leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.   Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)   there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)   there is population growth in X
(c)   there is capital formation in X
(d)   the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.   Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.   Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.   Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.   Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.   Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.   Hard and waxy leaves
2.   Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.   Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.   The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)   Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)   Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)   Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)   Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.   The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.   It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.   It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.   It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.   Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.   resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.   tolerate extremes of pH
3.   resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.   Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.   The Prime Minister
2.   The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.   Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.   Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   1, 3 and 4 only
(c)   2 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)   total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)   sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)   sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)   money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.   Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.   Regional Rural Banks
2.   National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.   Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

Sunday, May 26, 2013

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER

Friday, March 8, 2013

New format of civil services exams declared

The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) has notified fresh changes in the format of country’s prestigious exam- the Civil Services Exam conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). The decision had come in the wake of recommendations of a committee headed by Prof Arun S Nigavekar, former Chairman, UGC.

For details please click here:

Thursday, March 7, 2013

UPSC Civil Service Examination, 2013

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2013 on 26/05/2013 for recruitment of various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.

Eligibility:

Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2013. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
- General Category : Four
- Physical Handicapped : Seven
- OBC : Seven
- SC / ST : No Limit

Online Application Submission : Candidates must apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php from 05/03/203 to 04/04/2013 .

Fee: Deposit Rs.100/- (No fee for Female/ SC/ST/PH candidates) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/ State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/ Sate Bank of Hyderabad/ State Bank of Mysore/ State Bank of Patiala /State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/ Master Credit/ Debit Card.

Candidates can obtain details of the examination, venues of the examination and syllabus etc. at http://upsc.gov.in/exams/notifications/2013/csp_ifs/index.htm

Saturday, November 17, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-2

Thursday, October 18, 2012

UPSC CIVILS 2012 ESSAY (COMPULSORY) QUESTION PAPER

Write an Essay on any one of the following topics?    200 Marks

1.     In the Context of Gandhiji’s views on the matter, explore on an evalutionary scale, the terms Swadhinata, Swaraj, and Dharmarajya. Critically Comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian Democracy.

2.     Is the Criticism that the ‘Public-Private-Partnership’ (PPP) model for development is more of a bane that a boon in the Indian context, Justified?

3.     Science and Mysticism : Are they Compatible?

4.     Managing work and home - is the Indian working woman getting a fair deal?

Tuesday, August 21, 2012

PERSONS IN NEWS 2012 (International)

(Useful for UPSC Civil Services Mains)

Alana Seebarran

Alana Seebarran of Guyana has been crowned as the Miss India Worldwide 2012 in the 23rd edition of the pageant held in Suriname capital of Paramaribo.

Alberto Contador

Spanish cyclist Alberto Contador on February 6, 2012 Received a two-year ban for doping during the 2010 Tour de France and was stripped of his victory in the race. Contador tested positive for the banned anabolic agent clenuterol.

Bosusco Paolo

Italian tour operator Bosusco Paolo was finally released by te Odisha State Organising Committee of the outlawed Communist Party of India (Maoist) in Kandhamal district on April 12, 2012

Chandra Bahadur Dangi

Nepal's Chandra Bahadur Dangi was declared the world's shortest living man at a ceremony in Kathmandu on February 26, 2012 Dangi, who measured at just 21.5 inches (54.6 centimetres), snatched the title from Junrey Balawing of the Philippines.

Christian Wulff

Germany's President Christian Wulff resigned on February 17, 2012 in a scandal over favours he allegedly received before becoming head of state, creating a major domestic distraction for Chancellor Angela Merkel as she grapples with Europe's debt crisis.

Charles Taylor

A U.N. –backed war crimes court sentenced the former President of Liberin, Charles Taylor, to 50 years in jail on May 30, 2012 for arming rebels in Sierra Leone in return for "blood diamonds" Taylor, 64 was earlier convicted of all 11 counts of war crimes and crimes against humanity for aiding and abetting Sierra Leone's Revolutionary United Front during the country's brutal 1991-2001 civil war.

