Thursday, May 31, 2012

Group II Exams postponed to July 21 & 22




 Group-II Services recruitment (Direct) Notification No.39/2011 for which Examination Scheduled on 
14/07/2012 AM & 15/07/2012 FN & AN have been postponed to 21/07/2012 AN & 22/07/2012 FN & AN in view of the UPSC, I.F.S (AIS) Exam to be held on 15/07/2012. The exams scheduled for  22/07/2012 have been postponed to 19/08/2012.

Sunday, May 27, 2012

APPSC GROUP-I PRELIMS 2012 KEY

APPSC 2012 Group - I preliminary Exam Cut off marks Analysis



Andhra pradesh public service commission (APPSC) conducted Group-1 preliminary examination on 27/05/2012. Total 1,73,265 candidates attend for this exam. 72.50% attend the preliminary exam.
 
This is only a screening test which means these marks are considered only to select candidates to main exam in the ratio of 1:50. As there is 312 posts,  generally 15,600 aspirants are going to permitted to take main exam. There is no reservation or quota in selecting candidates for main exam from preliminary examination.

As per the experts opinion question Paper is relatively easy or average.


The cutoff marks estimation vary from expert to expert.
 
Generally it is expected to between 90 to 95 marks.

Those candidates who got more than 95 (+/- 5)  marks they may Start preparation for Group-I main exams.

Friday, May 25, 2012

Annual Conference on Disaster Management

Annual Conference of Relief Commissioners/ Secretaries, Department of Disaster Management of States/ UTs will be held on 28th May, 2012 in New Delhi to review the status of preparedness for dealing with crisis situations resulting from the South-west Monsoon, 2012 and to discuss other disaster management related issues. Representatives of concerned Central Ministries/ Organizations rendering Emergency Support Functions will also participate besides representatives of Central Armed Police Forces.

The Conference will be inaugurated by R.K. Singh, Union Home Secretary and will be presided over by A.E. Ahmad, Secretary (Border Management), Ministry of Home Affairs.

India Meteorological Department, Central Water Commission, Ministry of Defence, National Disaster Management Authority, Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services, National Disaster Response Force, Snow and Avalanche Studies Establishment and Indian Space Research Organization will also participate in the conference. The role of these organizations in preparedness and further enhancement of their capabilities to deal with the disasters will be discussed. The various issues related to disaster preparedness and other disaster management relating to the States/UTs will be reviewed/discussed.

Sustaining the Environment

On completing three years in office the UPA Government recently released a ‘Report To The People’. The following achievements pertain to the Ministry of Environment & Forest and in the field of sustaining the environment.

National Action Plan on Climate Change
The National Action Plan advocates a strategy that promotes, firstly, the adaptation to climate change and secondly, further enhancement of the ecological sustainability of India’s development path. The eight missions under the PM’s Council on Climate Change are the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, the National Water Mission, the National Missions on Enhanced Energy Efficiency, Sustainable Habitat, and Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change, and the National Missions for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, a Green India and Sustainable Agriculture.

Forest Conservation
An amount of Rs. 848 crore was released to State Level Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities to carry out protection, conservation and regeneration of natural forests in addition to compensatory afforestation. National Green Tribunal

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in October, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property. Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the five place of sitting of the NGT.

Mission Clean Ganga
Projects worth nearly Rs. 2,600 crore have been sanctioned by the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA). These include projects for development of sewer networks, sewage treatment plants and sewage pumping stations, electric crematoria, community toilets and development of river fronts.

Several innovations have been introduced for improved implementation of projects sanctioned by the NGRBA. These include Tripartite Memoranda of Agreements, project appraisal by independent institutions, Third Party Inspection, etc. State River Conservation Authorities have been constituted in the five Ganga basin States to facilitate better coordination and implementation of conservation activities at the State level.

The Central Government has secured World Bank assistance of US$ 1 billion for the NGRBA Programme. The World Bank project will support NGRBA’s immediate objective of Mission Clean Ganga.

Tiger Conservation
A detailed report on the country level status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India was released in July, 2011. This was the second round of country level snapshot assessment. The earlier estimation made in 2006 indicated that there were 1411 tigers in the country; the current estimates show that this number has increased by about 20% to 1706.