Continue to Reading »

SUMMITS & CONFERENCES

(Useful for UPSC Civil Services Mains)

OPEC Meet

The 160th Meeting of the Conference of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) convened in Vienna, Austria, on 14 December 2011, under the Chairmanship of its President, HE Eng Rostam Ghasemi, Minister of Petroleum of the Islamic Republic of Iran. The Conference reviewed recent oil market devel-opments, as presented by the Secretary General, in particular supply/ demand projections, as well as the outlook for 2012. The Conference noted, further, that, although world oil demand is forecast to increase slightly during the year 2012, this rise is expected to be partially offset by a projected increase in non-OPEC supply. The Conference decided that its next Ordinary Meeting will convene in Vienna, Austria, on 14 June 2012.

International Conference on climate change, Sustainable agriculture and Public leaderhsip

A two-day International Conference on Climate Change, Sustainable Agriculture and Public Leadership was held in New Delhi. The main objective of this conference was to bring scientists, teachers, researchers, economists, managers and policy makers from around the w orld on a single platform to discuss various aspects of climate change, sustainable agriculture and public leadership and develop a consensus containing a set of valuable recommendations, as a way forward for addressing the issues related to the future climate scenario, Indian agriculture and food security.

First Interpol Global Programme on Anti-Corruption and Asset Recovery

The first Global Programme on Anti-Corruption and Asset licovery for Investigators and Prosecutors (13-18 February,-2012) hosted by the CBI, was at-tended by 39 police officers, Birvestigators and prosecutors from various INTERPOL member countries from across the world, including Australia, Afghanistan, China, Hongkong, Sri Lanka, United Kingdom, jfcrcenesia, Fiji, Malaysia, Nepal, Singapore, Philippines and facia

The main purpose of the Global Programme was to enhance knowledge and skills of investigators and prosecutors in nc icing assets of mass corruption, and making effective use rf 1 egal assistance in international and trans-border investigations. Of India Dr. Manmohan Singh, UN Secretary General Mr. Ban Ki-Moon, and former Governor of California Mr. Arnold Schwarzenegger.

Continue to Reading »

NEWSMAKERS 2011-12

(Useful for Civil Services Mains Exam)

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, the renowned Indian-American scientist whose pioneering work in Molecular Biology won him the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry, has been knighted in the New Year Honours List 2012. He has been conferred knighthood “for services to Molecular Biology”. Ramakrishnan, a US citizen, is based at the MRC Laboratory of Molecular Biology in Cambridge. He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2010.

Jordan Romero

Jordan Romero, a US teenager became the youngest person to successfully climb to the summit of the seven tallest mountains on Earth’s seven continents. He beat the record previously held by British climber George Atkinson, who completed the ascents at age 16.

Neha Shekhawat

Flight Lieutenant Sneha Shekhawat is the first woman pilot to lead an Air Force contingent at the 63rd Republic Day parade. She was assisted by three other women Flying Officers Heena Pore, Anupam Chaudhary and Pooja Negi. Shekhawat, from Sikar in Rajasthan, is at present posted with the IAF squadron at Hindon in Ghaziabad air base.

Sebastian Edathy

Indian-origin MP in Germany Sebastian Edathy will head 11- member parliamentary inquiry committee that will investigate the racist-motivated murders across the country by a neo-Nazi cell evading detection for more than a decade. It will be the highest assignment in the political career of Edathy, who became a Social Democratic Party (SPD) member of Bundestag in 1998.

Mae Jemison

Mae Jemison, the first African-American woman to go into space in 1992, has been chosen to head the 100-year Starship project. Jemison's project will explore what it would take for a multi-generational mission beyond the solar system.

Continue to Reading »

Sunday, July 29, 2012

Indian Police Service (Limited) Competitive Exam, 2012

Objective Type Papers

Paper I

Paper II

Descriptive Type Papers

Paper III - English

Paper IV - Essay

Paper V - General Studies

UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2012 Results

The candidates with the Roll Numbers mentioned in the above link have qualified for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2012 based on the result of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2012 held on 20.05.2012.

Instructions to Candidates:

In accordance with the Rules of the Examination, all these candidates have to apply again in the Detailed Application Form (DAF), which would be available on the website of the Union Public Service Commission www.upsc.gov.in.

All the qualified candidates are advised to fill up the DAF and submit the same ONLINE for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2012 to be held from 05.10.2012.

The DAF will be available on the website of the Commission from 1st August, 2012 till 11.59 PM on 21/08/2012. Important instructions regarding filling up of the DAF and submitting the same ONLINE to the Commission would also be available on the website.

The candidates who have been declared successful have to first get themselves registered on the relevant page of the website before filling up the ONLINE Detailed Application Form.

The qualified candidates are further advised to refer to the Rules of the Civil Services Examination, 2012 published in the gazette of India (Extraordinary) of Department of Personnel and Training notification dated 04.2.2012, which is also available on the website of the Commission.

After submitting the DAF duly filled in ONLINE, the candidates are required to take out a print out of the finally submitted DAF separately and will have to send the printed copy of the DAF duly signed by the candidates alongwith all relevant documents including the prescribed fees, wherever applicable as enclosures addressed to the Under Secretary [CS(M)], Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069, so as to reach the Commission's Office latest by 27/08/2012.

The envelope containing the print out of the DAF submitted ONLINE should be superscribed “Application for Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2012”. It can also be delivered at Union Public Service Commission counter by hand till 27/08/2012 (5.00 P.M). It may be noted that mere submission of application form does not, ipso facto, confer on any right for admission to the Main Examination.

The admission certificate alongwith the time table of the Main Examination will be issued to the eligible candidates 2-3 weeks before the commencement of the examination. Changes, if any, in the postal address after submission of the DAF may be communicated to the Commission at once.

The Union Public Service Commission have a Facilitation Counter near the Examination Hall Building in its Campus. Candidates may obtain any information/clarification regarding their result of the above mentioned examination on all working days between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM, in person or on Tel. No. 011-23385271, 011-23098543 or 011-23381125 from this Facilitation Counter. Candidates can also obtain information regarding their result by accessing Union Public Service Commission Website www.upsc.gov.in. The result of Roll Nos.253465 has been withheld.

Written Result - Civil Services (Prel.) Examination 2012

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER - I SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Under which of the following circumstances may “capital gains” arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product

2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned

3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Capital gains arise from sale of capital investments. It can be a home, a farm, a business, shares, mutual fund, jewellery, art and paintings, bonds, other real estate, etc. It excludes items for personal use like apparel, motor vehicle, furniture. It also excludes stock-in-trade for business and agricultural land.

Capital Gains Tax can be triggered by the ‘Transfer’ of above mentioned assets, which includes:

► Acquisition of an asset

► Sale of asset

► Exchange of asset

► Relinquishing of asset

► Extinguishment of rights of an asset, etc

Moreover this tax is related to the value of the asset rather than the quantum of sales of it, therefore statement 1 cannot be true rather statement 2 and 3 are true.

2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank

2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public

3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank

4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Money supply is increased in the system when currency is pushed into the market by any way. As per the given options statements 2 and 4 lead to the absorption of currency from the market while actions following statements 1 and 3 would release it into the market, therefore the answer has to be C.

3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: The FDIs are categorized into vertical and horizontal based on how the subsidiary company works in par with the parent investor.

Vertical FDIs happen when a corporation owns some share of the foreign enterprise. The local enterprise could either be supplying the input or selling finished goods to the parent corporation. The subsidiary here helps the parent company to grow more.

When the MNCs kick off similar business operations in different countries it becomes horizontal Foreign Direct Investment. It is actually a cloning that is happening here. Both the countries enjoy the same share of growth.

(Source moneyguideindia.com)

Further Wikipedia draws a distinction between FDI and portfolio investment as well. According to Wikipedia Foreign direct investment (FDI) is direct investment into one country by a company in production located in another country either by buying a company in the country or by expanding operations of an existing business in the country. Foreign direct investment is in contrast to portfolio investment which is a passive investment in the securities of another country such as stocks and bonds.

From the above two sources it can be inferred that the answer to this question should be D.

4. Consider the following statements:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank

2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned

3. Stability of the government of the concerned country

4. Economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: There is hardly any direct role of the World Bank in deciding the price of any currency, apart from the case of US dollar which the World Bank uses as its official currency. However the reason for this is also related to the economic potential of the US economy rather than something else. Further statement 2 and 4 imply almost the same thing yet statement 4 is more explicit. Therefore out of the given options, C option seems to be the best choice.