Thursday, May 24, 2012

APPSC COMPUTER DRAUGHTSMAN EXAM GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

                                                           

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER - I SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Under which of the following circumstances may “capital gains” arise?
1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Exp: Capital gains arise from sale of capital investments. It can be a home, a farm, a business, shares, mutual fund, jewellery, art and paintings, bonds, other real estate, etc. It excludes items for personal use like apparel, motor vehicle, furniture. It also excludes stock-in-trade for business and agricultural land.
Capital Gains Tax can be triggered by the ‘Transfer’ of above mentioned assets, which includes:
Acquisition of an asset
Sale of asset
Exchange of asset
Relinquishing of asset
Extinguishment of rights of an asset, etc
  Moreover this tax is related to the value of the asset rather than the quantum of sales of it, therefore statement 1 cannot be true rather statement 2 and 3 are true.
2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Money supply is increased in the system when currency is pushed into the market by any way. As per the given options statements 2 and 4 lead to the absorption of currency from the market while actions following statements 1 and 3 would release it into the market, therefore the answer has to be C.

3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Exp: The FDIs are categorized into vertical and horizontal based on how the subsidiary company works in par with the parent investor.
Vertical FDIs happen when a corporation owns some share of the foreign enterprise. The local enterprise could either be supplying the input or selling finished goods to the parent corporation. The subsidiary here helps the parent company to grow more.
When the MNCs kick off similar business operations in different countries it becomes horizontal Foreign Direct Investment. It is actually a cloning that is happening here. Both the countries enjoy the same share of growth.
(Source moneyguideindia.com)
Further Wikipedia draws a distinction between FDI and portfolio investment as well. According to Wikipedia Foreign direct investment (FDI) is direct investment into one country by a company in production located in another country either by buying a company in the country or by expanding operations of an existing business in the country. Foreign direct investment is in contrast to portfolio investment which is a passive investment in the securities of another country such as stocks and bonds.
From the above two sources it can be inferred that the answer to this question should be D.

4. Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Exp: There is hardly any direct role of the World Bank in deciding the price of any currency, apart from the case of US dollar which the World Bank uses as its official currency. However the reason for this is also related to the economic potential of the US economy rather than something else. Further statement 2 and 4 imply almost the same thing yet statement 4 is more explicit. Therefore out of the given options, C option seems to be the best choice.

5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each district
(b) There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(c) Individual banks should adopt particular districts for inten¬sive development
(d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following:
1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (d)
Exp: Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of soil and the quality of crops is a practice which has been in vogue since ancient times and there are definite evidences right from the Gupta period.
Cannons were first introduced in India in the medieval period while there are references of the use of mobile cannons by Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat.   
Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies was pioneered by the Portuguese.
Therefore the answer has to be D.

7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Exp: (Source: The article on Srenis titled  Sreni (Guilds): a Unique Social Innovation of Ancient India by Manikant Shah & D.P. Agrawal)

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans. (c)
Exp: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced a federal constitution to India, involving distribution of powers between the Centre and the constituent units.

9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans. (b)

10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
(a) Direction facing the polestar
(b) Direction opposite to the polestar
(c) Direction keeping the polestar to his left
(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right
Ans. (c)
Exp: The Pole star always identified with the north direction.

11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called “rare earth metals”. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Exp: Wikipedia on rare earths says that “Searches for alternative sources in Australia, Brazil, Canada, South Africa, Tanzania, Greenland, and the United States are ongoing. Mines in these countries were closed when China undercut world prices in the 1990s, and it will take a few years to restart production as there are many barriers to entry”, which also means that such metals are found beyond China, Canada, Australia and Chile as well. Therefore the answer is C.

12. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp: Bhitarkanika is not yet declared a Tiger reserve.

13. Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Exp: The duration of monsoon is maximum over the peninsular region i.e. starting from around 1 June in Kerala to around mid of October, while such is not the case for north India. Further the amount of rainfall in eastern part of the northern plains is greater than that in the western part. Therefore the answer is C.
14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
(a) Rainfall throughout the year
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) A definite dry and wet season
Ans. (d)
Exp: Tropical savannah region is characterized by a definite dry season which is mentioned in the option D.
15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Ans. (b)
Exp: According to the Indian Forest Dwellers Act 2006, the core areas of the National Parks are protected and local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass from these areas.

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp: All the three are pollinating agents.

17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
Ans. (a)

18. Consider the following statements:
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. The blotting paper would fail to function
4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp: All the processes are possible because of capillarity.