5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each district

(b) There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks

(d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following:

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops

2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

Ans. (d)

Exp: Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of soil and the quality of crops is a practice which has been in vogue since ancient times and there are definite evidences right from the Gupta period.

Cannons were first introduced in India in the medieval period while there are references of the use of mobile cannons by Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat.

Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies was pioneered by the Portuguese.

Therefore the answer has to be D.

7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.

2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.

3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: (Source: The article on Srenis titled Sreni (Guilds): a Unique Social Innovation of Ancient India by Manikant Shah & D.P. Agrawal)

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced a federal constitution to India, involving distribution of powers between the Centre and the constituent units.

9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.

2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.

3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) Direction facing the polestar

(b) Direction opposite to the polestar

(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Pole star always identified with the north direction.

11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called “rare earth metals”. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export

2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.

3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Wikipedia on rare earths says that “Searches for alternative sources in Australia, Brazil, Canada, South Africa, Tanzania, Greenland, and the United States are ongoing. Mines in these countries were closed when China undercut world prices in the 1990s, and it will take a few years to restart production as there are many barriers to entry”, which also means that such metals are found beyond China, Canada, Australia and Chile as well. Therefore the answer is C.

12. Consider the following protected areas:

1. Bandipur

2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas

4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Bhitarkanika is not yet declared a Tiger reserve.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The duration of monsoon is maximum over the peninsular region i.e. starting from around 1 June in Kerala to around mid of October, while such is not the case for north India. Further the amount of rainfall in eastern part of the northern plains is greater than that in the western part. Therefore the answer is C.

14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year

(b) Rainfall in winter only

(d) A definite dry and wet season

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tropical savannah region is characterized by a definite dry season which is mentioned in the option D.

15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves

(b) National Parks

(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Ans. (b)

Exp: According to the Indian Forest Dwellers Act 2006, the core areas of the National Parks are protected and local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass from these areas.

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bat

2. Bee

3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the three are pollinating agents.

17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard

(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Ans. (a)

18. Consider the following statements:

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp

2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink

3. The blotting paper would fail to function

4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the processes are possible because of capillarity.

19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water

(b) Control of climate and disease

(d) Maintenance of diversity

Ans. (c)

Exp: Source: Wikipedia

20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains

(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming

2. Fragmentation of habitat

3. Invasion of alien species

4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: All options other than that give impetus to vegetarianism obstruct the interaction between organic and inorganic elements.

22. Consider the following:

1. Black-necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the animals mentioned in the option are found naturally in India.

23. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: In contour bunding and relay cropping the deterioration in carbonic matter is minimum compared to the practice of zero tillage.

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: If phytoplankton is completely destroyed then the primary producer of the Food-chain will get completely destroyed. Other than that the phytoplanktons also absorb heavy amount of CO2 in the process of Photosynthesis.

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

Ans. (b)

Exp: A drug Diclofenac used by cattle owners for treating diseased cattle destroys the digestive system of vultures.

26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (d)

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.

Ans. (a)

Exp: The purpose of an adjournment motion is to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.

3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans. (a)

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.

2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.

3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.

4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans. (d)

31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organizing village Panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1 , 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

32. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Exp: The Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. According to the Constitution of India the parliament consists of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the president. The power to decide election disputes at present rests in the High Courts with a right to appeal to the Supreme Court (Article-329).

33. With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Lok Sabha speaker does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. The speaker must be a member of parliament at the time of his/her election.

35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

4. A dispute between two or more states

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Exp: The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court includes-

(a) Disputes between GOI and one or more states.

(b) GOI and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other.

(c) Between two or more states (Article-131)

36. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.

2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.

3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Biomass gasification contains Hydrogen, Carbon-monoxide and Methane and it is used in combustion engines.

38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.

2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.

3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The ultraviolet (UV) radiation inactivates/kills the harmful micro-organisms in water.

39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.

4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Graphene is an allotrope of carbon.

40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units

2. Pens and pencils

3. Paints

4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

41. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.

2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.

3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Stem cells are found in all multi-cellular organisms.