19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
(a) Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease 
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity
Ans. (c)
Exp: Source: Wikipedia

20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1.   Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Exp: All options other than that give impetus to vegetarianism obstruct the interaction between organic and inorganic elements.

22. Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp: All the animals mentioned in the option are found naturally in India.

23. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them
Ans. (a)
Exp: In contour bunding and relay cropping the deterioration in carbonic matter is minimum compared to the practice of zero tillage.

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: If phytoplankton is completely destroyed then the primary producer of the Food-chain will get completely destroyed. Other than that the phytoplanktons also absorb heavy amount of CO2 in the process of Photosynthesis.

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle 
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
Ans. (b)
Exp: A drug Diclofenac used by cattle owners for treating diseased cattle destroys the digestive system of vultures. 


26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or    mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is 

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance 
(b) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
Ans. (a)
Exp: The purpose of an adjournment motion is to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance. 

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
 Ans. (a)

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water. 
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans. (d)
31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats 
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities 
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1 , 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

32. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (d)
Exp: The Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. According to the Constitution of India the parliament consists of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the president. The power to decide election disputes at present rests in the High Courts with a right to appeal to the Supreme Court (Article-329).

33. With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (b)
Exp: Lok Sabha speaker does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. The speaker must be a member of parliament at the time of his/her election.

35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 
4. A dispute between two or more states 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court includes-
(a) Disputes between GOI and one or more states. 
(b) GOI and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other. 
(c) Between two or more states (Article-131)

36. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bacteria 
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: Biomass gasification contains Hydrogen, Carbon-monoxide and Methane and it is used in combustion engines.
38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: The ultraviolet (UV) radiation inactivates/kills the harmful micro-organisms in water.

39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Graphene is an allotrope of carbon.

40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)


41. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)  1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Exp: Stem cells are found in all multi-cellular organisms.
42. Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used
1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: CFC is used in Refrigeration, Foams, Solvents, Aerosol Products and Sterilants.
43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above can be cited as evidence
Ans. (b)
Exp: Hubble discovered that there is a simple relationship between the distance to a remote galaxy and the redshift in the spectral lines from the galaxy.

45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans. (a)
Exp: The Sun continually emits a flux of electrically charged particles into space. The earth's magnetic field prevents these charged particles from reaching earth's surface.

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Internal organ transplant is a relatively new field with first successful transplant in 1954 in USA.

47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Exp: Jainas and Buddhas both denied the efficacy of rituals and were indifferent to the authority of Vedas but in the case of penance and enjoyment they differed, while Buddhas were for the moderate path jains strictly condemned all enjoyments and supported extreme penance such as plucking out their hair from the skin.
48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of “Inclusive Governance’?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Inclusive Governance include-
a) Empowering the affected individuals and groups
b) Operating in an atmosphere of mutual respect and trust. 
c) Producing Practical decisions and strategies flexible and open to revision with time.

49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the language of India can be classified
(c) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
Ans. (c)
50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
(c) There were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
 Ans. (d)
Exp: After declaration of war without any consultation with Indian people on Sep. 3, 1939 by Linlithgow, the congress working committee suggested that it would cooperate if there were Central Indian National Government formed and a commitment made to India's Independence after War. Linlithgow refused the demand and on October 1939 all congress ministries resigned.
51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c)  1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)  1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c)  1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Exp: Communal electorates for muslims – 1909

53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. (d)
Exp: Founded by Ranade and R. Rao to endorse the uplift of untouchables as well as education of women etc.

54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Exp: Peasants and worker party was formed in 1949, Chairperson was Jayant Prabhakar and General Secretary was S.V. Jadav.

55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
Ans. (b)

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)
Exp: Objective of the mission is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self-employment and wage employment opportunities.

57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: The MPI identifies deprivation across health, education and living standards.

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp: National Manufacturing Policy-2010
(1) Setting up of Manufacturing Investment Regions (MIR).
(2) Single window clearance mechanism for manufacturing units. 
(3) Establishing Technology acquisition and development fund.

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (a)

61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
(d) None of the statement (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. (c)
Exp: On September 16, 1932, in his cell at Yeravada Jail near Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi begins a hunger strike in protest of the British government's decision to separate India's electoral system by caste by communal award.

62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (c)
Exp: Ryotwari system, one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India. It was prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency (a British-controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states). The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas (later Sir Thomas) Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras (now Chennai). 
Under the Ryotwari System # every registered holder of land is recognised as its proprietor. The principle was the # direct collection of the land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents. For this purpose # all holdings were measured and assessed according to crop potential and actual cultivation. The advantages of this system were the elimination of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers, and an assessment of the tax on land actually cultivated and not merely occupied. 

63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:
1. Low birth rate with low death rate
2. High birth rate with high death rate
3. High birth rate with low death rate
Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3
(c)  2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1
Ans. (c)
Exp:


64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement 2.  Fertilizers
3. Natural gas 4.  Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans. (c)
Exp: Index of Eight Core Industries (Base: 2004-05=100) March 2012.
The summarized Index of Eight Core Industries with 2004-05 base is given at the Annexure.
The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).  The combined Index was 158.4 in March 2012 with a growth rate of 2.0% compared to their 6.5% growth in March 2011. During April-March 2011-12, the cumulative growth rate of the Core industries was 4.3 % as against their growth at 6.6% during the corresponding period in 2010-11.
Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy), Cement, Electricity.

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5
Ans. (a)

66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckhorn'. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans:  (c)
Exp: oil is used to treat skin burns from radiation. Currently, cosmetic companies are adding sea-buckthorn oil to anti-aging preparations. Not biodiesel.

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Exp: Mixed farming is the combining of two independent agricultural enterprises on the same farm. A typical case of mixed farming is the combination of crop enterprise with dairy farming or in more general terms, crop cultivation with livestock farming. Mixed farming may be treated as a special case of diversified farming. This particular combination of enterprises, support each other and add to the farmer’s profitability.

68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this State. 
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans. (a)

69. Consider the following crops of India:
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea
Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Exp: green gram (mung) is not used as fodder.

70. Consider the following factors:
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 
(b) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp: The four factors that influence ocean currents are: (1) Planet rotation, (2) Wind, (3) Density of the water (depends on temperature and salinity), and (4) Gravitation of the moon and earth.

71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:
1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Exp: Tamil Nadu has wetland area of 18.05%, Gujarat has 17.56%.
Inland wetland
Natural- 43.40% Man-made-25.83% Total - 69.23%
Coastal wetland
Natural- 24.27% Man-made 2.80% Total- 27.07%

72. Consider the following crops of India?
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
1. Deep gorges
2. U-tern river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: the earth’s atmosphere is not heated by the sun. The sun light comes in through the atmosphere. 25% of it is lost through reflection and then 50% is used to heat the surface of the earth, which then makes the Earth warmer, and heats up the atmosphere. This heat is then stored around the earth because of the ozone layer, keeping us warm.

75. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

77. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is:
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (a)

78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a)

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Exp: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India in this behalf.  
The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

80. Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which 
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp: most of the State Govts. have extended the ESI Act to certain specific classes of establishments, such as, Medical and Educational Institutes, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motor transport undertakings, newspaper and advertising establishments etc., employing 10 or more persons.

81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: The conclusions of the Public Accounts Committee are contained in its Report, which, after its adoption by the Committee, is presented by the Chairman to the Lok Sabha. 

82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: Disagreement between the two Houses on amendments to a Bill may be resolved by both the Houses meeting in a joint sitting where questions are decided by majority vote.  However, this provision of joint sitting does not apply to Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills.

83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp: The DRDAs are not the implementing agencies, but can be very effective in enhancing the quality of implementation through overseeing the implementation of different programmes and ensuring that necessary linkages are provided.  It shall be their endeavour and objective to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. It is their ability to coordinate and bring about a convergence of approach among different agencies for poverty alleviation that would set them apart. The DRDAs are expected to coordinate effectively with the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Under no circumstances will they perform the functions of PRIs.

84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Fundamental duties as enshrined in Indian Constitution are:
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
(k) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Exp: The Supreme Court Judges are not removed by the Chief Justice rather they are removed by the President by a method prescribed in the Constitution. Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and staff of the Supreme Court without any interference from the Executive or Legislature.

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp: Thorium is three times more abundant in nature compared to uranium. Because nearly all of the thorium is used up in an Thorium Reactor (versus only about 0.7% of uranium mined for a conventional Uranium reactor), the reactor achieves high energy production per metric ton of fuel ore, on the order of 300 times the output of a typical uranium reactor. A Thorium Reactor power plant would generate 4,000 times less mining waste (solids and liquids of similar character to those in uranium mining) and would generate 1,000 to 10,000 times less nuclear waste than a Uranium reactor. Additionally, because Thorium Reactor burns all of its nuclear fuel, the majority of the waste products (83%) are safe within 10 years, and the remaining waste products (17%) need to be stored in geological isolation for only about 300 years (compared to 10,000 years or more for uranium waste). 