42. Consider the following statements:

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams

2. in the production of tubeless tyres

3. in cleaning certain electronic components

4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: CFC is used in Refrigeration, Foams, Solvents, Aerosol Products and Sterilants.

43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.

2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.

3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space

2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space

3. Movement of asteroids in space

4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Hubble discovered that there is a simple relationship between the distance to a remote galaxy and the redshift in the spectral lines from the galaxy.

45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Sun continually emits a flux of electrically charged particles into space. The earth's magnetic field prevents these charged particles from reaching earth's surface.

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.

2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.

3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.

4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Internal organ transplant is a relatively new field with first successful transplant in 1954 in USA.

47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment

2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas

3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Jainas and Buddhas both denied the efficacy of rituals and were indifferent to the authority of Vedas but in the case of penance and enjoyment they differed, while Buddhas were for the moderate path jains strictly condemned all enjoyments and supported extreme penance such as plucking out their hair from the skin.

48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of “Inclusive Governance’?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking

2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts

3. Increasing the government spending on public health

4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Inclusive Governance include-

a) Empowering the affected individuals and groups

b) Operating in an atmosphere of mutual respect and trust.

c) Producing Practical decisions and strategies flexible and open to revision with time.

49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the language of India can be classified

(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Ans. (c)

50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces

(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (d)

Exp: After declaration of war without any consultation with Indian people on Sep. 3, 1939 by Linlithgow, the congress working committee suggested that it would cooperate if there were Central Indian National Government formed and a commitment made to India's Independence after War. Linlithgow refused the demand and on October 1939 all congress ministries resigned.

51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup

2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy

3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization

4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Communal electorates for muslims – 1909

53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government

(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: Founded by Ranade and R. Rao to endorse the uplift of untouchables as well as education of women etc.

54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India

2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation

3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Peasants and worker party was formed in 1949, Chairperson was Jayant Prabhakar and General Secretary was S.V. Jadav.

55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Ans. (b)

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas

2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development

3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Objective of the mission is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self-employment and wage employment opportunities.

57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level

2. Purchasing power parity at national level

3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The MPI identifies deprivation across health, education and living standards.

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend

3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones

2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'

3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: National Manufacturing Policy-2010

(1) Setting up of Manufacturing Investment Regions (MIR).

(2) Single window clearance mechanism for manufacturing units.

(3) Establishing Technology acquisition and development fund.

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office

5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

(d) None of the statement (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (c)

Exp: On September 16, 1932, in his cell at Yeravada Jail near Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi begins a hunger strike in protest of the British government's decision to separate India's electoral system by caste by communal award.

62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government

2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots

3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Ryotwari system, one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India. It was prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency (a British-controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states). The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas (later Sir Thomas) Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras (now Chennai).

Under the Ryotwari System # every registered holder of land is recognised as its proprietor. The principle was the # direct collection of the land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents. For this purpose # all holdings were measured and assessed according to crop potential and actual cultivation. The advantages of this system were the elimination of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers, and an assessment of the tax on land actually cultivated and not merely occupied.

63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

1. Low birth rate with low death rate

2. High birth rate with high death rate

3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3

Ans. (c)

Exp:

64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement 2. Fertilizers

3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products

5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Index of Eight Core Industries (Base: 2004-05=100) March 2012.

The summarized Index of Eight Core Industries with 2004-05 base is given at the Annexure.

The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The combined Index was 158.4 in March 2012 with a growth rate of 2.0% compared to their 6.5% growth in March 2011. During April-March 2011-12, the cumulative growth rate of the Core industries was 4.3 % as against their growth at 6.6% during the corresponding period in 2010-11.

Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy), Cement, Electricity.

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans. (a)

66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckhorn'. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification

2. It is a rich source of biodiesel

3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Exp: oil is used to treat skin burns from radiation. Currently, cosmetic companies are adding sea-buckthorn oil to anti-aging preparations. Not biodiesel.

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Exp: Mixed farming is the combining of two independent agricultural enterprises on the same farm. A typical case of mixed farming is the combination of crop enterprise with dairy farming or in more general terms, crop cultivation with livestock farming. Mixed farming may be treated as a special case of diversified farming. This particular combination of enterprises, support each other and add to the farmer’s profitability.