87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:
(a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat
(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) All the solar radiations
(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation
Ans. (d)
Exp: Carbon dioxide is virtually transparent to the visible radiation that delivers the sun's energy to the earth. But the earth in turn reradiates much of the energy in the invisible infrared region of the spectrum. This radiation is most intense at wavelengths very close to the principal absorption band (13 to 17 microns) of the carbon dioxide spectrum. When the carbon dioxide concentration is sufficiently high, even its weaker absorption bands become effective, and a greater amount of infrared radiation is absorbed. Because the carbon dioxide blanket prevents its escape into space, the trapped radiation warms up the atmosphere.

88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus (d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
Ans. (b)
Exp: Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Phosphorus were the elements which formed the DNA responsible for the origin of life on earth.

89. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp: The main concern for farmers and people is that the terminator seeds in the Bt brinjal would not let the fruit have its natural seed for reproduction. Hence after each harvest farmers would need to buy seeds from the seed companies. Environment activists says the effect of GM (genetically modified) crops on rats have shown to be fatal for lungs and kidneys. 

90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp: Though with the help of genetic engineering the third option (3) can be achieved but it was not the prospect for which genetically engineered plants have been created.

91. Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (a)

92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above is correct
Ans. (b)
Exp: origin from Sama Veda. The lyrics, some of which were written in Sanskrit centuries ago, Dhrupad music is primarily devotional in theme and content.

93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Exp: The dance form spread further during the Bhakti movement between 11th and the 13th century, when dance dramas set to devotional themes were performed by a cast of all men in open-air theaters, with the men playing both the male and female roles. The dramas were usually opened by the narrator, or soothradhar accompanied by (music and) the rhythms of the drums and cymbals. As the audience watched with rapt attention, the characters would introduce themselves, with the lead roles entering the stage behind a curtain. Dramatic elements were used heavily throughout the performance, with the characters speaking out dialogues to the audience during key moments.

94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at
(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
(c) Suppression of the Khilafat Movement
(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
Ans. (b)

96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:
1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Exp: The Lahore session of Indian National Congress of 1929 was held under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. The two important decisions taken were the following: 
a. The attainment of complete independence: It was declared in this session that the chief goal of the Indian National congress was the attainment of complete independence. 
b. It was decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji to get the complete independence..
c. It was decided in this session to celebrate 26th January as the Independence Day all over the country. Because of its significance the same day was chosen as the Republic day of India.

97. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes:
(a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
(b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
(c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context
Ans. (d)
Exp: The "earth witness" Buddha is one of the most common iconic images of Buddhism. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth. This represents the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment.
Just before the historical Buddha, Siddhartha Gautama, realized enlightenment, it is said the demon Mara attacked him with armies of monsters to frighten Siddhartha from his seat under the bodhi tree. But the about-to-be Buddha did not move. Then Mara claimed the seat of enlightenment for himself, saying his spiritual accomplishments were greater than Siddhartha's. Mara's monstrous soldiers cried out together, "I am his witness!" Mara challenged Siddhartha--who will speak for you?

Then Siddhartha reached out his right hand to touch the earth, and the earth itself roared, "I bear you witness!" Mara disappeared. And as the morning star rose in the sky, Siddhartha Gautama realized enlightenment and became a Buddha.

98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
(a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas (d) worship of nature and Bhakti
Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)

100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Exp: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the bankers' bank. According to the provisions of the Banking Companies Act of 1949, every scheduled bank was required to maintain with the Reserve Bank a cash balance equivalent to 5% of its demand liabilites and 2 per cent of its time liabilities in India. By an amendment of 1962, the distinction between demand and time liabilities was abolished and banks have been asked to keep cash reserves equal to 3 per cent of their aggregate deposit liabilities. The minimum cash requirements can be changed by the Reserve Bank of India.

The scheduled banks can borrow from the Reserve Bank of India on the basis of eligible securities or get financial accommodation in times of need or stringency by rediscounting bills of exchange. Since commercial banks can always expect the Reserve Bank of India to come to their help in times of banking crisis the Reserve Bank becomes not only the banker's bank but also the lender of the last resort.