68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.

3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(d) Uttarakhand

Ans. (a)

69. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea

2. Green gram

3. Pigeon pea

Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: green gram (mung) is not used as fodder.

70. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth

2. Air pressure and wind

3. Density of ocean water

4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Exp: The four factors that influence ocean currents are: (1) Planet rotation, (2) Wind, (3) Density of the water (depends on temperature and salinity), and (4) Gravitation of the moon and earth.

71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tamil Nadu has wetland area of 18.05%, Gujarat has 17.56%.

Inland wetland

Natural- 43.40% Man-made-25.83% Total - 69.23%

Coastal wetland

Natural- 24.27% Man-made 2.80% Total- 27.07%

72. Consider the following crops of India?

1. Groundnut

2. Sesamum

3. Pearl millet

Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges

2. U-tern river courses

3. Parallel mountain ranges

4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface

2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere

3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: the earth’s atmosphere is not heated by the sun. The sun light comes in through the atmosphere. 25% of it is lost through reflection and then 50% is used to heat the surface of the earth, which then makes the Earth warmer, and heats up the atmosphere. This heat is then stored around the earth because of the ozone layer, keeping us warm.

75. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

77. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is:

1. to promote institutional deliveries

2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery

3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months

(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (a)

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India in this behalf.

The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

80. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants

2. Motor transport undertakings

3. Newspaper establishments

4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: most of the State Govts. have extended the ESI Act to certain specific classes of establishments, such as, Medical and Educational Institutes, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motor transport undertakings, newspaper and advertising establishments etc., employing 10 or more persons.

81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The conclusions of the Public Accounts Committee are contained in its Report, which, after its adoption by the Committee, is presented by the Chairman to the Lok Sabha.

82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Disagreement between the two Houses on amendments to a Bill may be resolved by both the Houses meeting in a joint sitting where questions are decided by majority vote. However, this provision of joint sitting does not apply to Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills.

83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.

2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.

3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.

4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The DRDAs are not the implementing agencies, but can be very effective in enhancing the quality of implementation through overseeing the implementation of different programmes and ensuring that necessary linkages are provided. It shall be their endeavour and objective to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. It is their ability to coordinate and bring about a convergence of approach among different agencies for poverty alleviation that would set them apart. The DRDAs are expected to coordinate effectively with the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Under no circumstances will they perform the functions of PRIs.

84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Fundamental duties as enshrined in Indian Constitution are:

(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Supreme Court Judges are not removed by the Chief Justice rather they are removed by the President by a method prescribed in the Constitution. Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and staff of the Supreme Court without any interference from the Executive or Legislature.

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.

2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.

3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Thorium is three times more abundant in nature compared to uranium. Because nearly all of the thorium is used up in an Thorium Reactor (versus only about 0.7% of uranium mined for a conventional Uranium reactor), the reactor achieves high energy production per metric ton of fuel ore, on the order of 300 times the output of a typical uranium reactor. A Thorium Reactor power plant would generate 4,000 times less mining waste (solids and liquids of similar character to those in uranium mining) and would generate 1,000 to 10,000 times less nuclear waste than a Uranium reactor. Additionally, because Thorium Reactor burns all of its nuclear fuel, the majority of the waste products (83%) are safe within 10 years, and the remaining waste products (17%) need to be stored in geological isolation for only about 300 years (compared to 10,000 years or more for uranium waste).

87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

(a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation

Ans. (d)

Exp: Carbon dioxide is virtually transparent to the visible radiation that delivers the sun's energy to the earth. But the earth in turn reradiates much of the energy in the invisible infrared region of the spectrum. This radiation is most intense at wavelengths very close to the principal absorption band (13 to 17 microns) of the carbon dioxide spectrum. When the carbon dioxide concentration is sufficiently high, even its weaker absorption bands become effective, and a greater amount of infrared radiation is absorbed. Because the carbon dioxide blanket prevents its escape into space, the trapped radiation warms up the atmosphere.

88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

Ans. (b)

Exp: Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Phosphorus were the elements which formed the DNA responsible for the origin of life on earth.

89. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.

2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.

3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.

4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The main concern for farmers and people is that the terminator seeds in the Bt brinjal would not let the fruit have its natural seed for reproduction. Hence after each harvest farmers would need to buy seeds from the seed companies. Environment activists says the effect of GM (genetically modified) crops on rats have shown to be fatal for lungs and kidneys.

90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought

2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce

3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations

4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Though with the help of genetic engineering the third option (3) can be achieved but it was not the prospect for which genetically engineered plants have been created.

91. Consider the following statements:

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians

3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.

2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.

3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: origin from Sama Veda. The lyrics, some of which were written in Sanskrit centuries ago, Dhrupad music is primarily devotional in theme and content.

93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.

2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The dance form spread further during the Bhakti movement between 11th and the 13th century, when dance dramas set to devotional themes were performed by a cast of all men in open-air theaters, with the men playing both the male and female roles. The dramas were usually opened by the narrator, or soothradhar accompanied by (music and) the rhythms of the drums and cymbals. As the audience watched with rapt attention, the characters would introduce themselves, with the lead roles entering the stage behind a curtain. Dramatic elements were used heavily throughout the performance, with the characters speaking out dialogues to the audience during key moments.

94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath

2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place

3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts

(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Ans. (b)

96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Lahore session of Indian National Congress of 1929 was held under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. The two important decisions taken were the following:

a. The attainment of complete independence: It was declared in this session that the chief goal of the Indian National congress was the attainment of complete independence.

b. It was decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji to get the complete independence..

c. It was decided in this session to celebrate 26th January as the Independence Day all over the country. Because of its significance the same day was chosen as the Republic day of India.

97. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes:

(a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation

(b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara

(c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory

(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: The "earth witness" Buddha is one of the most common iconic images of Buddhism. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth. This represents the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment.

Just before the historical Buddha, Siddhartha Gautama, realized enlightenment, it is said the demon Mara attacked him with armies of monsters to frighten Siddhartha from his seat under the bodhi tree. But the about-to-be Buddha did not move. Then Mara claimed the seat of enlightenment for himself, saying his spiritual accomplishments were greater than Siddhartha's. Mara's monstrous soldiers cried out together, "I am his witness!" Mara challenged Siddhartha--who will speak for you?

Then Siddhartha reached out his right hand to touch the earth, and the earth itself roared, "I bear you witness!" Mara disappeared. And as the morning star rose in the sky, Siddhartha Gautama realized enlightenment and became a Buddha.

98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas

Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.

2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.

3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the bankers' bank. According to the provisions of the Banking Companies Act of 1949, every scheduled bank was required to maintain with the Reserve Bank a cash balance equivalent to 5% of its demand liabilites and 2 per cent of its time liabilities in India. By an amendment of 1962, the distinction between demand and time liabilities was abolished and banks have been asked to keep cash reserves equal to 3 per cent of their aggregate deposit liabilities. The minimum cash requirements can be changed by the Reserve Bank of India.

The scheduled banks can borrow from the Reserve Bank of India on the basis of eligible securities or get financial accommodation in times of need or stringency by rediscounting bills of exchange. Since commercial banks can always expect the Reserve Bank of India to come to their help in times of banking crisis the Reserve Bank becomes not only the banker's bank but also the lender of the last resort.

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APPSC MATERIAL

Pages

Monday, May 27, 2013

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-II KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

Sunday, May 26, 2013

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER

Friday, March 8, 2013

New format of civil services exams declared

Thursday, March 7, 2013

UPSC Civil Service Examination, 2013

Saturday, November 17, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-2

Thursday, October 18, 2012

UPSC CIVILS 2012 ESSAY (COMPULSORY) QUESTION PAPER

Tuesday, August 21, 2012

PERSONS IN NEWS 2012 (International)

(Useful for UPSC Civil Services Mains)

Alana Seebarran

Alberto Contador

Bosusco Paolo

Chandra Bahadur Dangi

Christian Wulff

Charles Taylor

SUMMITS & CONFERENCES

NEWSMAKERS 2011-12

Sunday, July 29, 2012

Indian Police Service (Limited) Competitive Exam, 2012

UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2012 Results

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER - I SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

APPSC EXAM KEYS